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This exam tests the knowledge of a network security engineer to configure and implement security on Cisco network perimeter edge devices such as a Cisco switch, Cisco router, and Cisco ASA firewall.
This exam focuses on the technologies used to strengthen security of a network perimeter such as Network Address Translation (NAT), ASA policy and application inspect, and a zone-based firewall on Cisco routers.
Free test Cisco CCNP Security 300-206 Exam questions and Answers
QUESTION 1 Which two web browsers are supported for the Cisco ISE GUI? (Choose two.) A. HTTPS-enabled Mozilla Firefox version 3.x B. Netscape Navigator version 9 C. Microsoft Internet Explorer version 8 in Internet Explorer 8-only mode D. Microsoft Internet Explorer version 8 in all Internet Explorer modes E. Google Chrome (all versions) Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 2 You are the administrator of a Cisco ASA 9.0 firewall and have been tasked with ensuring that the Firewall Admins Active Directory group has full access to the ASA configuration. The Firewall Operators Active Directory group should have a more limited level of access. Which statement describes how to set these access levels? A. Use Cisco Directory Agent to configure the Firewall Admins group to have privilege level 15 access. Also configure the Firewall Operators group to have privilege level 6 access. B. Use TACACS+ for Authentication and Authorization into the Cisco ASA CLI, with ACS as the AAA server. Configure ACS CLI command authorization sets for the Firewall Operators group. Configure level 15 access to be assigned to members of the Firewall Admins group. C. Use RADIUS for Authentication and Authorization into the Cisco ASA CLI, with ACS as the AAA server. Configure ACS CLI command authorization sets for the Firewall Operators group. Configure level 15 access to be assigned to members of the Firewall Admins group. D. Active Directory Group membership cannot be used as a determining factor for accessing the Cisco ASA CLI. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 When you install a Cisco ASA AIP-SSM, which statement about the main Cisco ASDM home page is true? A. It is replaced by the Cisco AIP-SSM home page. B. It must reconnect to the NAT policies database. C. The administrator can manually update the page. D. It displays a new Intrusion Prevention panel. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4 You moved your servers from physical to virtual infrastructure, how to defend it ? A. Cisco V B. Cisco ASA 1000V C. VXLAN D. VSG Correct Answer: BD Cisco VSG and the ASA 1000V provide complementary functionalities. The VSG provides virtual machine context- aware and zone-based security capabilities. The ASA 1000V provides tenant edge security and default gateway functionalities. Together, they provide a trusted and comprehensive virtual and cloud security Portfolio. From: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/switches/virtual-security-gateway/index.html Second – you moved your servers from physical to virtual infrastructure, how to defend it – Cisco V, Cisco ASA 1000V, VXLAN, VSG
QUESTION 5 About User identity with domain (there is a screen), if user is not in domain, what identity will be? A. local B. default Correct Answer: A ASA Identity Firewal: The default domain is used for all users and user groups when a domain has not been explicitly configured for those users or groups. When a default domain is not specified, the default domain for users and groups is LOCAL. Additionally, the Identity Firewall uses the LOCAL domain for all locally defined user groups or locally defined users (users who log in and authenticate by using a VPN or web portal).
QUESTION 6 Which statement about Dynamic ARP Inspection is true ? A. In a typical network, you make all ports as trusted expect for the ports connection to switches , which are untrusted B. DAI associates a trust state with each switch C. DAI determines the validity of an ARP packet based on valid IP to MAC address binding from the DHCP snooping database D. DAI intercepts all ARP requests and responses on trusted ports only E. DAI cannot drop invalid ARP packets Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7 Which Cisco Security Manager form factor is recommended for deployments with fewer than 25 devices? A. only Cisco Security Manager Standard B. only Cisco Security Manager Professional C. only Cisco Security Manager UCS Server Bundle D. both Cisco Security Manager Standard and Cisco Security Manager Professional Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8 Which of the following that Cisco engineer must secure a current monitoring environment? (Choose Two) A. RSA-SIG B. MD5 C. AES D. 3DES E. DES Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 9 Which Cisco ASA (8.4.1 and later) CLI command is the best command to use for troubleshooting SSH connectivity from the Cisco ASA appliance to the outside 192.168.1.1 server? A. telnet 192.168.1.1 22 B. ssh -l username 192.168.1.1 C. traceroute 192.168.1.1 22 D. ping tcp 192.168.1.1 22 E. packet-tracer input inside tcp 10.0.1.1 2043 192.168.4.1 ssh Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10 What is needed for the successful synchronization between NTP servers with enabled authentication? A. NTP Trusted Key B. TLS certification (NTP certificates) C. Stratum hash D. Something else Correct Answer: A You can configure the Cisco CG-OS router to authenticate the time sources to which the local clock synchronizes. When you enable NTP authentication, the Cisco CG-OS router synchronizes to a time source only if the source carries one of the authentication keys specified by the ntp trusted-key command. The Cisco CG-OS router drops any packets that fail the authentication check and prevents them from updating the local clock.
QUESTION 11 On the Cisco ASA, tcp-map can be applied to a traffic class using which MPF CLI configuration command? A. inspect B. sysopt connection C. tcp-options D. parameters E. set connection advanced-options Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 12 A. choosed to use udp as answer Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13 Which command enables uRPF on ASA interface? A. ip protection source B. ip source guard enable C. ip reverse-path verify reachable-via any D. ip verify unicast source reachable-via interface_name E. ip verify reverse-path interface interface_name Correct Answer: E
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Latest effective Cisco 300-370 Exam Practice Tests
QUESTION 1 A WLAN was installed at a high AP density. DTPC is lowering the transmit power of many APs too low. Which change m the DTPC transmit power threshold must be made to allow APs to globally increase AP transmit power by 3dBm? A. from 70 dBm to 73 dBm B. from -70 dBm to -73 dBm C. from 70 dBm to 67 dBm D. from -70 dBm to -67 dBm Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2 A Cisco WLC v7.0 is not seeing an AP join. Which starting prefix debug command can help determine a combination of discovery/join and DHCP process status? A. debug capwap events – from Cisco WLC B. debug capwap events – from the AP C. debug ip udp – from Cisco WLC D. debug ip udp – from the AP Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 An engineer is troubleshooting non-802.11 interference and observes the shown output. Which interference signature is the most harmful to Wi-Fi? Refer to the exhibit.A. cordless phone B. microwave oven C. 2 4 GHz wideband jammer D. FHSS Bluetooth E. analog video camera Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 A company consists of two adjacent buildings, each with its own Cisco 5508 Wireless Controller with APs joined to the controller in the building. The two controllers are configured identically except for interface IP addresses. Only one SSID is being used in both buildings. The clients in building A are not experiencing any connectivity issues, but (he clients in building B report poor connections An engineer performs a site survey and finds co-channel interference, yet discovers mac Transmit Power Control was never performed on the APs and that Radio Resource Management is not functioning like it does in building A Furthermore, the controllers are in the same RF group and controller A is elected RF leader. Which action will improve client connections in building B? A. Ensure WMM is enabled on the SSID B. Manually select controller B as RF group leader. C. Configure controller B to be in a separate RF group. D. Doable the low data rates on the a radio and the b/g radio in building B. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5 Which visual cue accurately describes a characteristic of the zone of impact displayed in Cisco Prime Infrastructure? A. The closer the cirlce is to blue, the more localized the impact is. B. The smaller the circle, the more localized the impact is. C. The larger the circle, the more severe the impact is. D. The more translucent the circle is, the more localized the impact is. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6 A VoWLAN has been deployed at a customer site. and users report that audio is choppy in some areas The exhibit captures a voice exchange between one phone that is associated to the AP at the end of the corridor (172.31 255 101) and another phone that is positioned in a conference room nearby. Which action enhances the voice application quality of experience? Refer to the exhibit.A. Change the basic rate configuration on the WLC to include 54 Mbps. B. Change the WLAN QoS profile to platinum. C. Decrease the AP power level. D. Disable higher data rates on the controller. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7 The AP is unable to join the controller. What is the cause of this error? Refer to the exhibit. A. The controller code version is lower than the code of the AP attempting to join. B. AP code is not the same as the controller and must download firmware. C. AP model % not compatible with the controller code version. D. The AP is riot conjured in the controller auth-list of acceptable APs. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8 Refer to the exhibit.
