[Updated 2022]Cisco CCT Data Center 010-151 exam dumps best resources, easily pass 010-151 exam

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Cisco 010-151 Exam Video

Table of Contents:

Latest Cisco CCT Data Center 010-151 google drive

[PDF] Free Cisco 010-151 pdf dumps download from Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1q-BVVW4uYdXXeS_wL1gZQPx3m3tYgvEV

010-151 DCTECH – Cisco:https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/dctech.html

The Cisco Certified Technician (CCT) for Data Center validates a technician’s competency in the following areas;

  • Basic Cisco NX-OS configuration
  • Cisco Data Center products and hardware components with an emphasis on the Cisco Unified Computing System (UCS).

The curriculum covers remedial services (HW break-fix) on Cisco Data Center products, including hardware replacement, software, and configuration backup and restores, check the safety and environmental requirement, recognize connection type and cable requirement,
and perform basic physical layer troubleshooting. The Cisco Certified Technician (CCT) should be competent in the following areas;
basic Cisco NX-OS configuration, Cisco Data Center products, and hardware components.

The Cisco Certified Technician should be able to perform remedial services (HW break-fix) on Cisco Data Center products, including software and configuration backup and restore, check the safety and environmental requirement, recognize connection type and cable requirement, and perform basic physical layer troubleshooting.

[Updated 2022] 010-151 Dumps exam questions and answers

Question 1:

Which method does FCIP use to enable connectivity of geographically distributed Fibre Channel SANs over IP?

A. routing

B. tunneling

C. handshaking

D. transporting

Correct Answer: B

 

Question 2:

Which fiber optic cable type is used most often with a Subscriber connector?

A. dual-mode

B. single-mode

C. straight-mode

D. multi-mode

E. subscriber-mode

Correct Answer: B

 

Question 3:

Which type of connection across the network does a SAN allow for multiple servers to access an unlimited amount of storage devices?

A. any-to-many

B. many-to-any

C. any-to-any

D. any-to-one

E. one-to-any

F. one-to-one

Correct Answer: C

 

Question 4:

Which two statements about PCIe are true? (Choose two.)

A. The PCIe link is built around dedicated unidirectional couples of serial, point-to-point connections known as lanes.

B. You can install a PCI Express x8 adapter into an x4 slot.

C. The PCIe standard is a bus-based system in which all the devices share the same bidirectional, 32-bit or 64-bit, parallel signal path.

D. The PCIe 1.0 standard doubles the transfer rate compared to PCIe 2.0.

E. A link that is composed of four lanes is called an x4 link.

Correct Answer: AE

 

Question 5:

Where do you find the model number of a Cisco MDS 9200 Series chassis?

A. on the top front of the chassis next to the serial number

B. on the bottom front of the chassis next to the Cisco logo

C. on the top front of the chassis next to the Cisco logo

D. on the bottom front of the chassis next to the serial number

Correct Answer: C

[Updated 2022] Get more Cisco 010-151 exam questions and answers

Latest updates Cisco 010-151 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
What is the maximum number of supervisor modules that the Cisco MDS 9710 Switch supports?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6
E. 8
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which two statements about DIMM replacement in Cisco UCS Servers are true? (Choose two.)
A. In blade servers, DIMMs can be installed in either 1, 2, 4, or 8 DIMMs per channel.
B. Rack-mount and blade servers have memory fault LEDs that indicate which DIMM requires attention.
C. In servers that require pairs of DIMMs, the pairs must be identical (manufacturer, size, part #, and so on).
D. If the memory in a server is not fully populated, you can install DIMMs in any open slot.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 3
Which two statements about the Ethernet media are true? (Choose two.)
A. A twisted-pair cable system has each pair of wires twisted together to reduce electromagnetic interference.
B. Compared to multimode fiber, the single-mode fiber is designed for shorter distances with higher cost.
C. 40 Gigabit Ethernet twinax cables deploy Enhanced Quad Small Form Factor Pluggable (QSFP+) connectors.
D. The twinax cables can be found in either a shielded twisted-pair or an unshielded twisted-pair variation.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 4
Which Cisco NX-OS command displays kernel uptime?
A. show module
B. show version
C. show license
D. show boot
E. show interface
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which command-line interface mode is best described by this prompt?
UCS-switch-A (nxos)#
A. maintenance mode
B. EXEC mode
C. local management mode
D. global configuration mode
E. Cisco IOS mode
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
What is the maximum distance that the 40GBASE-LR4 Ethernet standard can span?
A. 550 m
B. 10 km
C. 40 km
D. 80 km
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 010-151 exam question q7

Where is the best place to see the power supply status of the blade server enclosure?
A. A – Chassis 1
B. B – Chassis 1 – PSUs
C. C – Chassis1 – Servers
D. D – Rack-Mounts – Servers
E. E – Fabric Interconnects A – PSUs
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which Cisco Nexus 5000 Series model supports 1/10G BASE-T ports?
A. Cisco Nexus 5548P
B. Cisco Nexus 5548UP
C. Cisco Nexus 5596UP
D. Cisco Nexus 5596T
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which two statements about the Cisco Nexus 5596UP switch are true? (Choose two.)
A. Its power supplies and fan trays are hot-swappable.
B. It supports unified ports.
C. It is offered in a one-rack-unit form factor.
D. It has one expansion slot.
E. It supports up to 96 10G BASE-T ports.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 010-151 exam question q10

Which Cisco MDS chassis supports the 48-Port 16-Gbps Fibre Channel Switching Module?
A. MDS 9509
B. MDS 9513
C. MDS 9710
D. MDS 9506
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
The Ethernet specification details several different fiber optic media types. What is the wire transmission speed for
100BASE-FX Ethernet?
A. 10 Mb/s
B. 100 Mb/s
C. 1000 Mb/s
D. 10000 Mb/s
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which device provides analysis of Fibre Channel traffic without any network disruption?
A. Cisco MDS 9000 Data Analyzer Adapter
B. Cisco MDS 9000 Port Analyzer Adapter
C. Cisco MDS 9000 Channel Analyzer Device
D. Cisco MDS 9000 Channel Analyzer Adapter
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which action should the administrator take before physically removing a blade server for maintenance or replacement?
A. Force the server to shut down.
B. Disassociate the service profile.
C. Decommission the server.
D. Perform a graceful shutdown of the server.
Correct Answer: C

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312-50V11 dumps [2022] to help you successfully pass the CEH v11 certification exam

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CEH v11 certification exam candidates, you can now use the 312-50V11 dumps exam material to help you successfully pass the exam.
What you need to know CEH is the first in a series of 3 comprehensive courses (CEH, ECSA, and APT courses) designed to help cybersecurity masters in penetration testing.
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And guarantee your first attempt to successfully pass the CEH v11 certification exam.

Part of the 312-50V11 dumps exam material online practice test:

Answers are announced at the end of the article

QUESTION 1:

“……..is an attack-type for a rogue Wi-Fi access point that appears to be a legitimate one offered on the premises, but actually has been set up to eavesdrop on wireless communications. It is the wireless version of the phishing scam. An attacker fools wireless users into connecting a laptop or mobile phone to a tainted hot spot by posing as a legitimate provider. This type of attack may be used to steal the passwords of unsuspecting users by either snooping the communication link or by phishing, which involves setting up a fraudulent website and luring people there.”
Fill in the blank with the appropriate choice.

A. Evil Twin Attack
B. Sinkhole Attack
C. Collision Attack
D. Signal Jamming Attack

QUESTION 2:

How can rainbow tables be defeated?

A. Use of non-dictionary words
B. All uppercase character passwords
C. Password salting
D. Lockout accounts under brute force password cracking attempts

QUESTION 3:

You want to analyze packets on your wireless network. Which program would you use?

A. Wireshark with Airpcap
B. Airsnort with Airpcap
C. Wireshark with Winpcap
D. Ethereal with Winpcap

QUESTION 4:

Nicolas just found a vulnerability on a public-facing system that is considered a zero-day vulnerability. He sent an email to the owner of the public system describing the problem and how the owner can protect themselves from that vulnerability. He also sent an email to Microsoft informing them of the problem that their systems are exposed to. What type of hacker is Nicolas?

A. Red hat
B. white hat
C. Black hat
D. Gray hat

QUESTION 5:

Ron, a security professional, was pen testing web applications and SaaS platforms used by his company. While testing, he found a vulnerability that allows hackers to gain unauthorized access to API objects and perform actions such as view, updating, and delete sensitive data of the company. What is the API vulnerability revealed in the above scenario?

A. Code injections
B. Improper use of CORS
C. No ABAC validation
D. Business logic flaws

QUESTION 6:

A regional bank hires your company to perform a security assessment on their network after a recent data breach. The attacker was able to steal financial data from the bank by compromising only a single server. Based on this information, what should be one of your key recommendations to the bank?

A. Place a front-end web server in a demilitarized zone that only handles external web traffic
B. Require all employees to change their anti-virus program with a new one
C. Move the financial data to another server on the same IP subnet
D. Issue new certificates to the web servers from the root certificate authority

QUESTION 7:

Bobby, an attacker, targeted a user and decided to hijack and intercept all their wireless communications.
He installed a fake communication tower between two authentic endpoints to mislead the victim. Bobby used this virtual tower to interrupt the data transmission between the user and the real tower, attempting to hijack an active session, upon receiving the users request. Bobby manipulated the traffic with the virtual
tower and redirected the victim to a malicious website.
What is the attack performed by Bobby in the above scenario?

A. Wardriving
B. KRACK attack
C. jamming signal attack
D. aLTEr attack

QUESTION 8:

Firewalk has just completed the second phase (the scanning phase) and a technician receives the output shown below.
What conclusions can be drawn based on these scan results?

