[New Cisco Exam Dumps] High Quality Cisco CCDP 300-115 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers Free Shared Youtube Demo (Q1-Q20)

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300-115 dumps

High Quality Cisco CCDP 300-115 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (1-20)

QUESTION 1
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QUESTION 6
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Drag the attributes on the left to the types of VLAN designs that they describe on the right.
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QUESTION 11
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QUESTION 12
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Match the HSRP states on the left with the correct definition on the right. 300-115 dumps
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QUESTION 13
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QUESTION 14
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PortFast / BPDU Guard / BPDU Filter.
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QUESTION 15
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PVST+ / Rapid PVST+ / MSTP
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STP Timers
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Port Cost / Switch Port Priority / Port Priority
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QUESTION 19
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QUESTION 20
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LLDP-TLV
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300-115 dumps

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300-210 dumps

New Cisco CCNP Security 300-210 Dumps Exam Questions & Answers (1-30)

QUESTION 1
An engineer wants to improve web traffic performance by proxy caching. Which technology provides this improvement?
A. Firepower
B. FireSIGT
C. WSA
D. ASA
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which cloud-based malware detection engine uses machine-learning detection techniques in the Cisco Advanced Malware Protection cloud?
A. third-party detections
B. Spero
C. Ethos
D. Memcache
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
which two options are the basic parts of a Snort rule? (Choose two)
A. rule policy
B. rule header
C. Rule assignment and ports
D. rule options
E. Rule footer
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 4
Which three statements about Cisco CWS are true’? (Choose three )
A. It provides protection against zero-day threats.
B. Cisco SIO provides it with threat updates in near real time.
C. It supports granular application policies.
D. Its Roaming User Protection feature protects the VPN from malware and data breaches.
E. It supports local content caching.
F. Its Cognitive Threat Analytics feature uses cloud-based analysis and detection to block threats outside the network.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 5
When creating an SSL policy on Cisco FirePOWER, which three options do you have
A. do not decrypt
B. trust
C. allow
D. block with reset
E. block
F. encrypt
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 6
With Cisco FirePOWER Threat Defense software, which interface mode do you configure to passively receive traffic that passes the appliance?
A. transparent
B. routed
C. passive
D. inline set
E. inline tap
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which two statement about Cisco Firepower file and intrusion inspection under control policies are true? 300-210 dumps (Choose two.)
A. File inspection occurs before intrusion prevention.
B. Intrusion Inspection occurs after traffic is blocked by file type.
C. File and intrusion drop the same packet.
D. Blocking by file type takes precedence over malware inspection and blocking
E. File inspection occurs after file discovery
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 8
Which Cisco FirePOWER setting is used to reduce the number of events received in a period of time and avoid being overwhelmed?
A. thresholding
B. rate-limiting
C. limiting
D. correlation
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which Cisco Web Security Appliance feature enables the appliance to block suspicious traffic on all of its ports and IP addresses?
A. explicit forward mode
B. Layer 4 Traffic Monitor
C. transparent mode
D. Secure Web Proxy
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
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300-210 dumps
300-210 dumps
300-210 dumps
What is the maximum message size that the Cisco Email Security Appliance will accept from the violet.public domain?
A. 1 KB
B. 100 KB
C. 1 MB
D. 10 MB
E. 100 MB
F. Unlimited
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Which option is a benefit of Cisco Email Security virtual appliance over the Cisco ESA appliance?
A. global threat intelligence updates from Talos
B. reduced space and power requirements
C. outbound message protection
D. automated administration
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
An engineer must architect an AMP private cloud deployment. What is the benefit of running in air-gaped mode?
A. Internet connection is not required for disposition.
B. Database sync time is reduced.
C. Disposition queries are done on AMP appliances.
D. A dedicated server is needed to run amp-sync.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Which Cisco ESA predefined sender group uses parameter-matching to reject senders?
A. WHITELIST
B. BLACKLIST
C. UNKNOWNLIST
D. SUSPECTLIST
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
A network engineer wants to deploy a virtual cisco ESA and wants protection against email-based threats, email encryption, and clustering. Which software license bundle must the network engineer purchase to access these components?
A. cisco email security Premium
B. cisco email security Hybrid Essential
C. cisco email security advansed
D. cisco email security Gateway
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
Which type of server is required to communicate with a third-party DLP solution?
A. an ICAP-capable proxy server