A client reports being unable to log into the wireless network According to the output, which network information should be verified? A. the Failed Attempts log on the authentication server B. that the AP has IP connectivity to the authentication server C. that the user has an account on the authentication server D. that the authentication and accounting configuration are correct Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9 You have successfully configured HA and SSO using two Cisco 5508 Wireless LAN Controllers. You are able to access the Active Primary WLC but are unable to access the Secondary Standby WLC. Which two methods will allow you to access the standby unit? (Choose two.) A. Via SSH to the Redundancy Management Interface. B. Via Service Port Interface. C. Via SSH to the Management Interface. D. Via console connection. Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 10 An engineer is troubleshooting AP join issues on a wireless infrastructure. While gathering debugs, the engineer notices that one of the commands may generate an excessive an excessive amount of data on the console. Which command causes this to occur? A. debug capwap detail enable B. debug capwap errors enable C. debug capwap info enable D. debug capwap events enable E. debug capwap packet enable F. debug capwap payload enable Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11 Which two statements about the WLAN are true? (Choose two)Refer to the exhibit. A. The client has a 5 GHz connection. B. The client has authenticated. C. The client is 802.11n capable. D. The Cisco device is a 3600 series AP. E. 802 11b data rates are disabled in this WLAN Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 12 Employees upgraded company issued OS devices. Which are configured to authenticate to the network using WPA2- Eniefpnse 802 lx with LEAP As a result, the devices are no longer able to authenticate. Which action must the engineer do 10 resolve the issue? Refer to the exhibit.A. Redeploy the existing configuration profile. B. Change LEAP certificate on the ACS server. C. Reset the network settings on the devices. D. Rejoin the enterprise network manually. E. Deploy a new configuration profile with LEAP enabled Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13 An engineer must open a support case with Cisco TAC. Which two commands verify the model and serial number of a controller?(Choose two) A. show sysinfo B. show udi C. show inventory D. show boot E. show tech-support Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 14 A client is failing EAP authentication and a debug shows that the server is sending an Access-Reject message. Which action must you take to resolve authentication? A. Verify that the Validate server certificate on the client is disabled. B. Verify that the client certificates are from the proper CA and server certificate. C. Verify that the client server certificate has the proper Windows OlDs. D. Verify that the user account is the same in the client certificate. E. Verify that the user is using the same password that is on the server Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 15 An engineer is using various techniques to discover and isolate rogues on the network. For which technique must the engineer consider legal ramifications? A. rogue AP containment B. RF detection C. switch port tracing D. wire detection E. Cisco Prime Infrastructure location services Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 16 A WLC receives a coverage hole detection alert from an AP. What two conditions must occur for the controller to dynamically mitigate the situation? (Choose two.) A. The AP serving the troubled client must currently have a power level 2 or lower. B. The client must be able to dynamically raise its power level to match the new AP power. C. The AP must be RF visible to additional APs on the other side of the coverage hole for calibration. D. The client must have WMM-PS disabled to allow for the increased power usage. E. The AP serving the troubled client must currently have a power level higher than 2. Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 17 A user reports being unable to connect to a server with a certain program while connected to wireless. Which troubleshooting methodology can be used to begin the troubleshooting process? A. top-down B. shoot from the hip C. follow the path D. bottom-up E. divide and conquer Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18 Which statement about the join process of the access point is true? Refer to the exhibit.A. The AP failed to join because the self-signed certificate of the AP was not correct on the controller. B. The time on the controller is outside of the certificates validity time interval so the join phase failed. C. The AP moved from this controller to its primary controller. D. The AP successfully joined the controller. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 19 An engineer is troubleshooting access point placement issues and suspects that poor placement is causing connectivity issues When running the show client detail command, the engineer notices this output Which option indicates poor access point placement? Refer to the exhibit.
A. excessive number of bytes sent compared to bytes received B. high signal-to-noise ratio C. excessive number of data retries D. low ratio signal strength indicator E. duplicate received packets F. poor statistics for the last 90 seconds Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 20 Which three steps would a network engineer use to troubleshoot an AP join problem? (Choose three.) A. Validate the STP configuration. B. Verify the ping AP from the controller. C. Verify the ping AP from the client. D. Verify that the AP is getting an address from the DHCP server. E. I Validate the SNMP configuration. F. Verify the authentication configuration parameters. Correct Answer: ABF
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Latest effective Cisco 300-360 Exam Practice Tests
QUESTION 1 Refer to the exhibit. An engineer has determined that Cisco 7925 phones are roaming between 2.4 6Hz and 5 6Hz radios on the same access points, which results in poor audio performance Which action must the engineer take to mitigate this issue? A. Enable TPCv2 to normalize the RF environment. B. Configure EDCA parameters for Voice Optimized. C. Configure the Cisco 7925 phone to only use 5 6Hz. D. Enable Band Select on the WLAN Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 A Cisco 7925 phone at a client\\’s location is not registering with CUCM. The engineer analyzes a packet capture, sees that the phone receives an IP, and downloads the proper configuration file from TFTP successfully. What type of messages should the phone be sending at this point? A. H.245 B. H.323 C. MCGP D. SCCP Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 Which two options describe best practices that must be completed after a wireless installation is finished? (Choose two.) A. Make sure that there are no spaces between the devices on the rack that the Wireless Lan Controller isinstalled. B. Consult with the customer to ensure that the IT staff has a complete set of design and installationdocuments. C. Make sure the customer is aware that they should consider purchasing a support contract immediately afterthe installation is complete. D. Spend time with the customer to show them the controller GUI and inform them how they can reach theCisco TAC if they have any problems. E. Test all the customer\\’s wireless devices and applications to ensure they are working properly. Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 4 A customer is preparing to deploy a wireless network in a stadium and is identifying coverage area requirement for the patrons in suite areas. Which two attributes are relevant to determining these coverage requirements? (Choose two.) A. hours d operon B. encryption type C. authentication type D. number of uses E. device types Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 5 An engineer is assigned to assist a customer by estimating the number of access points needed to provide voice-grade wireless coverage in a carpeted office space. How many access points should be estimated to cover this space of roughly 38,000 square feet? A. 17 B. 10 C. 6 D. 13 Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6 A customer has restricted the AP and antenna combinations for a design to be limited to one model integrated antenna AP for carpeted spaces and one model external antenna AP, with high gain antennas for industrial, maintenance, or storage areas. When moving between a carpeted area to an industrial area, the engineer forgets to change survey devices and surveys several APs. Which option is the best to reduce the negative impact of the design? A. Deploy the specified access points per area type. B. Resurvey and adjust the design. C. Increase the Tx power on incorrectly surveyed access points. D. Deploy unsurveyed access points to the design. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7 An engineer is preparing for an active site survey of a hospital and is informed that he or she should not enter any active surgery suites. Which option describes how the engineer should address this restriction? A. Conduct a passive wireless survey in the restricted areas. B. Use the predictive AP placement tool on the wireless controller C. Skip the area and estimate where to place the access points. D. Arrange to perform survey activities after hours. Correct Answer: A Passive Survey Passive surveys are surveys that are performed with a listen-only mode. The survey client never associates to the access point (AP). Such surveys can be helpful when you look for rogue devices or you want a good gauge of downlink RF coverage from the infrastructure devices. These can be accomplished with a passive survey:
QUESTION 8 An engineer is implementing Q0S for a new wireless voice network. Which two considerations should be identified first? (Choose two.) A. QoS marking B. policing C. QoS requirements D. data traffic usage E. traffic classification Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 9 A customer has deployed an N+N redundant wireless infrastructure. In this deployment, the access points have been salt and peppered between controllers. What configuration would be necessary to cut down on the use of mobility tunnels for voice clients? A. mobility anchor B. KIS based CAC C. media session snooping D. re-anchor roamed voice clients Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10 An engineer is determining powering requirements for a P2P wireless link using Cisco Aironet 1572EC access points. Which power method is valid for the access point? A. 802.3af Power over Ethernet B. Power over Cable C. Cisco Inline Power D. 802.3at Power over Ethernet Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11 An engineer receives a digital image scanned from the floor plans of a facility to be surveyed for wireless survey and imported it into Air Magnet Pro. However, the document contains no scale. Which action can the engineer take to most accurately calibrate the size of the floor plan in Air Magnet? A. Mark the length of a hallway, then count the ceiling tiles, multiply that number by 2 and enter that value. B. Zoom in and mark across a hallway, then count the floor tiles across that hallway and enter that value. C. Zoom in and mark a doorway, then size it at 3 feet because most doorways are 36 inches. D. Mark the entire longest dimension of the floorplan, then use Google Earth to measure the correspondingoutside dimension and enter that value. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12 A wireless engineer is hired to troubleshoot wireless network issues and discovers that the customer is using 802 11 ac access points with 80 MHz-wide channels in a high-density environment. Which solution addresses these issues? A. Disable RRM on the WLC. B. Disable TPC on the WLC C. Decrease the channel width. D. Increase the minimum data rate supported Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13 When conducting a wireless survey at a customer facility, signal attenuation in an area that is surrounded by thick glass walls is noted as 2dB. When configuring Cisco Prime Infrastructure, which obstacle should be placed in a map editor to represent the impact the glass wall will have on the RF signal in the facility? A. heavy door B. thick wall C. glass D. light wall Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 14 IEEE 802.llk-2008 is an amendment to IEEE 80211-2007 standard for radio resource management. A wireless engineer is designing a wireless network to support real time applications over wireless. Which IEEE protocol must the engineer enable on the WLC so that neighbor list radio management packets are sent to the wireless devices? A. 802.1 1r B. 802.1 1w C. 802.1 1i D. 802.1 1k Correct Answer: D You can optimize roaming for non-802.11k clients by generating a prediction neighbor list for each client without sending an 802.11k neighbor list request. When prediction based roaming enables a WLAN, after each successful client association/re-association, the same neighbor list optimization applies on the non- 802.11k client to generate and store the neighbor list in the mobile station software data structure. Clients at different locations have different lists because the client probes are seen with different RSSI values by the different neighbors as the clients usually probe before any association or re-association. This list is created with the most updated probe data and predicts the next AP that the client is likely to roam to. https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/8-1/Enterprise-Mobility-8-1-Design- Guide/Enter prise_Mobility_8-1_Deployment_Guide/Chapter-11.html
QUESTION 15 An engineer is assigned to replace an older data-grade autonomous wireless network with a Cisco controllerbased wireless network to meet Voice over WLAN needs. The customer also wants all existing cable infrastructure to be reused and no new cable be specified. How should the engineer respond to the customer\\’s requirements? A. Implement the wireless network with the restraints and decrease the TPC neighbor threshold to increase Txpower to provide overlapping cell coverage at sufficient SNR to provide for Voice over WLAN service. B. Implement the wireless network with the restraints and utilize high-gain antenna to provide overlapping cellcoverage at sufficient SNR to provide for Voice over WLAN service. C. Inform the customer that the network will not likely function as desired and a post install survey with thepossibility of some new cable would be recommended. D. Inform the customer that it is not possible to provide coverage and quality for Voice over WLAN usingexisting AP locations and an entire overbuild will be necessary. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 16 When designing a WLAN, AP placement is important. Which option describes how to rank the density of APs needed to support location services versus data and voice services? A. Data services have the lowest density of APs compared to location services, which has the highest density. B. Data services have a lower density of APs compared to location services, but more than voice. C. Voice services have the highest density of APs over location and data services. D. Voice and data services require a higher density of APs than location services. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17 You have a customer that is building a new campus of four 3-story buildings that you have just completed the site survey for. The customer is interested in the mount of rack space they will need to allocate in either the building MDF or in the data center for controllers. Each building is going to require 75 APs to support voice and data. How should the controllers be deployed to provide the least number of controllers, the highest redundancy, and the easiest management? A. Use the centralized deployment method in the data center with the N + N redundancy method. B. Use the centralized deployment method in the data center with the N + 1 redundancy method C. Use the centralized deployment method in the data center with the 1 + 1 redundancy method and clientSSO. D. Use the distributed deployment method in each building MDF with the N + 1 redundancy method. E. Use the distributed deployment method in each building MDF with the N + N + 1 redundancy method. F. Use the distributed deployment method in each building MDF with the N + N redundancy method. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18 An engineer is performing a predictive wireless design for a Parts Distribution Center, which requires data and location services. Which three requirements are inputs to the design? (Choose three.) A. access points with directional antennas B. continuous -67 dBm coverage from one access point C. overlapping -75 dBm coverage from three access points D. overlapping -67 dBm coverage from two access points E. access points in IPS mode F. continuous -72 dBm coverage from one access point G. access points in corners and along perimeters Correct Answer: BCG
QUESTION 19 A customer is deploying a mesh outdoor wireless network based on FCC standards where spectrum analysis shows significant radar energy propagating throughout the coverage area from a local weather station. Which channel must be excluded from the access points RRM calculation to avoid network disruption due to weather radar activity? A. 132 B. 44 C. 11 D. 36 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 20 Which infrastructure issue needs to be verified and potentially resolved before deploying a centralized 802.11n WLAN? A. That all the access layer switches that the 802.11n APs will connect to support 802.3af power. B. That all the access layer switches that the 802.11n APs will connect to contain 10/100/1000 Ethernet ports. C. The location of application and authentication servers. D. The proposed location for the WDS server. E. The proposed location for the WCS. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 21 A customer has determined that a cable run for a low-throughput RF design is not economically feasible to install. Which two access point modes can alleviate these customer concerns? (Choose two.) A. bridge B. sniffer C. Flex+Bridge D. FlexConnect E. local Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 22 When implementing video teleconferencing over a wireless network, which three attributes should be considered when cell planning? (Choose three.) A. latency B. jitter C. throughput D. packet loss E. client association F. number of users on the network Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 23 An engineer is tuning RRM parameters to improve client connectivity. Which channel band results in the best 802.11n client compatibility? A. UNII-2 B. UNII-2e C. UNII-3 D. UNII E. UNII-1 Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 24 An engineer has performed a post-deployment site survey and noticed that access points were installed in suboptimal locations due to physical restrictions and obstacles. Which action must the engineer take to resolve this deployment issue? A. Set DCA Channel Assignment Method to freeze. B. Set all Auto RE parameters to factory default C. Set TPC maximum and minimum power levels. D. Set static channels on all AP radios. Correct Answer: C Suspect poor coverage/not enough AP density — If AP transmit power is already at the maximum, you can enable the lower data rates to allow clients to connect from farther away. This has a negative impact on performance, but it can help the customer understand that additional APs might be necessary. https:// www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless/5500-series-wireless-controllers/116057-site-survey -guidelines- wlan-00.html