TCP port 21 no response
TCP port 22 no response
TCP port 23 time-to-live exceeded

A. The lack of response from ports 21 and 22 indicates that those services are not running on the destination server

B. The scan on port 23 was able to make a connection to the destination host prompting the firewall to respond with a TTL error

C. The scan on port 23 passed through the filtering device. This indicates that port 23 was not blocked at the firewall

D. The firewall itself is blocking ports 21 through 23 and a service is listening on port 23 of the target host

QUESTION 9:

Why is a penetration test considered to be more thorough than a vulnerability scan?

A. Vulnerability scans only do host discovery and port scanning by default.

B. A penetration test actively exploits vulnerabilities in the targeted infrastructure, while a vulnerability scan does not typically involve active exploitation.

C. It is not ? a penetration test is often performed by an automated tool, while a vulnerability scan requires active engagement.

D. The tools used by penetration testers tend to have much more comprehensive vulnerability databases.

QUESTION 10:

What is the file that determines the basic configuration (specifically activities, services, broadcast receivers, etc.) in an Android application?

A. AndroidManifest.xml
B. APK.info
C. resources.asrc
D. classes.dex

QUESTION 11:

You are a penetration tester working to test the user awareness of the employees of the client xyz. You
harvested two employees\’ emails from some public sources and are creating a client-side backdoor to
send it to the employees via email.
Which stage of the cyber kill chain are you at?

A. Reconnaissance
B. Command and control
C. Weaponization
D. Exploitation

QUESTION 12:

Louis, a professional hacker, had used specialized tools or search engines to encrypt all his browsing activity and navigate anonymously to obtain sensitive/hidden information about official government or federal databases. After gathering the Information, he successfully performed an attack on the target government organization without being traced. Which of the following techniques is described in the above scenario?

A. Dark web footprinting
B. VoIP footpnnting
C. VPN footprinting
D. website footprinting

QUESTION 13:

Which of the following Google advanced search operators helps an attacker in gathering information about websites that are similar to a specified target URL?

A. [inurl:]
B. [related:]
C. [info:]
D. [site:]

Verify answer:

Number:Answers:Illustrate:
Q1A
Q2C
Q3A
Q4BA white hat (or a white hat hacker) is an ethical computer hacker, or a computer security expert, who focuses on
penetration testing and in other testing methodologies that ensures the safety of an organization\’s information systems.
Ethical hacking may be a term meant to imply a broader category than simply penetration testing. Contrasted with black
hat, a malicious hacker, the name comes from Western films, where heroic and antagonistic cowboys might traditionally
wear a white and a black hat respectively. While a white hat hacker hacks under good intentions with permission, and a
black hat hacker, most frequently unauthorized, has malicious intent, there\’s a 3rd kind referred to as a gray hat hacker
who hacks with good intentions but sometimes without permission.White hat hackers can also add teams called
“sneakers and/or hacker clubs”,red teams, or tiger teams.While penetration testing concentrates on attacking software
and computer systems from the beginning ?scanning ports, examining known defects in protocols and applications
running on the system and patch installations, as an example ?ethical hacking may include other things. A full-blown
ethical hack might include emailing staff to invite password details, searching through executive\’s dustbins and
typically breaking and entering, without the knowledge and consent of the targets. Only the owners, CEOs and Board
Members (stake holders) who asked for such a censoring of this magnitude are aware. to undertake to duplicate a
number of the destructive techniques a true attack might employ, ethical hackers may arrange for cloned test systems,
or organize a hack late in the dark while systems are less critical. In most up-to-date cases these hacks perpetuate for
the long-term con (days, if not weeks, of long-term human infiltration into an organization). Some examples include
leaving USB/flash key drives with hidden auto-start software during a public area as if someone lost the tiny drive and
an unsuspecting employee found it and took it.Some other methods of completing these include:?DoS attacks?Social
engineering tactics?Reverse engineering? Network security?Disk and memory forensics?Vulnerability
research?Security scanners such as:?W3af?Nessus?Burp suite? Frameworks such as:?Metasploit?Training
PlatformsThese methods identify and exploit known security vulnerabilities and plan to evade security to realize entry
into secured areas. they\’re ready to do that by hiding software and system back-doors\\’ which will be used as a link to information or access that a non-ethical hacker, also referred to asblack-hat\’ or `grey-hat\’, might want to succeed in Exam E
Q5B
Q6A
Q7D
Q8C
Q9B
Q10AThe AndroidManifest.xml file contains information about your package, including components of the appliance like activities, services, broadcast receivers, content providers, etc. It performs other tasks also:?it\’s responsible to guard the appliance to access any protected parts by providing the permissions.
It also declares the android API that the appliance goes to use.
It lists the instrumentation classes.

The instrumentation classes provide profiling and other information. This information is removed just before the appliance is published etc. This is the specified XML file for all the android applications and is located inside the basis directory.
Q11DAt this stage exploiting a vulnerability to execute code on the victim\’s direct channel for remote manipulation of the victim is the objective. Here ancient hardening measures add resiliency, however, custom defense capabilities are necessary to prevent zero-day exploits at this stage. once the weapon is delivered to the victim host, exploitation triggers intruders\’ code. Most often, exploitation targets Associate in the Nursing application or software vulnerability, however it may additionally additional merely exploit the users themselves or leverage Associate in Nursing software feature that auto-
executes code. In recent years this has become a district of experience within the hacking community that is commonly incontestible at events like Blackhat, Defcon, and also the like.
Q12AVoIP (Voice over Internet Protocol) is a web convention that permits the transmission of voice brings over the web. It does as such by changing over the ordinary telephone signals into advanced signs. Virtual Private Networks(VPN) give a protected association with an association \’ organization. Along these lines, VoIP traffic can disregard an SSL-based VPN, successfully scrambling VoIP administrations. When leading surveillance, in the underlying phases of VoIP
footprinting, the accompanying freely accessible data can be normal: All open ports and administrations of the gadgets associated with the VoIP organization The public VoIP worker’s IP address The working arrangement of the worker
running VoIP The organization framework
Q13B

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Pass the 300-920 DEVWBX exam using the 300-920 dumps

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Lead4Pass 300-920 dumps https://www.lead4pass.com/300-920.html, contains 60 newly updated exam questions and answers. You can go to the 300-920 dumps page to use PDF or VCE study tools to help you Easy Learning 300-920 DEVWBX Exam core content to help you successfully pass the 300-920 DEVWBX exam on your first attempt.
The 300-920 dumps questions are reviewed by Cisco subject matter experts, are authentic, and have a 99.1% exam pass rate, ensuring you pass the 300-920 DEVWBX exam with ease.

300-920 DEVWBX exam details you must know:

Vendor: Cisco
Exam Code: 300-920
Exam Name: Developing Applications for Cisco Webex and Webex Devices (DEVWBX)
Certification: Cisco Certified DevNet Professional
Duration: 90 minutes
Languages: English
Price: $300 USD

Experience a portion of 300-920 Free Dumps online:

QUESTION 1:

DRAG-DROP
Drag and drop the code to complete the JavaScript snippet so that it:
1.
retrieves the details of an individual user
2.
checks what licenses they have already
3.
updates their account with a new license Options can be used more than once.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 2:

DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the definitions from the left onto the correct Webex Teams REST API HTTP response status codes on the right.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Reference: https://developer.webex.com/docs/api/basics

QUESTION 3:

A company wants to adopt Webex Teams as a messaging platform and use REST APIs to automate the creation of teams and rooms. Which sequence of REST API requests is needed to create and populate a new Webex team and create a populated Webex room for the team?

A. POST /teams, POST /memberships, POST /rooms
B. POST /teams, POST /people, POST /rooms
C. POST /teams, POST /team/memberships, POST /rooms
D. POST /teams, POST /team/memberships, POST /rooms, POST /memberships

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://developer.webex.com/docs/api/basics

QUESTION 4:

Refer to the exhibit. A macro and a UI extension (also called In-Room Control) are being developed. What is the reason for the error displayed in the console?

A. Widgets of type “Slider” are not supported on the device.
B. The UI extension was not exported to the device.
C. The name of the widget in the macro and the UI extension must match.
D. Promises are not supported for this device.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/telepresence/endpoint/ce99/webex-board-administrator-guide-ce99.pdf

QUESTION 5:

Refer to the exhibit. Which code for blank lines 26, 27, and 28 gives invitees 900 seconds before the scheduled time to join the meeting, sets the meeting to last for 30 minutes, and sets the meeting timezone to Pacific US?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://github.com/cisco-ie/webex-api-client

QUESTION 6:

Which XML snippet does an admin use with a Webex Meetings XML API request to retrieve info on multiple users?

A. .*
B. .*
C.
D.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://developer.cisco.com/docs/webex-xml-api-reference-guide/#!getuser

QUESTION 7:

Which code adds a Space Widget in an HTML script that uses the CSS Webex CDN?

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://developer.webex.com/docs/widgets

QUESTION 8:

Refer to the exhibit. An end-user reports that the speed dial button is not working on their Webex Device, and when loading into the Macro Editor, this error was presented. On which line is the incorrect syntax?

A. line 4
B. line 14
C. line 15
D. line 22

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://community.cisco.com/t5/telepresence-and-video/ce9-2-1-macro-framework-discussions/td-p/3220093

QUESTION 9:

DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the code snippets onto the exhibit to create a valid Webex Meetings API request allowing Jane (an admin) to reset John\’s PMR pin. Not all options are used.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 10:

Which expression is a valid Webex Teams webhook filter?