B. a PKI certificate server
C. an HTTP server
D. an HTTPS server
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
Which Cisco technology is a customizable web-based alerting service designed to report threats and vulnerabilities?
A. Cisco Security Intelligence Operations
B. Cisco Security IntelliShield Alert Manager Service
C. Cisco Security Optimization Service
D. Cisco Software Application Support Service
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
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300-210 dumps
Which three statements about the Cisco IPS appliance configurations are true? (Choose three.)
A. The maximum number of denied attackers is set to 10000.
B. The block action duraton is set to 3600 seconds.
C. The Meta Event Generator is globally enabled.
D. Events Summarization is globally disabled.
E. Threat Rating Adjustment is globally disabled.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 18
What is the correct deployment for an IPS appliance in a network where traffic identified as threat traffic should be blocked and all traffic is blocked if the IPS fails? 300-210 dumps
A. Inline; fail open
B. Inline; fail closed
C. Promiscuous; fail open
D. Promiscuous; fail closed
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
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300-210 dumps
Which signature definition is virtual sensor 0 assigned to use?
A. rules0
B. vs0
C. sig0
D. ad0
E. ad1
F. sigl
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
Which port is used for CLI Secure shell access?
A. Port 23
B. Port 25
C. Port 22
D. Port 443
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 21
An ASA with an IPS module must be configured to drop traffic matching IPS signatures and block all traffic if the module fails. Which describes the correct configuration?
A. Inline Mode, Permit Traffic
B. Inline Mode, Close Traffic
C. Promiscuous Mode, Permit Traffic
D. Promiscuous Mode, Close Traffic
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 22
Which Cisco monitoring solution displays information and important statistics for the security devices in a network?
A. Cisco Prime LAN Management
B. Cisco ASDM Version 5.2
C. Cisco Threat Defense Solution
D. Syslog Server
E. TACACS+
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 23
Which three options are valid event actions for a Cisco IPS? (Choose three.)
A. deny-packet-inline
B. deny-attack-reset
C. produce-verbose-alert
D. log-attacker-packets
E. deny-packet-internal
F. request-block-drop-connection
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 24
During initial configuration, the Cisco ASA can be configured to drop all traffic if the ASA CX SSP fails by using which command in a policy-map?
A. cxsc fail
B. cxsc fail-close
C. cxsc fail-open
D. cxssp fail-close
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 25
Which set of commands changes the FTP client timeout when the sensor is communicating with an FTP server?
A. sensor# configure terminal
sensor(config)# service sensor
sensor(config-hos)# network-settings
sensor(config-hos-net)# ftp-timeout 500
B. sensor# configure terminal
sensor(config)# service host sensor(config-hos)# network-settings parameter ftp sensor(config-hos- net)# ftp-timeout 500
C. sensor# configure terminal
sensor(config)# service host
sensor(config-hos)# network-settings
sensor(config-hos-net)# ftp-timeout 500
D. sensor# configure terminal
sensor(config)# service network
sensor(config-hos)# network-settings
sensor(config-hos-net)# ftp-timeout 500
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 26
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300-210 dumps
What is the status of OS Identification?
A. It is only enabled to identify “Cisco IOS” OS using statically mapped OS fingerprinting
B. OS mapping information will not be used for Risk Rating calculations.
C. It is configured to enable OS mapping and ARR only for the 10.0.0.0/24 network.
D. It is enabled for passive OS fingerprinting for all networks.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 27
Which three zones are used for anomaly detection? (Choose three.)
A. Internal zone
B. External zone
C. Illegal zone
D. Inside zone
E. Outside zone
F. DMZ zone
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 28
300-210 dumps What are the initial actions that can be performed on an incoming SMTP session by the workqueue of a Cisco Email Security Appliance?
A. Accept, Reject, Relay, TCPRefuse
B. LDAP Verification, Envelope Sender Verification, Bounce Verification, Alias Table Verification
C. Recipient Access Table Verification, Host DNS Verification, Masquerading, Spam Payload Check
D. SMTP Authentication, SBRS Verification, Sendergroup matching, DNS host verification
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
Which signature engine is responsible for ICMP inspection on Cisco IPS?
A. AIC Engine
B. Fixed Engine
C. Service Engine
D. Atomic IP Engine
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 30
Refer to the exhibit.
300-210 dumps
What are two facts about the interface that you can determine from the given output? (Choose two.)
A. A Cisco Flexible NetFlow monitor is attached to the interface.
B. A quality of service policy is attached to the interface.
C. Cisco Application Visibility and Control limits throughput on the interface.
D. Feature activation array is active on the interface.
Correct Answer: AB

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Useful IBM certifications II 000-741 Dumps Exam Practice Questions And Answers (1-20)

QUESTION 1
A customer has a mixed iSeries, pSeries, Sun and Windows server environment: Three Exchange servers each with 1.8TB database Five iSeries Domino servers each with 1TB database 10TB Sun/SAP cluster 20TB of pSeries requirement Annual growth rate of 12TB per year Which solution provides them the most cost effective solution for three years?
A.A DS4500 with 300GB drives
B.A DS6800 with 300GB drives
C.A DS8100 with 300GB drives
D.An SVC with DS4100 with 250GB drives, and a DS6800 with 300GB drives
Correct Answers: C