QUESTION 25 An access point will be partially exposed to the outdoor environment in a loading dock of a factory. How should this access point be deployed in a cost-effective manner? A. indoor AP with an external leaky coaxial cable B. outdoor mesh AP utilizing the 5-GHz band C. outdoor bridge AP pointing its antenna toward the factory D. indoor-based AP inside a NEMA-rated enclosure Correct Answer: B Because mesh radio waves have very high frequency in the 5-GHz band, the radio wavelength is small; therefore, the radio waves do not travel as far as radio waves on lower frequencies, given the same amount of power. This higher frequency range makes the mesh ideal for unlicensed use because the radio waves do not travel far unless a high-gain antenna is used to tightly focus the radio waves in a given direction. https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/ technology/mesh/7-0MR1/design/guide/MeshAP_70MR1 .html#wp1849065
QUESTION 26 Which two factors influence the density of APs in a data-only WLAN environment? (Choose two.) A. Channel reuse and WLAN bandwidth B. The type of controller chosen. C. The defined coverage area and customer needs. D. The number of clients that will roam through the facility. E. The number of APs dedicated to voice services. Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 27 A customer has determined that aesthetics is a primary concern for their upcoming guest deployment. Which design consideration can be leveraged to address this concern? A. Paint the access point to cover the LED from being noticeable B. Use enclosures to hide the wireless infrastructure in the surrounding environment C. Deploy environmentally friendly cabling components to blend into the environment. D. Use AIR-AP-BRACKET-1 to allow for greater mounting locations Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 28 An engineer is deploying an outdoor Mesh network. Which four major factors should be considered? (Choose four.) A. power B. buildings C. traffic lights D. satellite dishes E. line of sight F. network connectivity G. power lines H. mounting Correct Answer: AEFH
QUESTION 29 You are planning the coverage for wireless VoIP by using Ekahau. Which signal strength does Ekahau recommend using for VoIP? A. -84 dBm B. -76 dBm C. -67 dBm D. -53 dBm Correct Answer: C Each vendor has their own recommended signal strength for a given data rate or application. For instance, one vendor may recommend designing their VoIP solution at -67 dBm (perhaps the most widely-used value for VoIP deployment if I had to choose one), while another may say -70 dBm. In most cases the values will differ only by a couple dB. https://www.ekahau.com/blog/2015/01/13/ekahau-site-survey-heatmap-visualizations-part-2-signal-stren gth/
QUESTION 30 Which two factors influence the density of APs in a data-only WLAN environment? (Choose two.) A. the number of clients that will roam through the facility B. the type of controller chosen C. the defined coverage area and customer needs D. the number of APs dedicated to voice services E. channel reuse and WLAN bandwidth Correct Answer: CE
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QUESTION 6
Drag and Drop
Drag the attributes on the left to the types of VLAN designs that they describe on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 7
Drag and Drop
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 8
Drag and Drop
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 9
Drag and Drop
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 10
Drag and Drop
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 11
Drag and Drop
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 12
Drag and Drop
Match the HSRP states on the left with the correct definition on the right. 300-115 dumps
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 13
Drag and Drop
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 14
Drag and Drop
PortFast / BPDU Guard / BPDU Filter.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 15
Drag and Drop
PVST+ / Rapid PVST+ / MSTP
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 16
Drag and Drop
STP Timers
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 17
Drag and Drop
Port Cost / Switch Port Priority / Port Priority
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 18
Drag and Drop
Guard Root / Guard Loop
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 19
Drag and Drop
STP Timer Delay
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 20
Drag and Drop
LLDP-TLV
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 1
An engineer wants to improve web traffic performance by proxy caching. Which technology provides this improvement?
A. Firepower
B. FireSIGT
C. WSA
D. ASA
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
Which cloud-based malware detection engine uses machine-learning detection techniques in the Cisco Advanced Malware Protection cloud?
A. third-party detections
B. Spero
C. Ethos
D. Memcache
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
which two options are the basic parts of a Snort rule? (Choose two)
A. rule policy
B. rule header
C. Rule assignment and ports
D. rule options
E. Rule footer
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 4
Which three statements about Cisco CWS are true’? (Choose three )
A. It provides protection against zero-day threats.
B. Cisco SIO provides it with threat updates in near real time.
C. It supports granular application policies.
D. Its Roaming User Protection feature protects the VPN from malware and data breaches.
E. It supports local content caching.
F. Its Cognitive Threat Analytics feature uses cloud-based analysis and detection to block threats outside the network.
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 5
When creating an SSL policy on Cisco FirePOWER, which three options do you have
A. do not decrypt
B. trust
C. allow
D. block with reset
E. block
F. encrypt
Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 6
With Cisco FirePOWER Threat Defense software, which interface mode do you configure to passively receive traffic that passes the appliance?
A. transparent
B. routed
C. passive
D. inline set
E. inline tap
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
Which two statement about Cisco Firepower file and intrusion inspection under control policies are true? 300-210 dumps (Choose two.)
A. File inspection occurs before intrusion prevention.
B. Intrusion Inspection occurs after traffic is blocked by file type.
C. File and intrusion drop the same packet.
D. Blocking by file type takes precedence over malware inspection and blocking
E. File inspection occurs after file discovery
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 8
Which Cisco FirePOWER setting is used to reduce the number of events received in a period of time and avoid being overwhelmed?
A. thresholding
B. rate-limiting
C. limiting
D. correlation
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9
Which Cisco Web Security Appliance feature enables the appliance to block suspicious traffic on all of its ports and IP addresses?
A. explicit forward mode
B. Layer 4 Traffic Monitor
C. transparent mode
D. Secure Web Proxy
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
What is the maximum message size that the Cisco Email Security Appliance will accept from the violet.public domain?
A. 1 KB
B. 100 KB
C. 1 MB
D. 10 MB
E. 100 MB
F. Unlimited
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11
Which option is a benefit of Cisco Email Security virtual appliance over the Cisco ESA appliance?
A. global threat intelligence updates from Talos
B. reduced space and power requirements
C. outbound message protection
D. automated administration
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12
An engineer must architect an AMP private cloud deployment. What is the benefit of running in air-gaped mode?
A. Internet connection is not required for disposition.
B. Database sync time is reduced.
C. Disposition queries are done on AMP appliances.
D. A dedicated server is needed to run amp-sync.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13
Which Cisco ESA predefined sender group uses parameter-matching to reject senders?
A. WHITELIST
B. BLACKLIST
C. UNKNOWNLIST
D. SUSPECTLIST
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
A network engineer wants to deploy a virtual cisco ESA and wants protection against email-based threats, email encryption, and clustering. Which software license bundle must the network engineer purchase to access these components?
A. cisco email security Premium
B. cisco email security Hybrid Essential
C. cisco email security advansed
D. cisco email security Gateway
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15
Which type of server is required to communicate with a third-party DLP solution?
A. an ICAP-capable proxy server
B. a PKI certificate server
C. an HTTP server
D. an HTTPS server
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 16
Which Cisco technology is a customizable web-based alerting service designed to report threats and vulnerabilities?
A. Cisco Security Intelligence Operations
B. Cisco Security IntelliShield Alert Manager Service
C. Cisco Security Optimization Service
D. Cisco Software Application Support Service
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 17
Which three statements about the Cisco IPS appliance configurations are true? (Choose three.)