A. [email protected]+roomId=abc123
B. [email protected]=abc123
C. [email protected]=abc123
D. [email protected],roomId=abc123

Correct Answer: C

You can also use more than one filter in a webhook. To use multiple filters, combine them with the “and” symbol. For example, to create a webhook that only sends notifications when a specific person performs an action in a specific room, such as sending a message or creating a membership, combine the personEmail and roomId filters.

Reference: https://developer.webex.com/docs/api/guides/webhooks

QUESTION 11:

Which two statements about Webex Teams refresh tokens are true? (Choose two.)

A. The refresh token is useless without the client ID and client secret.
B. An attacker can use the refresh token to send messages on behalf of the user.
C. The refresh token is used to generate a new access token.
D. A new refresh token cannot be granted until the client ID is invalidated.
E. The refresh token does not expire.

Correct Answer: BC

Reference: https://auth0.com/learn/refresh-tokens/

QUESTION 12:

Refer to the exhibit. The Node.js script shown uses the Webex Meetings XML API to print “Here!” to the console.

Which statement is a correct observation about the results of the script?

A. The was not complex enough.
B. The credential was expired.
C. The WebexMeetings XML API service processed the request.
D. The meeting was created successfully.

Correct Answer: C

The password, although not that good, has a capital letter and numbers. Therefore, it is okay. SessionTicket credential is not expired because the error function doesn\’t check that. We are not sure if the meeting was created successfully however, there is no wrong in the code, therefore, webexmeetings XML API service has processed the request.

QUESTION 13:

Refer to the exhibit. A Webex Teams REST API response is shown with the HTTP Header missing. Which HTTP header expected in this response?

A. Push
B. Link
C. Patch
D. Put

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://developer-portal-intb.ciscospark.com/docs/api/basics

……

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300-610 dumps update | Cisco 300-610 DCID exam material

300-610 dumps have been updated to be the real material for the Cisco 300-610 DCID exam, one of the most popular exams in Cisco today.

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Whether you’re a novice or a candidate, next I’ll share more information you need to know before taking the Cisco 300-610 DCID exam, because it’s important.

300-610 is the Designing Cisco Data Center Infrastructure exam code, and DCID is the Designing Cisco Data Center Infrastructure exam shortened name, the following will show more exam details:

Vendor: Cisco
Exam Code: 300-610
Exam Name: Designing Cisco Data Center Infrastructure (DCID)
Certification: CCNP Data Center
Duration: 90 minutes
Languages: English
Price: $300 USD
300-610 DCID Exam Core: Network, Compute, Storage network, Automation
Schedule an exam: In-person, Online(Pearson VUE)

How to Qualify for CCNP Data Center:

Above I have provided the 300-610 dumps download address, you can use our recommendations to help you succeed in the Cisco 300-610 DCID exam. If you want to qualify for the CCNP data center, you need to pass two exams: the core exam and The data center of your choice concentrates the exam.
You can understand everything with the pictures below.

The Cisco 300-610 DCID exam is one of the data center intensive exams that focus on emerging and industry-specific topics. So you can choose whatever industry-specific topics you want.

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Click here to get it. (Hint: Passing the core exam will qualify candidates to schedule and participate in CCIE labs during the validity period of their core exam)

Read some Cisco 300-610 DCID exam questions and answers online:

QUESTION 1:

What are two functions of a Network Services Orchestrator in an NFV environment? (Choose two.)

A. It operates at the resource-facing services layer and provides overall lifecycle management at the network service level.

B. It provides an API-based northbound interface for transparent integration with systems that operate at the resource-facing services layer.

C. It provides a standards-based southbound interface for transparent integration with systems that operate at the customer-facing services layer.

D. It provides a standards-based northbound interface for transparent integration with systems that operate at the customer-facing services layer.

E. It operates at the customer-facing services layer and provides the management interface for the virtual network devices.

Correct Answer: AB

Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/net_mgmt/msx/3_4/solution_overview/Cisco_VMS_Sol_Overview.pdf

QUESTION 2:

DRAG-DROP
Drag and drop the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch resources from the left onto the correct groups on the right.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/nx-os/virtual_device_context/configuration/guide/b-7k-Cisco-Nexus-7000-Series-NX-OS-Virtual-Device-Context-Configuration-Guide/creating-vdc.html

QUESTION 3:

What can be implemented on Cisco Nexus 5600 Series Switches for link redundancy within a Fibre Channel fabric?

A. vPC+
B. E-Trunk
C. SAN port-channel
D. LACP port-channel

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4:

After experiencing traffic disruptions from the failure of a single router, a customer asks an engineer to design a solution that will prevent this from occurring in the future.

While examining the customer\’s environment, the engineer discovers that the routers are manufactured by a variety of different vendors, and they have varying amounts of CPU and memory resources. Additionally, several of the customer\’s applications require the ability to fine-tune the load-balancing parameters between multiple gateway routers.

Which solution should be used to meet these requirements?

A. VRRP
B. FHRP
C. HSRP
D. GLBP

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5:

Where does Cisco UCS handle Fibre Channel traffic failover?

A. on a Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect ASIC in Fibre Channel switching mode
B. on the host, by using multipathing software
C. in the hardware on the Cisco UCS VIC 12xx adapter or later
D. in the hardware on any Cisco UCS VIC adapter

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/data-center-virtualization/unified-
computing/whitepaper_c11-701962.html

QUESTION 6:

A network engineer must design a data center network with four Cisco Nexus 7706 switches. The switches will be installed in primary and secondary data centers in vPC domains. The two data centers must be connected via Layer 2 links and provide the maximum throughput, and redundancy, and avoid port-blocking spanning-tree design.

Which deployment model meets these requirements?

A. dual-sided single vPC
B. single-sided dual vPC
C. dual-sided dual vPC
D. single-sided single vPC

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7:

An engineer designs a Cisco UCS solution that must provide guaranteed and deterministic bandwidth to a specific server in the environment. The solution must apply to the network and storage traffic of C-Series and B-Series servers.

Which solution should be included to meet these requirements?

A. Pin the vNICs and the vHBAs of the service profile to dedicated uplink ports.
B. Pin the IOM ports of the service profile to dedicated server ports.
C. Pin the server ports of the service profile to dedicated uplink ports.
D. Pin the vNICs and vHBAs of the service profile to dedicated server ports.

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/global/en_uk/products/servers-unified-
computing/CiscoUCSSolutionOverviewUKIWeb.pdf

QUESTION 8:

What is the disadvantage of asynchronous storage replication as compared to synchronous storage replication in a disaster recovery design?

A. reduction in application performance
B. distance limitations
C. specific backup requirements
D. potential data loss

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.evidian.com/products/high-availability-software-for-application-clustering/synchronous-replication-vs-asynchronous-replication/

QUESTION 9:

An engineer must choose the World Wide Port Name for the Cisco UCS Fibre Channel virtual host bus adapter. Which identifier must be used?

A. naa.600a09840691712159764d
B. fe80::314e:4566:8702:bf3d
C. iqn.2021-08.com.acme:3xxx
D. 20:00:00:25:B5:97:c3:ac

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10:

A database administrator experiences delay when performing storage replication between primary and secondary data centers. The data centers are located 20 kilometers apart and are connected using a 500 Mbps link. The deployment was implemented using an FCIP tunnel and a pair of Cisco MDS 9250 Series Switches. The network engineer decided to enable QoS to prioritize replication traffic. Which QoS model must be used to resolve the performance issues?

A. Resource Reservation Protocol
B. weighted round-robin
C. differentiated services
D. strict priority queuing

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11:

A network consultant must design a high availability interconnection of a clustered Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect toward two upstream Layer 2 switches. The Ethernet interconnection must use all redundant links and have no impact on the STP domain size.

Which connectivity solution must be used?

A. Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect in switch mode with dual uplinks distributed evenly to the upstream switches

B. Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect in switch mode with a single uplink toward each upstream switch to eliminate any change to the STP domain size

C. Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect in end-host mode with a single uplink toward each upstream switch to eliminate any change to the STP domain size

D. Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect in end-host mode with dual uplinks distributed evenly to the upstream switches

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12:

Which technology enables Layer 2 extension between remote data center sites?

A. FCIP
B. GRE
C. DMVPN
D. OTV

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://netcraftsmen.com/spanning-layer-2-between-data-centers/

QUESTION 13:

An engineer must use OTV for Layer 2 connectivity between data centers to support virtual machine mobility between the customer sites. To support this requirement, the engineer must ensure the existence of the same default gateway on both sites. Additionally, the operations team reports high bandwidth utilization on site A and wants to optimize the outbound traffic flows to use a local DC exit point.

Which feature must be used to meet these requirements?

A. data group
B. FHRP filter
C. ARP filter
D. control group

Correct Answer: D

……

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QUESTION 1

What should you recommend to prevent users outside the Litware on-premises network from accessing the analytical data store?

A. a server-level virtual network rule
B. a database-level virtual network rule
C. a server-level firewall IP rule
D. a database-level firewall IP rule

Correct Answer: A

Scenario: Ensure that the analytical datastore is accessible only to the company\’s on-premises network and Azure services.
Virtual network rules are one firewall security feature that controls whether the database server for your single databases and elastic pool in Azure SQL Database or for your databases in SQL Data Warehouse accepts communications that are sent from particular subnets in virtual networks.
Server-level, not database-level: Each virtual network rule applies to your whole Azure SQL Database server, not just to one particular database on the server. In other words, the virtual network rule applies at the server level, not at the database level.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-database/sql-database-vnet-service-endpoint-rule-overview

QUESTION 2

You are designing a slowly changing dimension (SCD) for supplier data in an Azure Synapse Analytics dedicated SQL pool.
You plan to keep a record of changes to the available fields.
The supplier data contains the following columns.