QUESTION 2
A customer is about to install ten Microsoft Windows servers, three Sun servers, and five AIX servers, all with Fibre Channel interfaces. A reliability requirement is to have two Fibre Channel interfaces in each of the servers. Which of the following is required?
A.IBM Subsystem Device Driver
B.IBM TotalStorage SAN File System
C.IBM TotalStorage Productivity Center for Data
D.IBM TotalStorage Productivity Center for Disk
Correct Answers: A

QUESTION 3
A customer has a rapidly expanding data warehouse application installed on an MVS-attached EMC storage system. They are running out of capacity and encountering performance degradation. Before proposing that they migrate to an IBM TotalStorage DS8000 model, which report should be used to identify potential performance bottlenecks?
A.ACS
B.RMF
C.DFSMS
D.VTSSTATS
Correct Answers: B

QUESTION 4
A customer with a large number of UNIX servers has an IBM TotalStorage Enterprise Storage Server Model 800 for a 90-day trial. The ESS delivers excellent performance for most of the customer’s tests, but does not meet the customer’s expectations for a critical benchmark that heavily loads a few key volumes on one array. Which of the following changes should the storage specialist suggest to improve performance for this critical benchmark?
A.Add Parallel Access Volumes
B.Add Arrays Across Loops
C.Turn off RAID-5 sparing
D.Turn off cache and NVS
Correct Answers: B

QUESTION 5
A customer’s IT department now mandates a fast backup and restoration process be in place before an application is deployed. What would be the simplest and most effective option to satisfy this mandatory requirement?
A.Deploy PPRC
B.Implement FlashCopy
C.Install 10TB of additional disk space
D.Consolidate all server disk space with RAID-5
Correct Answers: B

QUESTION 6
A customer has an IBM TotalStorage DS6800 and an IBM TotalStorage DS8100 at their computing center. They want to install a disaster recovery site 600 kilometers from their center using a DS8300. 000-741 dumps Which of the following IBM Resiliency Family solution offerings should be implemented?
A.Metro Mirror
B.Global Copy
C.Global Mirror
D.FlashCopy
Correct Answers: C

QUESTION 7
What is the minimum number of FCP/FICON host adapters required for a IBM TotalStorage DS8000 high availability configuration?
A.2
B.4
C.8
D.16
Correct Answers: A

QUESTION 8
A customer has an installed IBM TotalStorage Enterprise Storage Server (ESS) Model 800 with 20TB of storage, 32GB cache and ESCON channels. The customer is beginning to experience throughput performance issues and has no additional ESCON channel expansion ability. To best address these performance considerations, which of the following steps should be suggested?
A.Add a second ESS to allow additional ESCON connections.
B.Convert the installed ESS from ESCON to FICON connections.
C.Increase the cache on the ESS from 32GB to 48GB.
D.Add additional eight-packs to provide more disk arms and increase performance.
Correct Answers: B

QUESTION 9
An IBM Business Partner is analyzing customer requirements for a disk subsystem. To determine that the IBM TotalStorage DS8000 can operate in the customer’s current host environment, what is the best source of information for the storage specialist to use?
A.PartnerInfo
B.PartnerLine
C.Offline Configuration Tool
D.The IBM TotalStorage Web Site
Correct Answers: D

QUESTION 10
A long-term IBM disk customer would like to compare the DS8000 product family to the Hitachi Data Systems TagmaStore. Which IBM storage products compare most favorably?
A.DS8300 and SAN Volume Controller
B.DS8000 and Tivoli Storage Manager
C.DS8000 and IBM TotalStorage 3584 Tape Library
D.DS8100 and IBM TotalStorage Productivity Center for Disk
Correct Answers: A

QUESTION 11
A customer recently implemented a data warehousing application. What disk subsystem attribute is most important for this type of application?
A.Read performance and scalability
B.Large cache capability
C.Remote copy function
D.Block and file input/output capability
Correct Answers: A

QUESTION 12
A storage specialist is proposing an IBM TotalStorage DS6800 to replace a five-year old disk system. Which of the following would provide an effective cost justification for migration to DS6800?
A.Centralized management
B.Multi-platform attach capability
C.Four year warranty
D.FlashCopy feature
Correct Answers: C