A. The maximum number of denied attackers is set to 10000.
B. The block action duraton is set to 3600 seconds.
C. The Meta Event Generator is globally enabled.
D. Events Summarization is globally disabled.
E. Threat Rating Adjustment is globally disabled.
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 18
What is the correct deployment for an IPS appliance in a network where traffic identified as threat traffic should be blocked and all traffic is blocked if the IPS fails? 300-210 dumps
A. Inline; fail open
B. Inline; fail closed
C. Promiscuous; fail open
D. Promiscuous; fail closed
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 19
Which signature definition is virtual sensor 0 assigned to use?
A. rules0
B. vs0
C. sig0
D. ad0
E. ad1
F. sigl
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20
Which port is used for CLI Secure shell access?
A. Port 23
B. Port 25
C. Port 22
D. Port 443
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 21
An ASA with an IPS module must be configured to drop traffic matching IPS signatures and block all traffic if the module fails. Which describes the correct configuration?
A. Inline Mode, Permit Traffic
B. Inline Mode, Close Traffic
C. Promiscuous Mode, Permit Traffic
D. Promiscuous Mode, Close Traffic
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 22
Which Cisco monitoring solution displays information and important statistics for the security devices in a network?
A. Cisco Prime LAN Management
B. Cisco ASDM Version 5.2
C. Cisco Threat Defense Solution
D. Syslog Server
E. TACACS+
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 23
Which three options are valid event actions for a Cisco IPS? (Choose three.)
A. deny-packet-inline
B. deny-attack-reset
C. produce-verbose-alert
D. log-attacker-packets
E. deny-packet-internal
F. request-block-drop-connection
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 24
During initial configuration, the Cisco ASA can be configured to drop all traffic if the ASA CX SSP fails by using which command in a policy-map?
A. cxsc fail
B. cxsc fail-close
C. cxsc fail-open
D. cxssp fail-close
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 25
Which set of commands changes the FTP client timeout when the sensor is communicating with an FTP server?
A. sensor# configure terminal
sensor(config)# service sensor
sensor(config-hos)# network-settings
sensor(config-hos-net)# ftp-timeout 500
B. sensor# configure terminal
sensor(config)# service host sensor(config-hos)# network-settings parameter ftp sensor(config-hos- net)# ftp-timeout 500
C. sensor# configure terminal
sensor(config)# service host
sensor(config-hos)# network-settings
sensor(config-hos-net)# ftp-timeout 500
D. sensor# configure terminal
sensor(config)# service network
sensor(config-hos)# network-settings
sensor(config-hos-net)# ftp-timeout 500
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 26
What is the status of OS Identification?
A. It is only enabled to identify “Cisco IOS” OS using statically mapped OS fingerprinting
B. OS mapping information will not be used for Risk Rating calculations.
C. It is configured to enable OS mapping and ARR only for the 10.0.0.0/24 network.
D. It is enabled for passive OS fingerprinting for all networks.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 27
Which three zones are used for anomaly detection? (Choose three.)
A. Internal zone
B. External zone
C. Illegal zone
D. Inside zone
E. Outside zone
F. DMZ zone
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 28 300-210 dumps What are the initial actions that can be performed on an incoming SMTP session by the workqueue of a Cisco Email Security Appliance?
A. Accept, Reject, Relay, TCPRefuse
B. LDAP Verification, Envelope Sender Verification, Bounce Verification, Alias Table Verification
C. Recipient Access Table Verification, Host DNS Verification, Masquerading, Spam Payload Check
D. SMTP Authentication, SBRS Verification, Sendergroup matching, DNS host verification
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 29
Which signature engine is responsible for ICMP inspection on Cisco IPS?
A. AIC Engine
B. Fixed Engine
C. Service Engine
D. Atomic IP Engine
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 30
Refer to the exhibit.
What are two facts about the interface that you can determine from the given output? (Choose two.)
A. A Cisco Flexible NetFlow monitor is attached to the interface.
B. A quality of service policy is attached to the interface.
C. Cisco Application Visibility and Control limits throughput on the interface.
D. Feature activation array is active on the interface.
Correct Answer: AB
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High quality Cisco CCDP 300-101 dumps exam questions and answers (1-20)
QUESTION 1
Which option is one way to mitigate symmetric routing on an active/active firewall setup for TCP-based connections?
A. performing packet captures
B. disabling asr-group commands on interfaces that are likely to receive asymetric traffic
C. replacing them with redundant routers and allowing load balancing
D. disabling stateful TCP checks
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2
Which option is invalid when configuring Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding?
A. allow self ping to router
B. allow default route
C. allow based on ACL match
D. source reachable via both
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
Which traffic characteristic is the reason that UDP traffic that carries voice and video is assigned to the queue only on a link that is at least 768 kbps?
A. typically is not fragmented
B. typically is fragmented
C. causes windowing
D. causes excessive delays for video traffic
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
Refer to the following configuration command.
router(config)# ip nat inside source static tcp 172.16.10.8 8080 172.16.10.8 80
Which statement about the command is true? 300-101 dumps
A. Any packet that is received in the inside interface with a source IP port address of 172.16.10.8:80 is translated to 172.16.10.8:8080.
B. Any packet that is received in the inside interface with a source IP port address of 172.16.10.8:8080 is translated to 172.16.10.8:80.
C. The router accepts only a TCP connection from port 8080 and port 80 on IP address 172.16.10.8
D. Any packet that is received in the inside interface with a source IP address of 172.16.10.8 is redirected to port 8080 or port 80.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
What type of IPv6 packet will indicate traffic from single host and single node?
A. multicast
B. unicast
C. broadcast
D. anycast
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about the command output is true?
A. The router exports flow information to 10.10.10.1 on UDP port 5127.
B. The router receives flow information from 10.10.10.2 on UDP port 5127.
C. The router exports flow information to 10.10.10.1 on TCP port 5127.
D. The router receives flow information from 10.10.10.2 on TCP port 5127.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
Which three IP SLA performance metrics can you use to monitor enterprise-class networks? (Choose three.)
A. Packet loss
B. Delay
C. bandwidth
D. Connectivity
E. Reliability
F. traps
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 8
What is the administrative distance for EBGP?
A. 200
B. 30
C. 70
D. 20
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9
A network engineer is configuring the router for NetFlow data exporting. What is required in order for NDE to begin exporting data?
A. Source
B. Flow mask
C. Destination
D. Interface type
E. Traffic type
F. NetFlow version
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
A network administrator creates a static route that points directly to a multi-access interface, instead of the next-hop IP address. 300-101 dumps The administrator notices that Cisco Express Forwarding ARP requests are being sent to all destinations. Which issue might this configuration create?
A. Low bandwidth usage
B. High memory usage
C. Cisco Express Forwarding routing loop
D. High bandwidth usage
E. IP route interference
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.
The DHCP client is unable to receive a DHCP address from the DHCP server. Consider the following output:
hostname RouterB
!
interface fastethernet 0/0
ip address 172.31.1.1 255.255.255.0
interface serial 0/0
ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.252
!
ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 10.1.1.2
Which configuration is required on the Router B fastethernet 0/0 port in order to allow the DHCP client to successfully receive an IP address from the DHCP server?
A. RouterB(config-if)# ip helper-address 172.16.1.2
B. RouterB(config-if)# ip helper-address 172.16.1.1
C. RouterB(config-if)# ip helper-address 172.31.1.1
D. RouterB(config-if)# ip helper-address 255.255.255.255
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12
Which is the asymmetric Rotuing?