Which three additional columns should you add to the data to create a Type 2 SCD? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. surrogate primary key
B. foreign key
C. effective start date
D. effective end date
E. last modified date
F. business key

Correct Answer: CDF

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/integration-services/data-flow/transformations/slowly-changing-dimension-transformation

QUESTION 3

HOTSPOT
A company plans to use Platform-as-a-Service (PaaS) to create the new data pipeline process. The process must meet the following requirements:
Ingest:
1.

Access multiple data sources.
2.
Provide the ability to orchestrate workflow.
3.
Provide the capability to run SQL Server Integration Services packages.
Store:
1.
Optimize storage for big data workloads.
2.
Provide encryption of data at rest.
3.
Operate with no size limits.
Prepare and Train:
1.
Provide a fully-managed and interactive workspace for exploration and visualization.
2.
Provide the ability to program in R, SQL, Python, Scala, and Java.
3.
Provide seamless user authentication with Azure Active Directory.
Model and Serve:
1.
Implement native columnar storage.
2.
Support for the SQL language
3.
Provide support for structured streaming.
You need to build the data integration pipeline.
Which technologies should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Ingest: Azure Data Factory
Azure Data Factory pipelines can execute SSIS packages.
In Azure, the following services and tools will meet the core requirements for pipeline orchestration, control flow, and data movement: Azure Data Factory, Oozie on HDInsight, and SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS).
Store: Data Lake Storage
Data Lake Storage Gen1 provides unlimited storage.
Note: Data at rest includes information that resides in persistent storage on physical media, in any digital format.
Microsoft Azure offers a variety of data storage solutions to meet different needs, including file, disk, blob, and table storage.
Microsoft also provides encryption to protect Azure SQL Database, Azure Cosmos DB, and Azure Data Lake.

Prepare and Train: Azure Databricks
Azure Databricks provides enterprise-grade Azure security, including Azure Active Directory integration.
With Azure Databricks, you can set up your Apache Spark environment in minutes, autoscale and collaborate on shared projects in an interactive workspace. Azure Databricks supports Python, Scala, R, Java, and SQL, as well as data science frameworks and libraries including TensorFlow, PyTorch, and scikit-learn.
Model and Serve: Azure Synapse Analytics
Azure Synapse Analytics/ SQL Data Warehouse stores data into relational tables with columnar storage.
Azure SQL Data Warehouse connector now offers efficient and scalable structured streaming write support for SQL
Data Warehouse. Access SQL Data Warehouse from Azure Databricks using the SQL Data Warehouse connector.
Note: Note: As of November 2019, Azure SQL Data Warehouse is now Azure Synapse Analytics.
Reference:

https://docs.microsoft.com/bs-latn-ba/azure/architecture/data-guide/technology-choices/pipeline-orchestration-data-movement

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-databricks/what-is-azure-databricks

QUESTION 4

You need to schedule an Azure Data Factory pipeline to execute when a new file arrives in an Azure Data Lake Storage Gen2 container. Which type of trigger should you use?

A. on-demand
B. tumbling window
C. schedule
D. event

Correct Answer: B

Event-driven architecture (EDA) is a common data integration pattern that involves production, detection, consumption, and reaction to events. Data integration scenarios often require Data Factory customers to trigger pipelines based on events happening in the storage account, such as the arrival or deletion of a file in the Azure Blob Storage account.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/data-factory/how-to-create-event-trigger

QUESTION 5

HOTSPOT

You need to design an analytical storage solution for transactional data. The solution must meet the sales
transaction dataset requirements.
What should you include in the solution? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: Round-robin

Round-robin tables are useful for improving loading speed.
Scenario: Partition data that contains sales transaction records. Partitions must be designed to provide efficient loads by month.
Box 2: Hash
Hash-distributed tables improve query performance on large fact tables.
Scenario:
1.
You plan to create a promotional table that will contain a promotion ID. The promotion ID will be associated with a specific
product. The product will be identified by a product ID. The table will be approximately 5 GB.
2.
Ensure that queries joining and filtering sales transaction records based on product ID are completed as quickly as possible.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/synapse-analytics/sql-data-warehouse/sql-data-warehouse-tables-distribute

QUESTION 6

HOTSPOT
You are designing an Azure Stream Analytics solution that receives instant messaging data from an Azure event hub.
You need to ensure that the output from the Stream Analytics job counts the number of messages per time zone every 15 seconds.
How should you complete the Stream Analytics query? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: timestamp by
Box 2: TUMBLINGWINDOW
Tumbling window functions are used to segment a data stream into distinct time segments and perform a function against them, such as the example below. The key differentiators of a Tumbling window are that they repeat, do not overlap, and an event cannot belong to more than one tumbling window.

QUESTION 7

You need to design a data retention solution for the Twitter teed data records. The solution must meet the customer sentiment analytics requirements. Which Azure Storage functionality should you include in the solution?

A. time-based retention
B. change feed
C. soft delete
D. Lifecycle management

Correct Answer: D

Scenario: Purge Twitter feed data records that are older than two years.
Data sets have unique lifecycles. Early in the lifecycle, people access some data often. But the need for access often drops drastically as the data ages. Some data remains idle in the cloud and is rarely accessed once stored. Some data sets expire days or months after creation, while other data sets are actively read and modified throughout their lifetimes.
Azure Storage lifecycle management offers a rule-based policy that you can use to transition blob data to the appropriate access tiers or to expire data at the end of the data lifecycle.

Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/blobs/lifecycle-management-overview

QUESTION 8

HOTSPOT
You are designing an application that will use an Azure Data Lake Storage Gen 2 account to store petabytes of license plate photos from toll booths. The account will use zone-redundant storage (ZRS).
You identify the following usage patterns:
1.
The data will be accessed several times a day during the first 30 days after the data is created.
2.
The data must meet an availability SU of 99.9%.
3.
After 90 days, the data will be accessed infrequently but must be available within 30 seconds.
4.
After 365 days, the data will be accessed infrequently but must be available within five minutes.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 9

You are designing a security model for an Azure Synapse Analytics dedicated SQL pool that will support multiple companies.
You need to ensure that users from each company can view only the data of their respective companies.
Which two objects should you include in the solution? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. a security policy
B. a custom role-based access control (RBAC) role
C. a function

D. a column encryption key
E. asymmetric keys

Correct Answer: AB

A: Row-Level Security (RLS) enables you to use group membership or execution context to control access to rows in a database table. Implement RLS by using the CREATE SECURITY POLICYTransact-SQL statement.
B: Azure Synapse provides a comprehensive and fine-grained access control system, that integrates:
Azure roles for resource management and access to data in storage, Synapse roles for managing live access to code and execution, SQL roles for data plane access to data in SQL pools.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/security/row-level-security
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/synapse-analytics/security/synapse-workspace-access-control-overview

QUESTION 10

You are developing a solution that will stream to Azure Stream Analytics. The solution will have both streaming data and reference data. Which input type should you use for the reference data?

A. Azure Cosmos DB
B. Azure Blob storage
C. Azure IoT Hub
D. Azure Event Hubs

Correct Answer: B

Stream Analytics supports Azure Blob storage and Azure SQL Database as the storage layer for Reference Data.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/stream-analytics/stream-analytics-use-reference-data

QUESTION 11

You have an activity in an Azure Data Factory pipeline. The activity calls for a stored procedure in a data warehouse in Azure Synapse Analytics and runs daily.
You need to verify the duration of the activity when it ran last.
What should you use?

A. activity runs in Azure Monitor
B. Activity log in Azure Synapse Analytics

C. the sys.dm_pdw_wait_stats data management view in Azure Synapse Analytics
D. an Azure Resource Manager template

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/data-factory/monitor-visually

QUESTION 12

You are designing an Azure Databricks cluster that runs user-defined local processes. You need to recommend a cluster configuration that meets the following requirements:
1.
Minimize query latency.
2.
Maximize the number of users that can run queries on the cluster at the same time.
3.
Reduce overall costs without compromising other requirements. Which cluster type should you recommend?

A. Standard with Auto Termination
B. High Concurrency with Autoscaling
C. High Concurrency with Auto Termination
D. Standard with Autoscaling

Correct Answer: B

A High Concurrency cluster is a managed cloud resource. The key benefits of High Concurrency clusters are that they provide fine-grained sharing for maximum resource utilization and minimum query latencies.
Databricks choose the appropriate number of workers required to run your job. This is referred to as autoscaling.
Autoscaling makes it easier to achieve high cluster utilization because you don\’t need to provision the cluster to match a workload.
Incorrect Answers:
C: The cluster configuration includes an auto terminate setting whose default value depends on cluster mode:
Standard and Single Node clusters terminate automatically after 120 minutes by default. High Concurrency clusters do not terminate automatically by default.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/databricks/clusters/configure

QUESTION 13

You have an Azure Synapse Analytics dedicated SQL pool.
You run PDW_SHOWSPACEUSED(dbo,FactInternetSales\’); and get the results shown in the following table.

Which statement accurately describes the dbo, FactInternetSales table?

A. The table contains less than 1,000 rows.
B. All distributions contain data.
C. The table is skewed.
D. The table uses round-robin distribution.