QUESTION 13
A customer has an existing IBM TotalStorage DS8100 Storage Server with 12 Megapacks of 73GB disks and 16 ESCON Adapters. How many additional FICON adapters and Megapacks can be installed in the expansion frame?
A.0 adapters and 12 Megapacks
B.4 adapters and 16 Megapacks
C.8 adapters and 4 Megapacks
D.16 adapters and 8 Megapacks
Correct Answers: A

QUESTION 14
A customer’s database application failed during a recent maintenance window. When the IBM TotalStorage DS6800 controller automatically rebooted, the database became inconsistent and failed. After the database was made consistent, the customer asked the storage specialist to recommend a method to test path failover on a test server. Which of the following would be the first step of the implementation plan?
A.Install Redundant Dual Active Controllers (RDAC)
B.Install Subsystem Device Driver (SDD)
C.Unblock the switch port
D.Monitor the database application
Correct Answers: B

QUESTION 15
A customer has recently installed an IBM TotalStorage DS8100 in their production environment.
They have 5TB of capacity assigned to an IBM eServer zSeries host and 5TB of capacity assigned to pSeries servers. The customer would like to make point-in-time copies for 2TB of zSeries storage and 2TB of pSeries storage. What is the correct licensing option to recommend?
A.2TB
B.4TB
C.5TB
D.10TB
Correct Answers: D

QUESTION 16
Which of the following is the most important action to ensure customer satisfaction when performing the implementation of an IBM SAN fabric with two IBM TotalStorage DS8300 units?
A.Develop clear objectives that map to expectations.
B.Complete a Solutions Assurance Review.
C.Ensure that power and space are available in the Data Center.
D.Get the customer to sign a completion form.
Correct Answers: A

QUESTION 17
A company acquired two other companies and is consolidating their order entry application systems into an existing common disk storage pool on a single SAN fabric. 000-741 dumps During the consolidation, half of the users of one of the order entry systems could not access their application. The users who had access experienced slow performance. What is the first action the engineer should take to determine the source of the problem?
A.Review SAN configuration, connectivity and zoning.
B.Review application parameters for contention or tuning problems.
C.Use internal disk monitoring tools to determine the problems source.
D.Call the SAN and disk vendors to perform a healthcheck on their hardware.
Correct Answers: A

QUESTION 18
A customer has an IBM Enterprise Storage Server Model 800 with 10 eight-packs formatted as Fixed Block volumes. There is not enough unused space on the RAID ranks to act as FlashCopy targets for the existing LUNs. Which of the following should the storage specialist propose to enable the customer to shorten their backup window?
A.Add FlashCopy Version 1 and use the full copy option
B.Add FlashCopy Version 2 and additional capacity
C.Add FlashCopy Version 1 and use NOCOPY option
D.Add FlashCopy Version 2 and use incremental FlashCopy
Correct Answers: B

QUESTION 19
During a review of environmental requirements before ordering an IBM z890 server and IBM TotalStorage DS8300, the customer states that the available power is 220 volts AC. Which feature should be included with the DS8300 order?
A.Low voltage
B.High Voltage
C.Remote zSeries Power Control
D.Remote force power off switch
Correct Answers: A

QUESTION 20
An IBM TotalStorage DS6800 is being shipped to the customer. Who should set up the logical configuration?
A.The IBM Field Technical Sales Specialist
B.The customer’s system administrator
C.The IBM Support Service Representative
D.The customer’s operations manager
Correct Answers: B

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High quality Cisco CCDP 300-101 dumps exam questions and answers (1-20)