A. active/active firewall
B. active/passive firwall
C. single path
D. using VRRP
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit.
Routers R2, R3, R4, and R5 have OSPF enabled. What should be configured on the routers in area 1 to ensure that all default summary routes and redistributed EIGRP routes will be forwarded from R6 to area 1, and only a default route for all other OSPF routes will be forwarded from R5 to area 1.
A. R5(config-router)# area 1 stubR6(config-router)# area 1 stub
B. R5(config-router)# area 1 stub no-summaryR6(config-router)# area 1 stub
C. R5(config-router)# area 1 nssaR6(config-router)# area 1 nssa
D. R5(config-router)# area 1 nssa no-summaryR6(config-router)# area 1 nssa
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 14
Which of the following NSAP addresses is a private, locally administered address?
A. 39.0f01.0002.0000.0c00.1111.00
B. 48.0f01.0002.0000.0c00.1111.00
C. 49.0004.30ac.0000.3090.c7df.00
D. 52.0f01.0002.0000.0c00.1111.00
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 15
Which two phases of DMVPN allow to spoke sites to create dynamic tunnels to one another? (Choose Two)
A. Phase 1
B. Phase 2
C. Phase 3
D. Phase 4
E. Phase 5
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 16
Which two statements about 6to4 tunneling are accurate? 300-101 dumps (Choose two.)
A. Prepending a reserved IPv6 code to the hexadecimal representation of 192.168.0.1 facilitates 6to4 tunneling.
B. Each 6to4 site receives a /48 prefix in a 6to4 tunnel.
C. 2002::/48 is the address range specifically assigned to 6to4.
D. Prepending 0x2002 with the IPv4 address creates an IPv6 address that is used in 6to4 tunneling.
E. 6to4 is a manual tunnel method.
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 17
Which three statements are true when configuring redistribution for OSPF? (Choose three)
A. The default metric is 10.
B. The default metric is 20.
C. The default metric type is 2.
D. The default metric type is 1.
E. Subnets do not redistribute by default.
F. Subnets redistribute by default.
Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 18
R3#show run | include defaultip default-network 140.140.0.0 ip default-network 130.130.0.0 R3#show ip route | begin Gateway Gateway of last resort is 0.0.0.0 to network 130.130.0.0 116.0.0.0/8 is variably subnetted, 5 subnets, 3 masks C 116.16.37.0/30 is directly connected, Serial1/0.2 C 116.16.32.0/30 is directly connected, Serial2/0.2 C 116.16.34.0/28 is directly connected, Serial1/0.1 C 116.16.35.0/28 is directly connected, Serial2/0.1 S 116.0.0.0/8 [1/0] via 116.16.34.0
* 140.140.0.0/32 is subnetted, 3 subnets O 140.140.1.1 [110/65] via 116.16.34.4, 00:14:54, Serial1/0.1 O 140.140.3.1 [110/65] via 116.16.34.4, 00:14:54, Serial1/0.1 O 140.140.2.1 [110/65] via 116.16.34.4, 00:14:54, Serial1/0.1
* 130.130.0.0/16 is variably subnetted, 4 subnets, 2 masks D* 130.130.0.0/16 is a summary, 00:30:04, Null0 C 130.130.1.0/24 is directly connected, Ethernet0/0 C 130.130.2.0/24 is directly connected, Ethernet0/1 C 130.130.3.0/24 is directly connected, Ethernet1/0 D 150.150.0.0/16 [90/679936] via 116.16.35.5, 00:02:58, Serial2/0.1 Refer to the exhibit. Why is the 140.140.0.0 network not used as the gateway of last resort even though it is configured first?
A. The last default-network statement will always be preferred.
B. A route to the 140.140.0.0 network does not exist in the routing table.
C. Default-network selection will always prefer the statement with the lowest IP address.
D. A router will load balance across multiple default-networks; repeatedly issuing the show ip route command would show the gateway of last resort changing between the two networks.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 19
Which two reason for IP SLA tracking failure are likely true (choose two)
A. The source-interface is configured incorrectly
B. The destination must be 172.30.30.2 for icmp-echo
C. A route back to the R1 LAN network is missing in R2
D. The default routehas wrong next hop IP address
E. The threshold value is wrong
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 20
A network engineer receives reports about poor voice quality issues at a remote site. The network engineer does a packet capture and sees out-of-order packets being delivered. Which option can cause the VOIP quality to suffer?
A. traffic over backup redundant links
B. misconfigured voice vlan
C. speed duplex link issues
D. load balancing over redundant links
Correct Answer: D
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QUESTION 1
Which statement about slow inter VLAN forwarding is true?
A. The VLAN is experiencing slowness in the point-to-point collisionless connection.
B. The VLANs are experiencing slowness because multiple devices are connected to the same hub.
C. The local VLAN is working normally, but traffic to the alternate VLAN is forwarded slower than expected.
D. The entire VLAN is experiencing slowness.
E. The VLANs are experiencing slowness due to a duplex mismatch.
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 2
What is the advantage of using a multipoint interface instead of point-to-point subinterfaces when configuring a Frame Relay hub in a hub-and-spoke topology?
A. It avoids split-horizon issues with distance vector routing protocols.
B. IP addresses can be conserved if VLSM is not being used for subnetting.
C. A multipoint interface offers greater security compared to point-to-point subinterface configurations.
D. The multiple IP network addresses required for a multipoint interface provide greater addressing flexibility over pointto-point configurations.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
What are three values that must be the same within a sequence of packets for Netflow to consider them a network flow? (Choose three.)
A. source IP address
B. source MAC address
C. egress interface
D. ingress interface
E. destination IP address
F. IP next-hop
Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 4
What occurs on a Frame Relay network when the CIR is exceeded?
A. All TCP traffic is marked discard eligible.
B. All UDP traffic is marked discard eligible and a BECN is sent.
C. All TCP traffic is marked discard eligible and a BECN is sent.
D. All traffic exceeding the CIR is marked discard eligible.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
Which command is used to enable CHAP authentication, 200-155 dumps with PAP as the fallback method, on a serial interface?
A. Router(config-if)# ppp authentication chap fallback ppp
B. Router(config-if)# ppp authentication chap pap
C. Router(config-if)# authentication ppp chap fallback ppp
D. Router(config-if)# authentication ppp chap pap
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
Which port state is introduced by Rapid-PVST?
A. learning
B. listening
C. discarding
D. forwarding
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
The output of the show frame-relay pvc command shows andquot;PVC STATUS = INACTIVEandquot;. What does this mean?
A. The PVC is configured correctly and is operating normally, but no data packets have been detected for more than five minutes.
B. The PVC is configured correctly, is operating normally, and is no longer actively seeking the address of the remote router.
C. The PVC is configured correctly, is operating normally, and is waiting for interesting traffic to trigger a call to the remote router.
D. The PVC is configured correctly on the local switch, but there is a problem on the remote end of the PVC.
E. The PVC is not configured on the local switch.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
Which EIGRP for IPv6 command can you enter to view the link-local addresses of the neighbors of a device?
A. show ipv6 eigrp 20 interfaces
B. show ipv6 route eigrp
C. show ipv6 eigrp neighbors
D. show ip eigrp traffic
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9
Which two switch states are valid for 802.1w? (Choose two.)
A. listening
B. backup
C. disabled
D. learning
E. discarding
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 10
Which parameter would you tune to affect the selection of a static route as a backup, when a dynamic protocol is also being used?
A. hop count
B. administrative distance
C. link bandwidth
D. link delay
E. link cost
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11
A router has two Fast Ethernet interfaces and needs to connect to four VLANs in the local network. How can you accomplish this task, 200-155 dumps using the fewest physical interfaces and without decreasing network performance?