Correct Answer: C

Data skew means the data is not distributed evenly across the distributions.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/synapse-analytics/sql-data-warehouse/sql-data-warehouse-tables-distribute

……

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QUESTION 1
You need to meet the technical requirements for the San Diego office computers. Which Windows 10 deployment method should you use?
A. wipe and load refresh
B. in-place upgrade
C. provisioning packages
D. Windows Autopilot
Correct Answer: D
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/deployment/windows-autopilot/windows-autopilot

QUESTION 2
You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10. Computer1 is in a workgroup. Computer1 contains the
folders are shown in the following table.[2021.1] lead4pass md-100 exam questions q2

User1 encrypts a file named File1.txt that is in a folder named C:\Folder1.
What is the effect of the configuration? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

[2021.1] lead4pass md-100 exam questions q2-1

References: https://support.microsoft.com/en-za/help/310316/how-permissions-are-handled-when-you-copy-and-movefiles-and-folders

QUESTION 3
You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10.
From Event Viewer on Computer1, you have a task named Action1 that is attached to the following event:
Log: System Source: Kernel-General Event ID: 16
You need to modify the settings of Action1. What should you use?
A. the Settings app
B. Task Scheduler
C. Event Viewer
D. System Configuration
Correct Answer: C
An Event Viewer task is created and modified in the Event Viewer.
References: https://www.techrepublic.com/article/how-to-use-custom-views-in-windows-10s-event-viewer/

QUESTION 4
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear on the review screen.
You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10.
You test Windows updates on Computer1 before you make the updates available to other users at your company.
You install a quality update that conflicts with a customer device driver.
You need to remove the update from Computer1.
Solution: From System Restore, you revert the system state to a restore point that was created before the update was
installed.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
References: https://support.microsoft.com/en-us/help/934307/description-of-the-windows-update-standalone-installer-inwindows

QUESTION 5
HOTSPOT
You have two computers named Computer1 and Computer2 that run Windows 10. The computers are in a workgroup.
You perform the following configurations on Computer1:
1.
Create a user named User1.
2.
Add User1 to the Remote Desktop Users group.
You perform the following configurations on Computer2:
1.
Create a user named User1 and specify the same user password as the one set on Computer1.
2.
Create a share named Share2 and grant User1 Full control access to Share2.
3.
Enable Remote Desktop.
What are the effects of the configurations? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:[2021.1] lead4pass md-100 exam questions q5

QUESTION 6
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains named Computer1 that
runs Windows 10.
On Computer1, you create an NTFS folder and assign Full Control permissions to Everyone.
You share the folder as Share1 and assign the permissions shown in the following table.[2021.1] lead4pass md-100 exam questions q6

When accessing Share1, which two actions can be performed by User1 but not by User2? Each correct answer
presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Delete a file created by another user.
B. Set the permissions for a file.
C. Rename a file created by another user.
D. Take ownership of the file.
E. Copy a file created by another user to a subfolder.
Correct Answer: BD
References: https://www.varonis.com/blog/ntfs-permissions-vs-share/

QUESTION 7
HOTSPOT
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two computers named
Computer1 and Computer2 run Windows 10 and are joined to the domain.
On Computer1, you create an event subscription named Subscription1 for Computer2 as shown in the Subscription1
exhibit. (Click the Subcription1 tab.)[2021.1] lead4pass md-100 exam questions q7

Subscription1 is configured to use forwarded events as the destination log.
On Computer1, you create a custom view named View1 as shown in the View1 exhibit. (Click the View1 tab.)

[2021.1] lead4pass md-100 exam questions q7-1

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

[2021.1] lead4pass md-100 exam questions q7-2

QUESTION 8
Your network contains an Active Directory domain. The domain contains 10 computers that run Windows 10. Users in
the finance department use computers.
You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10.
From Computer1, you plan to run a script that executes Windows PowerShell commands on the finance department
computers.
You need to ensure that you can run the PowerShell commands on the finance department from Computer1.
What should you do with the finance department computers?
A. From the local Group Policy, enable the Allow Remote Shell Access setting.
B. From the local Group Policy, enable the Turn on Script Execution setting.
C. From the Windows PowerShell, run the Enable-MMAgent cmdlet.
D. From the Windows PowerShell, run the Enable-PSRemoting cmdlet.
Correct Answer: D
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/microsoft.powershell.core/enablepsremoting?view=powershell-6

QUESTION 9
You need to meet the quality update requirement for the computer. For how long should you defer the updates?
A. 14 days
B. 10 years
C. 5 years
D. 180 days
E. 30 days
Correct Answer: B
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/deployment/update/waas-overview

QUESTION 10
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains the users shown in the
following table.[2021.1] lead4pass md-100 exam questions q10

You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10 and is in a workgroup.
A local standard user on Computer1 named User1 joins the computer to the domain and uses the credentials of User2
when prompted.
You need to ensure that you can rename Computer1 as Computer33.
Solution: You use the credentials of User4 on Computer1.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Renaming a domain-joined computer will also rename the computer account in the domain. To do this, you need
domain administrator privileges.
User4 is a server operator, not an administrator. Members of the Server Operators group can sign in to a server
interactively, create and delete network shared resources, start and stop services, back up and restore files, format the
hard disk
drive of the computer, and shut down the computer.
Use User3\\’s credentials instead.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/security/identity-protection/access-control/active-directory-securitygroups#bkmk-domainadmins

QUESTION 11
HOTSPOT
You need to reduce the amount of time it takes to restart Application1 when the application crashes.
What should you include in the solution? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:[2021.1] lead4pass md-100 exam questions q11

Correct Answer:

[2021.1] lead4pass md-100 exam questions q11-1

Reference: https://www.howto-connect.com/how-to-attach-a-task-to-this-event-in-event-viewer-in-windows-10/

QUESTION 12
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear on the review screen.
A user named User1 has a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10. Computer1 is joined to an Azure Active
Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.com. User1 joins Computer1 to contoso.com by using
[email protected]
Computer1 contains a folder named Folder1. Folder1 is in drive C and is shared as Share1. Share1 has the permission
shown in the following table.[2021.1] lead4pass md-100 exam questions q12

A user named User2 has a computer named Computer2 that runs Windows 10. User2 joins Computer2 to contoso.com
by using [email protected]
User2 attempts to access Share1 and receives the following error message: “The username or password is incorrect.”
You need to ensure that User2 can connect to Share1.
Solution: In Azure AD, you create a group named Group1 that contains User1 and User2. You grant Group1 Modify
access to Folder1.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/previous-versions/windows/it-pro/windowsserver-2008-R2-and-2008/cc754178(v%3dws.10)

QUESTION 13
You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10.
On Computer1, you create the local users shown in the following table.[2021.1] lead4pass md-100 exam questions q13

Which three user profiles will persist after each user signs out? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. User1
B. User2
C. User3
D. User4
E. User5
Correct Answer: ADE

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Latest Update SY0-601 Dumps from Lead4Pass | 100% Pass Exam 2022

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QUESTION 1

Which of the following scenarios BEST describes a risk reduction technique?

A. A security control objective cannot be met through a technical change, so the company purchases insurance and is
no longer concerned about losses from data breaches.

B. A security control objective cannot be met through a technical change, so the company implements a policy to train
users on a more secure method of operation.

C. A security control objective cannot be met through a technical change, so the company changes as method of
operation

D. A security control objective cannot be met through a technical change, so the Chief Information Officer (CIO) decides to sign off on the risk.

 

QUESTION 2

Joe, an employee, is transferring departments and is providing copies of his files to a network share folder for his
previous team to access. Joe is granting read-write-execute permissions to his manager but giving read-only access to
the rest of the team. Which of the following access controls is Joe using?

A. FACL
B. DAC
C. ABAC
D. MAC

 

QUESTION 3

A financial organization has adopted a new secure, encrypted document-sharing application to help with its customer
loan process. Some important PII needs to be shared across this new platform, but it is getting blocked by the DLP
systems. Which of the following actions will BEST allow the PII to be shared with the secure application without
compromising the organization\\’s security posture?

A. Configure the DLP policies to allow all PII
B. Configure the firewall to allow all ports that are used by this application
C. Configure the antivirus software to allow the application
D. Configure the DLP policies to whitelist this application with the specific PII
E. Configure the application to encrypt the PII

 

QUESTION 4

A network administrator is setting up wireless access points in all the conference rooms and wants to authenticate
device using PKI. Which of the following should the administrator configure?

A. A captive portal
B. PSK
C. 802.1X
D. WPS

 

QUESTION 5

A cloud administrator is configuring five compute instances under the same subnet in a VPC Three instances are
required to communicate with one another, and the other two must he logically isolated from all other instances in the
VPC. Which of the following must the administrator configure to meet this requirement?

A. One security group
B. Two security groups
C. Three security groups
D. Five security groups

 

QUESTION 6

Which of the following would a European company interested in implementing a technical, hands-on set of security
standards MOST likely choose?

A. GOPR
B. CIS controls
C. ISO 27001
D. ISO 37000

 

QUESTION 7

Several employees return to work the day after attending an industry trade show. That same day, the security manager
notices several malware alerts coming from each of the employee\\’s workstations. The security manager investigates
but finds no signs of an attack on the perimeter firewall or the NIDS. Which of the following is MOST likely causing the
malware alerts?

A. A worm that has propagated itself across the intranet, which was initiated by presentation media
B. A fileless virus that is contained on a vCard that is attempting to execute an attack
C. A Trojan that has passed through and executed malicious code on the hosts
D. A USB flash drive that is trying to run malicious code but is being blocked by the host firewall

 

QUESTION 8

A security manager for a retailer needs to reduce the scope of a project to comply with PCI DSS. The PCI data is
located in different offices than where credit cards are accepted. All the offices are connected via MPLS back to the
primary datacenter. Which of the following should the security manager implement to achieve the objective?

A. Segmentation
B. Containment
C. Geofencing
D. Isolation

 

QUESTION 9

A technician needs to prevent data loss in a laboratory. The laboratory is not connected to any external networks. Which of the following methods would BEST prevent the exfiltration of data? (Select TWO).