QUESTION 1
Which option is one way to mitigate symmetric routing on an active/active firewall setup for TCP-based connections?
A. performing packet captures
B. disabling asr-group commands on interfaces that are likely to receive asymetric traffic
C. replacing them with redundant routers and allowing load balancing
D. disabling stateful TCP checks
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which option is invalid when configuring Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding?
A. allow self ping to router
B. allow default route
C. allow based on ACL match
D. source reachable via both
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which traffic characteristic is the reason that UDP traffic that carries voice and video is assigned to the queue only on a link that is at least 768 kbps?
A. typically is not fragmented
B. typically is fragmented
C. causes windowing
D. causes excessive delays for video traffic
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Refer to the following configuration command.
router(config)# ip nat inside source static tcp 172.16.10.8 8080 172.16.10.8 80
Which statement about the command is true? 300-101 dumps
A. Any packet that is received in the inside interface with a source IP port address of 172.16.10.8:80 is translated to 172.16.10.8:8080.
B. Any packet that is received in the inside interface with a source IP port address of 172.16.10.8:8080 is translated to 172.16.10.8:80.
C. The router accepts only a TCP connection from port 8080 and port 80 on IP address 172.16.10.8
D. Any packet that is received in the inside interface with a source IP address of 172.16.10.8 is redirected to port 8080 or port 80.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
What type of IPv6 packet will indicate traffic from single host and single node?
A. multicast
B. unicast
C. broadcast
D. anycast
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about the command output is true?
300-101 dumps
A. The router exports flow information to 10.10.10.1 on UDP port 5127.
B. The router receives flow information from 10.10.10.2 on UDP port 5127.
C. The router exports flow information to 10.10.10.1 on TCP port 5127.
D. The router receives flow information from 10.10.10.2 on TCP port 5127.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which three IP SLA performance metrics can you use to monitor enterprise-class networks? (Choose three.)
A. Packet loss
B. Delay
C. bandwidth
D. Connectivity
E. Reliability
F. traps
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 8
What is the administrative distance for EBGP?
A. 200
B. 30
C. 70
D. 20
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
A network engineer is configuring the router for NetFlow data exporting. What is required in order for NDE to begin exporting data?
A. Source
B. Flow mask
C. Destination
D. Interface type
E. Traffic type
F. NetFlow version
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
A network administrator creates a static route that points directly to a multi-access interface, instead of the next-hop IP address. 300-101 dumps The administrator notices that Cisco Express Forwarding ARP requests are being sent to all destinations. Which issue might this configuration create?
A. Low bandwidth usage
B. High memory usage
C. Cisco Express Forwarding routing loop
D. High bandwidth usage
E. IP route interference
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.
300-101 dumps
The DHCP client is unable to receive a DHCP address from the DHCP server. Consider the following output:
hostname RouterB
!
interface fastethernet 0/0
ip address 172.31.1.1 255.255.255.0
interface serial 0/0
ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.252
!
ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 10.1.1.2
Which configuration is required on the Router B fastethernet 0/0 port in order to allow the DHCP client to successfully receive an IP address from the DHCP server?
A. RouterB(config-if)# ip helper-address 172.16.1.2
B. RouterB(config-if)# ip helper-address 172.16.1.1
C. RouterB(config-if)# ip helper-address 172.31.1.1
D. RouterB(config-if)# ip helper-address 255.255.255.255
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which is the asymmetric Rotuing?
A. active/active firewall
B. active/passive firwall
C. single path
D. using VRRP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit.
300-101 dumps
Routers R2, R3, R4, and R5 have OSPF enabled. What should be configured on the routers in area 1 to ensure that all default summary routes and redistributed EIGRP routes will be forwarded from R6 to area 1, and only a default route for all other OSPF routes will be forwarded from R5 to area 1.
A. R5(config-router)# area 1 stubR6(config-router)# area 1 stub
B. R5(config-router)# area 1 stub no-summaryR6(config-router)# area 1 stub
C. R5(config-router)# area 1 nssaR6(config-router)# area 1 nssa
D. R5(config-router)# area 1 nssa no-summaryR6(config-router)# area 1 nssa
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Which of the following NSAP addresses is a private, locally administered address?
A. 39.0f01.0002.0000.0c00.1111.00
B. 48.0f01.0002.0000.0c00.1111.00
C. 49.0004.30ac.0000.3090.c7df.00
D. 52.0f01.0002.0000.0c00.1111.00
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
Which two phases of DMVPN allow to spoke sites to create dynamic tunnels to one another? (Choose Two)
A. Phase 1
B. Phase 2
C. Phase 3
D. Phase 4
E. Phase 5
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 16
Which two statements about 6to4 tunneling are accurate? 300-101 dumps (Choose two.)
A. Prepending a reserved IPv6 code to the hexadecimal representation of 192.168.0.1 facilitates 6to4 tunneling.
B. Each 6to4 site receives a /48 prefix in a 6to4 tunnel.
C. 2002::/48 is the address range specifically assigned to 6to4.
D. Prepending 0x2002 with the IPv4 address creates an IPv6 address that is used in 6to4 tunneling.
E. 6to4 is a manual tunnel method.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 17
Which three statements are true when configuring redistribution for OSPF? (Choose three)
A. The default metric is 10.
B. The default metric is 20.
C. The default metric type is 2.
D. The default metric type is 1.
E. Subnets do not redistribute by default.
F. Subnets redistribute by default.
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 18
R3#show run | include defaultip default-network 140.140.0.0 ip default-network 130.130.0.0 R3#show ip route | begin Gateway Gateway of last resort is 0.0.0.0 to network 130.130.0.0 116.0.0.0/8 is variably subnetted, 5 subnets, 3 masks C 116.16.37.0/30 is directly connected, Serial1/0.2 C 116.16.32.0/30 is directly connected, Serial2/0.2 C 116.16.34.0/28 is directly connected, Serial1/0.1 C 116.16.35.0/28 is directly connected, Serial2/0.1 S 116.0.0.0/8 [1/0] via 116.16.34.0
* 140.140.0.0/32 is subnetted, 3 subnets O 140.140.1.1 [110/65] via 116.16.34.4, 00:14:54, Serial1/0.1 O 140.140.3.1 [110/65] via 116.16.34.4, 00:14:54, Serial1/0.1 O 140.140.2.1 [110/65] via 116.16.34.4, 00:14:54, Serial1/0.1
* 130.130.0.0/16 is variably subnetted, 4 subnets, 2 masks D* 130.130.0.0/16 is a summary, 00:30:04, Null0 C 130.130.1.0/24 is directly connected, Ethernet0/0 C 130.130.2.0/24 is directly connected, Ethernet0/1 C 130.130.3.0/24 is directly connected, Ethernet1/0 D 150.150.0.0/16 [90/679936] via 116.16.35.5, 00:02:58, Serial2/0.1 Refer to the exhibit. Why is the 140.140.0.0 network not used as the gateway of last resort even though it is configured first?
A. The last default-network statement will always be preferred.
B. A route to the 140.140.0.0 network does not exist in the routing table.
C. Default-network selection will always prefer the statement with the lowest IP address.
D. A router will load balance across multiple default-networks; repeatedly issuing the show ip route command would show the gateway of last resort changing between the two networks.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
Which two reason for IP SLA tracking failure are likely true (choose two)
A. The source-interface is configured incorrectly
B. The destination must be 172.30.30.2 for icmp-echo
C. A route back to the R1 LAN network is missing in R2
D. The default routehas wrong next hop IP address
E. The threshold value is wrong
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 20
A network engineer receives reports about poor voice quality issues at a remote site. The network engineer does a packet capture and sees out-of-order packets being delivered. Which option can cause the VOIP quality to suffer?
A. traffic over backup redundant links
B. misconfigured voice vlan
C. speed duplex link issues
D. load balancing over redundant links
Correct Answer: D