A. Use a hub to connect the four VLANS with a Fast Ethernet interface on the router.
B. Add a second router to handle the VLAN traffic.
C. Add two more Fast Ethernet interfaces.
D. Implement a router-on-a-stick configuration.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
Which statement about MPLS is true?
A. It operates in Layer 1.
B. It operates between Layer 2 and Layer 3.
C. It operates in Layer 3.
D. it operates in Layer 2.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
Which of the following correctly describe steps in the OSI data encapsulation process? (Choose two.)
A. The transport layer divides a data stream into segments and may add reliability and flow control information.
B. The data link layer adds physical source and destination addresses and an FCS to the segment.
C. Packets are created when the network layer encapsulates a frame with source and destination host addresses and protocol-related control information.
D. Packets are created when the network layer adds Layer 3 addresses and control information to a segment.
E. The presentation layer translates bits into voltages for transmission across the physical link.
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 14
The command show frame-relay map gives the following output:
Serial 0 (up): ip 192.168.151.4 dlci 122, dynamic, broadcast, status defined, active
Which statements represent what is shown?(Choose three.)
A. 192.168.151.4 represents the IP address of the remote router
B. 192.168.151.4 represents the IP address of the local serial interface
C. DLCI 122 represents the interface of the remote serial interface
D. DLCI 122 represents the local number used to connect to the remote address
E. broadcast indicates that a dynamic routing protocol such as RIP v1 can send packets across this PVC
F. active indicates that the ARP process is working
Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 15
Which Cisco platform can verify ACLs?
A. Cisco Prime Infrastructure
B. Cisco Wireless LAN Controller
C. Cisco APIC-EM
D. Cisco IOS-XE
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 16
In an Ethernet network, under what two scenarios can devices transmit? (Choose two.)
A. when they receive a special token
B. when there is a carrier
C. when they detect no other devices are sending
D. when the medium is idle
E. when the server grants access
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 17
Which option describes what a switch does after it items that a host has connected to a switch port? 200-155 dumps
A. Flood the frame only on all of its trunk ports.
B. Create a MAC to port mapping entry in MAC table.
C. Flood the frame only on all of its access ports.
D. Discard the frame.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 18
A network interface port has collision detection and carrier sensing enabled on a shared twisted pair network. From this statement, what is known about the network interface port?
A. This is a 10 Mb/s switch port.
B. This is a 100 Mb/s switch port.
C. This is an Ethernet port operating at half duplex.
D. This is an Ethernet port operating at full duplex.
E. This is a port on a network interface card in a PC.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 19
An engineer is configuring a new MDS switch. The switch is powered on, the customer connects to the console, and the initial setup script is started.
Which two items can be configured during this setup process?
A. default port-channel mode
B. default port VSAN membership
C. default switch port interface state
D. default zone mode
E. default storage VDC
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 20
What are two drawbacks of implementing a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.)
A. the sequencing and acknowledgment of link-state packets
B. the requirement for a hierarchical IP addressing scheme for optimal functionality
C. the high volume of link-state advertisements in a converged network
D. the high demand on router resources to run the link-state routing algorithm
E. the large size of the topology table listing all advertised routes in the converged network
Correct Answer: BD
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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA Security
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Exam Code: 210-260
Total Questions: 310 Q&As
QUESTION 1
When a company puts a security policy in place, what is the effect on the company’s business?
A. Minimizing risk
B. Minimizing total cost of ownership
C. Minimizing liability
D. Maximizing compliance
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
Which feature of the Cisco Email Security Appliance can mitigate the impact of snowshoe spam and sophisticated phishing attacks?
A. contextual analysis
B. holistic understanding of threats
C. graymail management and filtering
D. signature-based IPS
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
Which Cisco product can help mitigate web-based attacks within a network?
A. Adaptive Security Appliance
B. Web Security Appliance
C. Email Security Appliance
D. Identity Services Engine
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit. 210-260 dumps
If a supplicant supplies incorrect credentials for all authentication methods configured on the switch, how will the switch respond?
A. The supplicant will fail to advance beyond the webauth method.
B. The switch will cycle through the configured authentication methods indefinitely.
C. The authentication attempt will time out and the switch will place the port into the unauthorized state.
D. The authentication attempt will time out and the switch will place the port into VLAN 101.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
In which three ways does the RADIUS protocol differ from TACACS? (Choose three.)
A. RADIUS uses UDP to communicate with the NAS.
B. RADIUS encrypts only the password field in an authentication packet.
C. RADIUS authenticates and authorizes simultaneously, causing fewer packets to be transmitted.
D. RADIUS uses TCP to communicate with the NAS.
E. RADIUS can encrypt the entire packet that is sent to the NAS.
F. RADIUS supports per-command authorization.
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 6
Which EAP method uses Protected Access Credentials?
A. EAP-FAST
B. EAP-TLS
C. EAP-PEAP
D. EAP-GTC
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
In which three cases does the ASA firewall permit inbound HTTP GET requests during normal operations? (Choose three).
A. when matching NAT entries are configured
B. when matching ACL entries are configured
C. when the firewall receives a SYN-ACK packet
D. when the firewall receives a SYN packet
E. when the firewall requires HTTP inspection
F. when the firewall requires strict HTTP inspection
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 8
What is the purpose of the Integrity component of the CIA triad?
A. to ensure that only authorized parties can modify data
B. to determine whether data is relevant
C. to create a process for accessing data
D. to ensure that only authorized parties can view data
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9 210-260 dumps What VPN feature allows Internet traffic and local LAN/WAN traffic to use the same network connection?
A. split tunneling
B. hairpinning
C. tunnel mode
D. transparent mode
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
In which stage of an attack does the attacker discover devices on a target network?
A. Reconnaissance
B. Covering tracks
C. Gaining access
D. Maintaining access
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
How can the administrator enable permanent client installation in a Cisco AnyConnect VPN firewall configuration?
A. Issue the command anyconnect keep-installer under the group policy or username webvpn mode
B. Issue the command anyconnect keep-installer installed in the global configuration
C. Issue the command anyconnect keep-installer installed under the group policy or username webvpn mode
D. Issue the command anyconnect keep-installer installer under the group policy or username webvpn mode
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
What is one requirement for locking a wired or wireless device from ISE?
A. The ISE agent must be installed on the device.
B. The device must be connected to the network when the lock command is executed.
C. The user must approve the locking action.
D. The organization must implement an acceptable use policy allowing device locking.
Correct Answer: A
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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: ICND1
Exam Name: Cisco Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1 v3.0)
Exam Code: 100-105
Total Questions: 332 Q&As
QUESTION 1
The command ip route 192.168.100.160 255.255.255.224 192.168.10.2 was issued on a router. No routing protocols or other static routes are configured on the router. Which statement is true about this command?
A. The interface with IP address 192.168.10.2 is on this router.
B. The command sets a gateway of last resort for the router.
C. Packets that are destined for host 192.168.100.160 will be sent to 192.168.10.2.
D. The command creates a static route for all IP traffic with the source address 192.168.100.160.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
Some routers have been configured with default routes. What are some of the advantages of using default routes? (Choose two)
A. They establish routes that will never go down.
B. They keep routing tables small.
C. They require a great deal of CPU power.
D. They allow connectivity to remote networks that are not in the routing table
E. They direct traffic from the internet into corporate networks.
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 3
Which two statements describe the process identifier that is used in the command to configure OSPF on a router? (Choose two.) 100-105 dumps
Router(config)# router ospf 1
A. All OSPF routers in an area must have the same process ID.
B. Only one process number can be used on the same router.
C. Different process identifiers can be used to run multiple OSPF processes
D. The process number can be any number from 1 to 65,535.
E. Hello packets are sent to each neighbor to determine the processor identifier.
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 4
Which statements are TRUE regarding Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) addresses? (Choose three.)