A. VPN
B. Drive encryption
C. Network firewall
D. File level encryption
E. USB blocker
F. MFA

 

QUESTION 10

An organization relies on third-party video conferencing to conduct daily business. Recent security changes now require all remote workers to utilize a VPN to corporate resources. Which of the following would BEST maintain high-quality video conferencing while minimizing latency when connected to the VPN?

A. Using geographic diversity to have VPN terminators closer to end users
B. Utilizing split tunneling so only traffic for corporate resources is encrypted
C. Purchasing higher-bandwidth connections to meet the increased demand
D. Configuring QoS properly on the VPN accelerators

 

QUESTION 11

A user is concerned that a web application will not be able to handle unexpected or random input without crashing.
Which of the following BEST describes the type of testing the user should perform?

A. Code signing
B. Fuzzing
C. Manual code review
D. Dynamic code analysis

 

QUESTION 12

While investigating a data leakage incident, a security analyst reviews access control to cloud-hosted data. The
following information was presented in a security posture report.

sy0-601 q12

Based on the report, which of the following was the MOST likely attack vector used against the company?

A. Spyware
B. Logic bomb
C. Potentially unwanted programs
D. Supply chain

Verify answer:

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Microsoft DP-203 dumps historical exam questions and latest updates

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Microsoft Certified: Azure Data Engineer Associate “DP-203”. DP-203 is the latest exam question released in 2021. I have gone through the DP-200 exam and DP-201 exam before.

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Question 1:

What should you recommend using to secure sensitive customer contact information?

A. Transparent Data Encryption (TDE)

B. row-level security

C. column-level security

D. data sensitivity labels

 

Scenario: Limit the business analysts


Question 2:

What should you do to improve high availability of the real-time data processing solution?

A. Deploy a High Concurrency Databricks cluster.

B. Deploy an Azure Stream Analytics job and use an Azure Automation runbook to check the status of the job and to start the job if it stops.

C. Set Data Lake Storage to use geo-redundant storage (GRS).

D. Deploy identical Azure Stream Analytics jobs to paired regions in Azure.

 

Guarantee Stream Analytics job reliability during service updates Part of being a fully managed service is the capability to introduce new service functionality and improvements at a rapid pace. As a result, Stream Analytics can have a service update deploy on a weekly (or more frequent) basis. No matter how much testing is done there is still a risk that an existing, running job may break due to the introduction of a bug. If you are running mission critical jobs, these risks need to be avoided. You can reduce this risk by following Azure\’s paired region model.

Scenario: The application development team will create an Azure event hub to receive real-time sales data, including store number, date, time, product ID, customer loyalty number, price, and discount amount, from the point of sale (POS) system and output the data to data storage in Azure

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/stream-analytics/stream-analytics-job-reliability


Question 3:

You are designing a fact table named FactPurchase in an Azure Synapse Analytics dedicated SQL pool. The table contains purchases from suppliers for a retail store. FactPurchase will contain the following columns.

microsoft dp-203 exam questions q3

FactPurchase will have 1 million rows of data added daily and will contain three years of data.

Transact-SQL queries similar to the following query will be executed daily.

SELECT SupplierKey, StockItemKey, COUNT(*) FROM FactPurchase WHERE DateKey >= 20210101 AND DateKey <= 20210131 GROUP By SupplierKey, StockItemKey

Which table distribution will minimize query times?

A. replicated

B. hash-distributed on PurchaseKey

C. round-robin

D. hash-distributed on DateKey

 

Hash-distributed tables improve query performance on large fact tables, and are the focus of this article. Round-robin tables are useful for improving loading speed.

Incorrect:

Not D: Do not use a date column. . All data for the same date lands in the same distribution. If several users are all filtering on the same date, then only 1 of the 60 distributions do all the processing work.

Reference:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/synapse-analytics/sql-data-warehouse/sql-data-warehouse-tables-distribute


Question 4:

You have a table in an Azure Synapse Analytics dedicated SQL pool. The table was created by using the following Transact-SQL statement.

microsoft dp-203 exam questions q4

You need to alter the table to meet the following requirements:

Ensure that users can identify the current manager of employees.

Support creating an employee reporting hierarchy for your entire company.

Provide fast lookup of the managers\’ attributes such as name and job title.

Which column should you add to the table?

A. [ManagerEmployeeID] [int] NULL

B. [ManagerEmployeeID] [smallint] NULL

C. [ManagerEmployeeKey] [int] NULL

D. [ManagerName] [varchar](200) NULL

 

Use the same definition as the EmployeeID column.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/analysis-services/tabular-models/hierarchies-ssas-tabular


Question 5:

You have files and folders in Azure Data Lake Storage Gen2 for an Azure Synapse workspace as shown in the following exhibit.

microsoft dp-203 exam questions q5

You create an external table named ExtTable that has LOCATION=\’/topfolder/\’.

When you query ExtTable by using an Azure Synapse Analytics serverless SQL pool, which files are returned?

A. File2.csv and File3.csv only

B. File1.csv and File4.csv only

C. File1.csv, File2.csv, File3.csv, and File4.csv

D. File1.csv only

 

To run a T-SQL query over a set of files within a folder or set of folders while treating them as a single entity or rowset, provide a path to a folder or a pattern (using wildcards) over a set of files or folders.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/synapse-analytics/sql/query-data-storage#query-multiple-files-or-folders


Question 6:

You are designing the folder structure for an Azure Data Lake Storage Gen2 container.

Users will query data by using a variety of services including Azure Databricks and Azure Synapse Analytics serverless SQL pools. The data will be secured by subject area. Most queries will include data from the current year or current

month.

Which folder structure should you recommend to support fast queries and simplified folder security?

A. /{SubjectArea}/{DataSource}/{DD}/{MM}/{YYYY}/{FileData}_{YYYY}_{MM}_{DD}.csv

B. /{DD}/{MM}/{YYYY}/{SubjectArea}/{DataSource}/{FileData}_{YYYY}_{MM}_{DD}.csv

C. /{YYYY}/{MM}/{DD}/{SubjectArea}/{DataSource}/{FileData}_{YYYY}_{MM}_{DD}.csv

D. /{SubjectArea}/{DataSource}/{YYYY}/{MM}/{DD}/{FileData}_{YYYY}_{MM}_{DD}.csv

 

There\’s an important reason to put the date at the end of the directory structure. If you want to lock down certain regions or subject matters to users/groups, then you can easily do so with the POSIX permissions. Otherwise, if there was a need to restrict a certain security group to viewing just the UK data or certain planes, with the date structure in front a separate permission would be required for numerous directories under every hour directory. Additionally, having the date structure in front would exponentially increase the number of directories as time went on.

Note: In IoT workloads, there can be a great deal of data being landed in the data store that spans across numerous products, devices, organizations, and customers. It\’s important to pre-plan the directory layout for organization, security, and efficient processing of the data for down-stream consumers. A general template to consider might be the following layout:

{Region}/{SubjectMatter(s)}/{yyyy}/{mm}/{dd}/{hh}/


Question 7:

You need to design an Azure Synapse Analytics dedicated SQL pool that meets the following requirements:

Can return an employee record from a given point in time.

Maintains the latest employee information.

Minimizes query complexity.

How should you model the employee data?

A. as a temporal table

B. as a SQL graph table

C. as a degenerate dimension table

D. as a Type 2 slowly changing dimension (SCD) table

 

A Type 2 SCD supports versioning of dimension members. Often the source system doesn\’t store versions, so the data warehouse load process detects and manages changes in a dimension table. In this case, the dimension table must use a surrogate key to provide a unique reference to a version of the dimension member. It also includes columns that define the date range validity of the version (for example, StartDate and EndDate) and possibly a flag column (for example, IsCurrent) to easily filter by current dimension members.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/learn/modules/populate-slowly-changing-dimensions-azure-synapse-analytics-pipelines/3-choose-between-dimension-types


Question 8:

You have an enterprise-wide Azure Data Lake Storage Gen2 account. The data lake is accessible only through an Azure virtual network named VNET1.

You are building a SQL pool in Azure Synapse that will use data from the data lake.

Your company has a sales team. All the members of the sales team are in an Azure Active Directory group named Sales. POSIX controls are used to assign the Sales group access to the files in the data lake.

You plan to load data to the SQL pool every hour.

You need to ensure that the SQL pool can load the sales data from the data lake.

Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

NOTE: Each area selection is worth one point.

A. Add the managed identity to the Sales group.

B. Use the managed identity as the credentials for the data load process.

C. Create a shared access signature (SAS).

D. Add your Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) account to the Sales group.

E. Use the snared access signature (SAS) as the credentials for the data load process.

F. Create a managed identity.

 

The managed identity grants permissions to the dedicated SQL pools in the workspace.

Note: Managed identity for Azure resources is a feature of Azure Active Directory. The feature provides Azure services with an automatically managed identity in Azure AD

Reference:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/synapse-analytics/security/synapse-workspace-managed-identity


Question 9:

You are creating an Azure Data Factory data flow that will ingest data from a CSV file, cast columns to specified types of data, and insert the data into a table in an Azure Synapse Analytic dedicated SQL pool. The CSV file contains three

columns named username, comment, and date.

The data flow already contains the following:

A source transformation.

A Derived Column transformation to set the appropriate types of data.

A sink transformation to land the data in the pool.

You need to ensure that the data flow meets the following requirements:

All valid rows must be written to the destination table.

Truncation errors in the comment column must be avoided proactively.

Any rows containing comment values that will cause truncation errors upon insert must be written to a file in blob storage.

Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. To the data flow, add a sink transformation to write the rows to a file in blob storage.

B. To the data flow, add a Conditional Split transformation to separate the rows that will cause truncation errors.

C. To the data flow, add a filter transformation to filter out rows that will cause truncation errors.

D. Add a select transformation to select only the rows that will cause truncation errors.

 

B: Example:

1.

This conditional split transformation defines the maximum length of “title” to be five. Any row that is less than or equal to five will go into the GoodRows stream. Any row that is larger than five will go into the BadRows stream.

2.

This conditional split transformation defines the maximum length of “title” to be five. Any row that is less than or equal to five will go into the GoodRows stream. Any row that is larger than five will go into the BadRows stream.

microsoft dp-203 exam questions q9

A:

3.

Now we need to log the rows that failed. Add a sink transformation to the BadRows stream for logging. Here, we\’ll “auto-map” all of the fields so that we have logging of the complete transaction record. This is a text-delimited CSV file output to a single file in Blob Storage. We\’ll call the log file “badrows.csv”.

4.

The completed data flow is shown below. We are now able to split off error rows to avoid the SQL truncation errors and put those entries into a log file. Meanwhile, successful rows can continue to write to our target database.

microsoft dp-203 exam questions q9-1 microsoft dp-203 exam questions q9-2

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/data-factory/how-to-data-flow-error-rows


Question 10:

You have an Azure Storage account and a data warehouse in Azure Synapse Analytics in the UK South region.

You need to copy blob data from the storage account to the data warehouse by using Azure Data Factory. The solution must meet the following requirements:

Ensure that the data remains in the UK South region at all times.

Minimize administrative effort.

Which type of integration runtime should you use?

A. Azure integration runtime

B. Azure-SSIS integration runtime

C. Self-hosted integration runtime

microsoft dp-203 exam questions q10

Incorrect Answers:

C: Self-hosted integration runtime is to be used On-premises.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/data-factory/concepts-integration-runtime


Question 11:

You have an Azure Stream Analytics job that receives clickstream data from an Azure event hub.

You need to define a query in the Stream Analytics job. The query must meet the following requirements:

Count the number of clicks within each 10-second window based on the country of a visitor. Ensure that each click is NOT counted more than once.

How should you define the Query?

A. SELECT Country, Avg(*) AS Average FROM ClickStream TIMESTAMP BY CreatedAt GROUP BY Country, SlidingWindow(second, 10)

B. SELECT Country, Count(*) AS Count FROM ClickStream TIMESTAMP BY CreatedAt

GROUP BY Country, TumblingWindow(second, 10)

C. SELECT Country, Avg(*) AS Average FROM ClickStream TIMESTAMP BY CreatedAt GROUP BY Country, HoppingWindow(second, 10, 2)

D. SELECT Country, Count(*) AS Count FROM ClickStream TIMESTAMP BY CreatedAt GROUP BY Country, SessionWindow(second, 5, 10)

 

Tumbling window functions are used to segment a data stream into distinct time segments and perform a function against them, such as the example below. The key differentiators of a Tumbling window are that they repeat, do not overlap, and an event cannot belong to more than one tumbling window.

Example:

Incorrect Answers:

A: Sliding windows, unlike Tumbling or Hopping windows, output events only for points in time when the content of the window actually changes. In other words, when an event enters or exits the window. Every window has at least one event, like in the case of Hopping windows, events can belong to more than one sliding window.

C: Hopping window functions hop forward in time by a fixed period. It may be easy to think of them as Tumbling windows that can overlap, so events can belong to more than one Hopping window result set. To make a Hopping window the same as a Tumbling window, specify the hop size to be the same as the window size.

D: Session windows group events that arrive at similar times, filtering out periods of time where there is no data.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/stream-analytics/stream-analytics-window-functions


Question 12:

You need to schedule an Azure Data Factory pipeline to execute when a new file arrives in an Azure Data Lake Storage Gen2 container.

Which type of trigger should you use?

A. on-demand

B. tumbling window

C. schedule

D. event

 

Event-driven architecture (EDA) is a common data integration pattern that involves production, detection, consumption, and reaction to events. Data integration scenarios often require Data Factory customers to trigger pipelines based on events happening in storage account, such as the arrival or deletion of a file in Azure Blob Storage account.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/data-factory/how-to-create-event-trigger


Question 13:

You have two Azure Data Factory instances named ADFdev and ADFprod. ADFdev connects to an Azure DevOps Git repository.

You publish changes from the main branch of the Git repository to ADFdev.

You need to deploy the artifacts from ADFdev to ADFprod.

What should you do first?

A. From ADFdev, modify the Git configuration.

B. From ADFdev, create a linked service.

C. From Azure DevOps, create a release pipeline.

D. From Azure DevOps, update the main branch.

 

In Azure Data Factory, continuous integration and delivery (CI/CD) means moving Data Factory pipelines from one environment (development, test, production) to another.

Note:

The following is a guide for setting up an Azure Pipelines release that automates the deployment of a data factory to multiple environments.

1.

In Azure DevOps, open the project that\’s configured with your data factory.

2.

On the left side of the page, select Pipelines, and then select Releases.

3.

Select New pipeline, or, if you have existing pipelines, select New and then New release pipeline.

4.

In the Stage name box, enter the name of your environment.

5.

Select Add artifact, and then select the git repository configured with your development data factory. Select the publish branch of the repository for the Default branch. By default, this publish branch is adf_publish.

6.

Select the Empty job template.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/data-factory/continuous-integration-deployment


Question 14:

You are developing a solution that will stream to Azure Stream Analytics. The solution will have both streaming data and reference data.

Which input type should you use for the reference data?

A. Azure Cosmos DB

B. Azure Blob storage

C. Azure IoT Hub

D. Azure Event Hubs

 

Stream Analytics supports Azure Blob storage and Azure SQL Database as the storage layer for Reference Data.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/stream-analytics/stream-analytics-use-reference-data


Question 15:

You are designing an Azure Stream Analytics job to process incoming events from sensors in retail environments.

You need to process the events to produce a running average of shopper counts during the previous 15 minutes, calculated at five-minute intervals.

Which type of window should you use?

A. snapshot

B. tumbling

C. hopping

D. sliding

 

Tumbling windows are a series of fixed-sized, non-overlapping and contiguous time intervals. The following diagram illustrates a stream with a series of events and how they are mapped into 10-second tumbling windows.

microsoft dp-203 exam questions q15

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/stream-analytics-query/tumbling-window-azure-stream-analytics

Publish the answer:

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DDBACDDADFABABDCBB

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The answer is obtained at the end of the article

QUESTION 1

cisco 300-915 exam questions q1

Refer to the exhibit. The code snippet provides information about the packet captures within a network.
How can the most used source IP addresses within a specific time be visualized?

A. line graph
B. bar histogram
C. scatter plot
D. heatmap

 

QUESTION 2

Which connector is southbound?

A. horizontal connector
B. cloud connector
C. device connector
D. universal connector

 

QUESTION 3

How does the Cisco router (IR) and switch (IE) portfolio support edge data services?

A. Edge data services can be run and managed as containers using Cisco IOx.
B. Edge data services can run only in virtual machines on a separate compute layer.
C. Edge data services are aliases for IR/IE configuration services.
D. Edge data services run as separate instances only on virtual machines.

 

QUESTION 4

A customer is deploying sensors with Cisco IR829 routers in moving trucks to continuously monitor the health of
engines using a cloud application.
Which data extraction and processing strategy is best suited in this environment?

A. No need to store data locally, upload in real time to the cloud for processing.
B. Generate local alerts and create reports at the edge, and upload to the cloud at the end of the day.
C. Use the store and forward mechanism to upload the information at the earliest to cloud.
D. Ensure that data is stored for a longer duration locally and upload to the cloud every week.

 

QUESTION 5

cisco 300-915 exam questions q5

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. That is a heatmap projected on top of a geographic map.
B. That is a treemap projected on top of a geographic map.
C. The color red usually stands for lower values and the color blue usually stands for higher values.
D. Another suitable visualization technique for this image would be line graphs.
E. The color blue usually stands for lower values and the color red usually stands for higher values.

 

QUESTION 6

What are two functionalities of edge data services? (Choose two.)

A. creating a machine learning data model
B. supporting many interfaces and APIs
C. applying advanced data analytics
D. filtering, normalizing and aggregating data
E. saving data for a prolonged time period

 

QUESTION 7

A company is collecting data from several thousand machines globally. Which software component in the overall
architecture is the next destination of the dataflow after the data has been gathered and normalized on the edge data
software?

A. relational database: MySQL
B. historian database: influxDB
C. message broker: Apache Kafka
D. dashboard: Node.js web app

 

QUESTION 8

cisco 300-915 exam questions q8

Refer to the exhibit. Approximately 4000 oil platforms, each with 400 sensors, are spread in the Gulf of Mexico and all of their data must come together into one dashboard. Which general architecture should be selected to connect them?
A. 4-tier: sensor ?edge device (Intel Atom CPU) ?fog device (Intel Xeon CPU) ?cloud
B. 5-tier: intelligent sensor?edge device (Intel Atom CPU) ?fog device (Intel Xeon CPU) ?edge data center (Intel Xeon
CPU)
C. 2-tier: intelligent sensor ?cloud
D. 3-tier: sensor ?edge device (Intel Atom CPU) ?cloud

Reference: https://www.itu.int/en/ITU-D/RegionalPresence/Africa/Documents/Internet%20of%20Things%20-%20Cisco%27s%20Vision%20and%20Approach.pdf

 

QUESTION 9

Which element ensures that PKI is used to establish the identity of IoT devices?