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220-801 dumps
QUESTION 1
A technician completing a server room build out encounters a bundle of un-terminated network cables that are not labeled. Which of the following tools would be the BEST to determine which devices the cables are run to?
A. Toner probe
B. Multimeter
C. Cable tester
D. Loopbackplug
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
A smartphone user experiences difficulty removing the back cover of the device. Once finally removed, the battery appears to have swollen. The battery is still functional, but requires more frequent charging than it used to. Which of the following should the user do NEXT?
A. Remove the battery and let it cool for 24 hours
B. Fully discharge and then fully recharge the battery
C. Short the battery terminals with a paper clip
D. Replace the battery with a new one
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which of the following cable connection types is an example of a mini DIN?
A. BNC
B. PS/2
C. RCA
D. DB9
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
A technician is troubleshooting a desktop PC. When the power button is pressed, the fan momentarily spins and the PC does not boot. Which of the following components is MOST likely the problem?
A. CPU
B. CMOS battery
C. RAM
D. Power supply
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
An example of built-in system diagnostics includes which of the following? 220-801 dumps
A. POST cards
B. Indicator lights
C. TPM
D. BIOS settings
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Which of the following cable types should be installed to minimize toxic fumes in the event of a fire?
A. Fiber
B. STP CAT6
C. Plenum
D. Coaxial
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which of the following memory types is used exclusively in laptops?
A. DIMM
B. DDR3
C. RAMBUS
D. SODIMM
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which of the following socket types is for an Intel CPU?
A. F
B. 940
C. AM3
D. 1156
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which of the following cable types has extra shielding built into the cable to guard against EMI?
A. UTP
B. Multimode
C. STP
D. Single-mode
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
A technician is helping set up a new networking closet and notices that the humidity level is low in the room. Which of the following should be installed FIRST before rack mounting equipment?
A. A dehumidifier
B. A fire suppression system
C. ESD strap
D. Grounding bars
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Which of the following devices is MOST likely to outperform a 15,000 rpm SAS hard drive in read speed? 220-801 dumps
A. Compact flash
B. SSD
C. Tape
D. SD
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which of the following is an example of an APIPA address?
A. 4.2.2.2
B. 10.23.145 90
C. 169.254.44.157
D. 192.168.32.59
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
A technician is building a custom gaming computer. Which of the following is the FASTEST memory the technician can use?
A. DDR2 CAS7
B. DDR3 CAS9
C. DDR3 CAS10
D. DDR3 CAS11
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
Which of the following are steps to take before replacing or updating the memory in a laptop? (Select TWO).
A. Unplug the AC power adapter
B. Remove the keyboard and touchpad
C. Separate the screen from the base
D. Remove the battery
E. Remove all of the screws from the bottom of the case
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 15
An end user is designing a PC with a clear acrylic access panel to show off the insides. The user wants the inside to stay cool, but as dust free as possible. Which of the following would BEST meet this scenario?
A. Create a positive pressure air flow with unfiltered intakes and filtered exhausts
B. Create a positive pressure air flow with filtered intakes and unfiltered exhausts
C. Create a negative pressure air flow with unfiltered intakes and unfiltered exhausts
D. Create a negative pressure air flow with filtered exhausts and unfiltered exhausts
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
A technician observes another technician trying to steal a company laptop. 220-801 dumps Which of the following should the first technician do NEXT?
A. Confront the technician stealing the laptop
B. Preserve the laptop for evidence
C. Report through proper channels
D. Document the incident
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Which of the following is a private class B IP address?
A. 10.0.15.1
B. 172.16.0.1
C. 172.33.1.1
D. 192.168.1.1
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
A CAD/CAM user requires faster onscreen refresh rates. Which of the following slots allows for faster graphic performance?
A. AGP
B. AGP x8
C. PCIe
D. PCI
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Which of the following expansion cards would provide support for additional internal storage?
A. Video capture
B. Modem
C. USB port
D. RAID controller
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20
A consultant has been asked to install the brightest possible projector into an office conference room that has a lot of natural sunlight. Which of the following specifications would BEST meet the client\’s needs?
A. Highest possible resolution
B. High lumens
C. High contrast
D. HDMI 1.4 compatibility
Correct Answer: B