A. An IPv6 address is divided into eight 16-bit groups.
B. A double colon (::) can only be used once in a single IPv6 address.
C. IPv6 addresses are 196 bits in length.
D. Leading zeros cannot be omitted in an IPv6 address.
E. Groups with a value of 0 can be represented with a single 0 in IPv6 address.
Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 5
Which two of these statements are true of IPv6 address representation? (Choose two.)
A. There are four types of IPv6 addresses: unicast, multicast, anycast, and broadcast.
B. A single interface may be assigned multiple IPv6 addresses of any type.
C. Every IPv6 interface contains at least one loopback address.
D. The first 64 bits represent the dynamically created interface ID.
E. Leading zeros in an IPv6 16 bit hexadecimal field are mandatory.
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 6
Which destination IP address can a host use to send one message to multiple devices across different subnets?
A. 172.20.1.0
B. 127.0.0.1
C. 192.168.0.119
D. 239.255.0.1
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7
Which method does a connected trunk port use to tag VLAN traffic?
A. IEEE 802 1w
B. IEEE 802 1D
C. IEEE 802 1Q
D. IEEE 802 1p
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8 100-105 dumps Which route source code represents the routing protocol with a default administrative distance of 90 in the routing table?
A. S
B. E
C. D
D. R
E. O
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9
ROUTER# show ip route
192.168.12.0/24 is variably subnetted, 9 subnets, 3 masks
C 192.168.12.64 /28 is directly connected, Loopback1
C 192.168.12.32 /28 is directly connected, Ethernet0
C 192.168.12.48 /28 is directly connected, Loopback0
O 192.168.12.236 /30 [110/128] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:36, Serial0
C 192.168.12.232 /30 is directly connected, Serial0 O 192.168.12.245 /30 [110/782] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:36, Serial0
O 192.168.12.240 /30 [110/128] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:36, Serial0
O 192.168.12.253 /30 [110/782] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:37, Serial0
O 192.168.12.249 /30 [110/782] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:37, Serial0
O 192.168.12.240/30 [110/128] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:36, Serial 0
To what does the 128 refer to in the router output above?
A. OSPF cost
B. OSPF priority
C. OSPF hop count
D. OSPF ID number
E. OSPF administrative distance
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
The ip helper-address command does what?
A. assigns an IP address to a host
B. resolves an IP address from a DNS server
C. relays a DHCP request across networks
D. resolves an IP address overlapping issue
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
A receiving host has failed to receive all of the segments that it should acknowledge. What can the host do to improve the reliability of this communication session?
A. decrease the window size
B. use a different source port for the session
C. decrease the sequence number
D. obtain a new IP address from the DHCP server
E. start a new session using UDP
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12
Why would a network administrator configure port security on a switch?
A. to prevent unauthorized Telnet access to a switch port
B. to prevent unauthorized hosts from accessing the LAN
C. to limit the number of Layer 2 broadcasts on a particular switch port
D. block unauthorized access to the switch management interfaces
Correct Answer: B
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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: ICND2
Exam Name: Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2 v3.0)
Exam Code: 200-105
Total Questions: 204 Q&As
QUESTION 1
When the enterprise-based authentication method is used for WPA2, a bidirectional handshake exchange occurs between the client and the authenticator.
Which five options are results of that exchange being used on a controller-based network? (Choose five.)
A. a bidirectional exchange of a nonce used for key generation
B. binding of a Pairwise Master Key at the client and the controller
C. creation of the Pairwise Transient Key
D. distribution of the Group Transient Key
E. distribution of the Pairwise Master key for caching at the access point
F. proof that each side is alive
Correct Answer: A,B,C,D,F
QUESTION 2
Which type of management tasks can be completed on a Cisco WLC remotely from a wireless client?
A. All management and configuration tasks can be performed from a wireless client except for using debug commands.
B. In the default configuration, no management or configuration is possible through the GUI or CLI on the Cisco WLC.
C. The default configuration of the Cisco WLC allows only CLI access and then only the use of show commands, so no configuration is possible.
D. All management and configuration tasks, except uploads from and downloads to the Cisco WLC, are permitted.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
The network administrator wants an access point to be able to find rogue APs and to support location-based services. 200-105 dumps Which AP mode meets this requirement while having the radios up and preventing client connections?
A. monitor
B. sniffer
C. rogue-detection
D. H-REAP
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
Which architecture is used to divide the roles between the access point and the WLC when deploying a centralized wireless solution?
A. Split MAC
B. CAPWAP
C. LWAPP
D. Local MAC
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
Which statement about customization of a web page that is used on a WLC to authorize guest users is true?
A. The administrator can use either a modified internal login page or the customized web page.
B. The administrator can use only the internal login page, and only the organization logo can be changed.
C. The administrator can use only the internal login page with a customized logo, headline, and message.
D. The administrator can use only the customized web page that is uploaded to a WLC.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 7
A network administrator is troubleshooting an EIGRP problem on a router and needs to confirm the IP addresses of the devices with which the router has established adjacency. 200-105 dumps The retransmit interval and the queue counts for the adjacent routers also need to be checked. What command will display the required information?
A. Router# show ip eigrp adjacency
B. Router# show ip eigrp topology
C. Router#show ip eigrp interfaces
D. Router#show ip eigrp neighbors
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
Which Cisco program for WLAN client vendors helps to ensure that their devices are interoperable with Cisco WLAN infrastructure?
A. CCX
B. CCMP
C. ASDM
D. WLSE
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
Which statement describes spread spectrum technology in wireless communications?
A. Signal is spread across optical pulses.
B. Signal is spread across variations of amplitudes.
C. Signal is spread across one frequency.
D. Signal is spread across a whole band of frequencies.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10
What can be done to secure the virtual terminal interfaces on a router? (Choose two.)
A. Administratively shut down the interface.
B. Physically secure the interface.
C. Create an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces with the access-group command.
D. Configure a virtual terminal password and login process.
E. Enter an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces using the access-class command.
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 11
An engineer has been asked to upgrade the FUS on the Wireless LAN controller. How can they monitor the status of the upgrade?
A. WLC GUI
B. WLC CLI
C. WLC Console
D. WLC Management in Prime Infrastructure
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
The network administrator receives complaints of slow wireless network performance and performs a sniffer trace of the wireless network in preparation for migration to 802.11n. 200-105 dumps The sample capture shows frames that contains AP beacons with NonERP_Present bit set to 1 and frames with RTS/CTS.
Which two conclusions can be interpreted from these frames? (Choose two.)
A. The network is performing slowly because 802.11n clients are already mixed with 802.11g clients.
B. The network is performing slowly because 802.11b clients still exist in the network.
C. The network is performing slowly because a wireless client is incorrectly configured, which results in RF interference.
D. Possible 802.11b wireless clients are located only in the AP cell radius where the sniffer capture was performed.
E. Possible 802.11b wireless clients could be located anywhere in the wireless network.
Correct Answer: B,E
A. cordless phone 
A. Change the basic rate configuration on the WLC to include 54 Mbps. 
Refer to the exhibit. 
A. The client has a 5 GHz connection. 
A. Redeploy the existing configuration profile. 
A. The AP failed to join because the self-signed certificate of the AP was not correct on the controller. 