A. unique device identifier
B. encryption key
C. air gap
D. hashed routes

 

QUESTION 10

After an application is deployed, potential issues arise around connectivity. As part of the troubleshooting process, the
IP address must be determined to ensure end-to-end communication.
Which method provides the required details using the Cisco IOx CLI?

A. ioxclient application status
B. ioxclient application metrics
C. ioxclient application getconfig
D. ioxclient application info

 

QUESTION 11

As part of an IoT project, an organization is developing an application that will share multiple clients using a REST API.
Based on the software development process, what are two valid technical activities that can be suggested to secure the
REST API that is developed during the development of the software? (Choose two.)

A. Respond to request failures in detail to allow users for easier troubleshooting.
B. Implement HTTP whitelisting to only methods that are allowed.
C. Implement and review audit logs for security-related events.
D. Reject HTTP methods that are invalid with an error code 404.
E. Implement physical firewalling and access control to the resources.

 

QUESTION 12

When constructing a Python script for data extraction using GMM APIs on a Cisco Kinetic Cloud platform, how should
the API authentication be implemented?

A. Generate the API keys once and edit the permissions as needed.
B. Generate and use the API keys for the required access level from the Kinetic Cloud application.
C. Use a complex username and password with 128-bit encryption.
D. Use a complex username with an auto-generated password from the Kinetic Cloud application.

 

QUESTION 13

cisco 300-915 exam questions q13

Refer to the exhibit. The code and the error message that are received when the code is run is presented.
What causes issues authenticating with Cisco GMM API using the web-generated API key?

A. firewall that blocks authentication ports
B. incorrect username and password
C. incorrect GMM Cluster selection
D. incorrect key size and data encryption

 

QUESTION 14

DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the Dockerfile instructions from the left onto the correct arguments on the right.
Select and Place:

cisco 300-915 exam questions q14

Correct Answer:

cisco 300-915 exam questions q14-1

 

QUESTION 15

As part of an IoT project, an organization is developing an edge application that will run on a gateway to securely
transmit sensor information it receives into an IoT cloud. Based on the Agile software development lifecycle, the
development team is planning to implement a CI/CD pipeline.
Which two methods should be suggested to make the software development lifecycle more secure during the
implementation and testing? (Choose two.)

A. Perform automated code reviews prior to deployment.
B. Implement auto-provisioning security inspection for the code.
C. Perform on-going penetration testing on the system.
D. Perform a GAP analysis on current security activities and policies.
E. Train members of the team in a secure software development lifecycle methodology such as OWASP.

Verify answer:

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BCCBAEDEBBADBDBBIMAGEDE

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The latest Cisco CyberOps Professional exam series exam questions are from Lead4Pass dumps

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QUESTION 1

What is the goal of an incident response plan?

A. to identify critical systems and resources in an organization

B. to ensure systems are in place to prevent an attack

C. to determine security weaknesses and recommend solutions

D. to contain an attack and prevent it from spreading

Reference: https://www.forcepoint.com/cyber-edu/incident-response

QUESTION 2

cisco 300-215 exam questions q2

Refer to the exhibit. Which two determinations should be made about the attack from the Apache access logs? (Choose two.)

A. The attacker used r57 exploit to elevate their privilege.

B. The attacker uploaded the word press file manager trojan.

C. The attacker performed a brute force attack against word press and used SQL injection against the backend
database.

D. The attacker used the word press file manager plugin to upload r57.php.

E. The attacker logged on normally to word press admin page.

QUESTION 3

cisco 300-215 exam questions q3

Refer to the exhibit. A company that uses only the Unix platform implemented an intrusion detection system. After the
initial configuration, the number of alerts is overwhelming, and an engineer needs to analyze and classify the alerts. The highest number of alerts were generated from the signature shown in the exhibit. Which classification should the
engineer assign to this event?

A. True Negative alert

B. False Negative alert

C. False Positive alert

D. True Positive alert

QUESTION 4

A threat actor attempts to avoid detection by turning data into a code that shifts numbers to the right four times. Which anti-forensics technique is being used?

A. encryption

B. tunneling

C. obfuscation

D. poisoning

Reference: https://www.vadesecure.com/en/malware-analysis-understanding-code-obfuscationtechniques/#:~:text=Obfuscation%20of%20character%20strings%20is,data%20when%20the%20code%20executes.

QUESTION 5

DRAG-DROP
Drag and drop the capabilities on the left onto the Cisco security solutions on the right.
Select and Place:

cisco 300-215 exam questions q5

Correct Answer:

cisco 300-215 exam questions q5-1

QUESTION 6

An engineer is investigating a ticket from the accounting department in which a user discovered an unexpected
application on their workstation. Several alerts are seen from the intrusion detection system of unknown outgoing
internet traffic from this workstation. The engineer also notices a degraded processing capability, which complicates the analysis process. Which two actions should the engineer take? (Choose two.)

A. Restore to a system recovery point.

B. Replace the faulty CPU.

C. Disconnect from the network.

D. Format the workstation drives.

E. Take an image of the workstation.

QUESTION 7

An incident response team is recommending changes after analyzing a recent compromise in which:
a large number of events and logs were involved;
team members were not able to identify the anomalous behavior and escalate it in a timely manner;
several network systems were affected as a result of the latency in detection;
security engineers were able to mitigate the threat and bring systems back to a stable state; and
the issue reoccurred shortly after and systems became unstable again because the correct information was not
gathered during the initial identification phase.

Which two recommendations should be made for improving the incident response process? (Choose two.)

A. Formalize reporting requirements and responsibilities to update management and internal stakeholders throughout
the incident-handling process effectively.

B. Improve the mitigation phase to ensure causes can be quickly identified, and systems returned to a functioning state.

C. Implement an automated operation to pull systems events/logs and bring them into an organizational context.

D. Allocate additional resources for the containment phase to stabilize systems in a timely manner and reduce an
attack\’s breadth.

E. Modify the incident handling playbook and checklist to ensure alignment and agreement on roles, responsibilities,
and steps before an incident occurs.

QUESTION 8

A network host is infected with malware by an attacker who uses the host to make calls for files and shuttle traffic to
bots. This attack went undetected and resulted in a significant loss. The organization wants to ensure this does not
happen in the future and needs a security solution that will generate alerts when command and control communication from an infected device is detected. Which network security solution should be recommended?

A. Cisco Secure Firewall ASA

B. Cisco Secure Firewall Threat Defense (Firepower)

C. Cisco Secure Email Gateway (ESA)

D. Cisco Secure Web Appliance (WSA)

QUESTION 9

An attacker embedded a macro within a word processing file opened by a user in an organization\’s legal department.
The attacker used this technique to gain access to confidential financial data. Which two recommendations should a
security expert make to mitigate this type of attack? (Choose two.)

A. controlled folder access

B. removable device restrictions

C. signed macro requirements

D. firewall rules creation

E. network access control

QUESTION 10

cisco 300-215 exam questions q10

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is analyzing a TCP stream in a Wireshark after a suspicious email with a URL. What
should be determined about the SMB traffic from this stream?

A. It is redirecting to a malicious phishing website,

B. It is exploiting redirect vulnerability

C. It is requesting authentication on the user site

D. It is sharing access to files and printers.

QUESTION 11

Over the last year, an organization\’s HR department has accessed data from its legal department on the last day of
each month to create a monthly activity report. An engineer is analyzing suspicious activity alerted by a threat
intelligence platform that an authorized user in the HR department has accessed legal data daily for the last week. The
engineer pulled the network data from the legal department\’s shared folders and discovered above average-size data
dumps. Which threat actor is implied from these artifacts?

A. privilege escalation

B. internal user errors

C. malicious insider

D. external exfiltration

QUESTION 12

cisco 300-215 exam questions q12

Refer to the exhibit. According to the SNORT alert, what is the attacker performing?

A. brute-force attack against the web application user accounts

B. XSS attack against the target webserver

C. brute-force attack against directories and files on the target webserver

D. SQL injection attack against the target webserver

QUESTION 13

cisco 300-215 exam questions q13

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is analyzing a . LNK (shortcut) file recently received as an email attachment and
blocked by email security as suspicious. What is the next step an engineer should take?

A. Delete the suspicious email with the attachment as the file is a shortcut extension and does not represent any threat.

B. Upload the file to a virus checking engine to compare with well-known viruses as the file is a virus disguised as a
legitimate extension.

C. Quarantine the file within the endpoint antivirus solution as the file is ransomware which will encrypt the documents
of a victim.

D. Open the file in a sandbox environment for further behavioral analysis as the file contains a malicious script that runs on execution.

QUESTION 14

cisco 300-215 exam questions q14

Refer to the exhibit. Which encoding technique is represented by this HEX string?

A. Unicode

B. Binary

C. Base64

D. Charcode

Reference: https://www.suse.com/c/making-sense-hexdump/

QUESTION 15

cisco 300-215 exam questions q15

Refer to the exhibit. Which two actions should be taken as a result of this information? (Choose two.)

A. Update the AV to block any file with hash “cf2b3ad32a8a4cfb05e9dfc45875bd70”.

B. Block all emails sent from an @state.gov address.

C. Block all emails with pdf attachments.

D. Block emails sent from [email protected] with an attached pdf file with md5 hash
“cf2b3ad32a8a4cfb05e9dfc45875bd70”.

E. Block all emails with subject containing “cf2b3ad32a8a4cfb05e9dfc45875bd70”.

Publish the answer:

Q1Q2Q3Q4Q5Q6Q7Q8Q9Q10Q11Q12Q13Q14Q15
DCDCCimageAECEBACBCCDBAB

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