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200-155 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which statement about slow inter VLAN forwarding is true?
A. The VLAN is experiencing slowness in the point-to-point collisionless connection.
B. The VLANs are experiencing slowness because multiple devices are connected to the same hub.
C. The local VLAN is working normally, but traffic to the alternate VLAN is forwarded slower than expected.
D. The entire VLAN is experiencing slowness.
E. The VLANs are experiencing slowness due to a duplex mismatch.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 2
What is the advantage of using a multipoint interface instead of point-to-point subinterfaces when configuring a Frame Relay hub in a hub-and-spoke topology?
A. It avoids split-horizon issues with distance vector routing protocols.
B. IP addresses can be conserved if VLSM is not being used for subnetting.
C. A multipoint interface offers greater security compared to point-to-point subinterface configurations.
D. The multiple IP network addresses required for a multipoint interface provide greater addressing flexibility over pointto-point configurations.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
What are three values that must be the same within a sequence of packets for Netflow to consider them a network flow? (Choose three.)
A. source IP address
B. source MAC address
C. egress interface
D. ingress interface
E. destination IP address
F. IP next-hop
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 4
What occurs on a Frame Relay network when the CIR is exceeded?
A. All TCP traffic is marked discard eligible.
B. All UDP traffic is marked discard eligible and a BECN is sent.
C. All TCP traffic is marked discard eligible and a BECN is sent.
D. All traffic exceeding the CIR is marked discard eligible.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which command is used to enable CHAP authentication, 200-155 dumps with PAP as the fallback method, on a serial interface?
A. Router(config-if)# ppp authentication chap fallback ppp
B. Router(config-if)# ppp authentication chap pap
C. Router(config-if)# authentication ppp chap fallback ppp
D. Router(config-if)# authentication ppp chap pap
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Which port state is introduced by Rapid-PVST?
A. learning
B. listening
C. discarding
D. forwarding
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
The output of the show frame-relay pvc command shows andquot;PVC STATUS = INACTIVEandquot;. What does this mean?
A. The PVC is configured correctly and is operating normally, but no data packets have been detected for more than five minutes.
B. The PVC is configured correctly, is operating normally, and is no longer actively seeking the address of the remote router.
C. The PVC is configured correctly, is operating normally, and is waiting for interesting traffic to trigger a call to the remote router.
D. The PVC is configured correctly on the local switch, but there is a problem on the remote end of the PVC.
E. The PVC is not configured on the local switch.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which EIGRP for IPv6 command can you enter to view the link-local addresses of the neighbors of a device?
A. show ipv6 eigrp 20 interfaces
B. show ipv6 route eigrp
C. show ipv6 eigrp neighbors
D. show ip eigrp traffic
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Which two switch states are valid for 802.1w? (Choose two.)
A. listening
B. backup
C. disabled
D. learning
E. discarding
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 10
Which parameter would you tune to affect the selection of a static route as a backup, when a dynamic protocol is also being used?
A. hop count
B. administrative distance
C. link bandwidth
D. link delay
E. link cost
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
A router has two Fast Ethernet interfaces and needs to connect to four VLANs in the local network. How can you accomplish this task, 200-155 dumps using the fewest physical interfaces and without decreasing network performance?
A. Use a hub to connect the four VLANS with a Fast Ethernet interface on the router.
B. Add a second router to handle the VLAN traffic.
C. Add two more Fast Ethernet interfaces.
D. Implement a router-on-a-stick configuration.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Which statement about MPLS is true?
A. It operates in Layer 1.
B. It operates between Layer 2 and Layer 3.
C. It operates in Layer 3.
D. it operates in Layer 2.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which of the following correctly describe steps in the OSI data encapsulation process? (Choose two.)
A. The transport layer divides a data stream into segments and may add reliability and flow control information.
B. The data link layer adds physical source and destination addresses and an FCS to the segment.
C. Packets are created when the network layer encapsulates a frame with source and destination host addresses and protocol-related control information.
D. Packets are created when the network layer adds Layer 3 addresses and control information to a segment.
E. The presentation layer translates bits into voltages for transmission across the physical link.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 14
The command show frame-relay map gives the following output:
Serial 0 (up): ip 192.168.151.4 dlci 122, dynamic, broadcast, status defined, active
Which statements represent what is shown?(Choose three.)
A. 192.168.151.4 represents the IP address of the remote router
B. 192.168.151.4 represents the IP address of the local serial interface
C. DLCI 122 represents the interface of the remote serial interface
D. DLCI 122 represents the local number used to connect to the remote address
E. broadcast indicates that a dynamic routing protocol such as RIP v1 can send packets across this PVC
F. active indicates that the ARP process is working
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 15
Which Cisco platform can verify ACLs?
A. Cisco Prime Infrastructure
B. Cisco Wireless LAN Controller
C. Cisco APIC-EM
D. Cisco IOS-XE
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
In an Ethernet network, under what two scenarios can devices transmit? (Choose two.)
A. when they receive a special token
B. when there is a carrier
C. when they detect no other devices are sending
D. when the medium is idle
E. when the server grants access
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 17
Which option describes what a switch does after it items that a host has connected to a switch port? 200-155 dumps
A. Flood the frame only on all of its trunk ports.
B. Create a MAC to port mapping entry in MAC table.
C. Flood the frame only on all of its access ports.
D. Discard the frame.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
A network interface port has collision detection and carrier sensing enabled on a shared twisted pair network. From this statement, what is known about the network interface port?
A. This is a 10 Mb/s switch port.
B. This is a 100 Mb/s switch port.
C. This is an Ethernet port operating at half duplex.
D. This is an Ethernet port operating at full duplex.
E. This is a port on a network interface card in a PC.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
An engineer is configuring a new MDS switch. The switch is powered on, the customer connects to the console, and the initial setup script is started.
Which two items can be configured during this setup process?
A. default port-channel mode
B. default port VSAN membership
C. default switch port interface state
D. default zone mode
E. default storage VDC
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 20
What are two drawbacks of implementing a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.)
A. the sequencing and acknowledgment of link-state packets
B. the requirement for a hierarchical IP addressing scheme for optimal functionality
C. the high volume of link-state advertisements in a converged network
D. the high demand on router resources to run the link-state routing algorithm
E. the large size of the topology table listing all advertised routes in the converged network
Correct Answer: BD

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1Y0-A22 dumps
QUESTION 1
An administrator needs to validate the data store in a XenApp farm.
The administrator should use the DSCHECK command with the /CLEAN parameter after _______. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. restoring the data store
B. backing up the data store
C. restarting the XenApp server
D. restarting the IMA Service on the data collector
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Scenario: An administrator in a XenApp farm is in the process of replacing a couple of the failed XenApp servers in the farm. The administrator has been instructed to execute the DSCHECK command once the servers have been replaced.
What will be the outcome of executing the DSCHECK command?
A. Recover the local data store
B. Purge corrupt local host cache entries
C. Purge the data store of incorrect entries
D. Display information about servers in the farm
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Scenario: An administrator migrated the data store of a Citrix XenApp 6.5 server farm from Microsoft SQL Server Express on XenApp server XAS01 to a separate Microsoft SQL Server 2008 cluster.
The administrator tested the move, noted that the cluster is running well and found no errors. None of the XenApp 6.5 servers can connect to the new location of the data store.
In this scenario, when should the administrator use the DSCHECK command?
A. After restarting the data collector
B. After using the DSMAINT command
C. After running the QFARM command
D. After using the CHANGE CLIENT command
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
When should an administrator use the DSCHECK command line utility?
A. To fix errors on server entries in the data store
B. To fix errors related to configuring Proxy Authentication
C. To fix errors in the local host cache on each XenApp 6.5 server
D. To generate a report of logon/logoff activity for a XenApp 6.5 server
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Scenario: An administrator has configured a XenApp Web site and customized the footer text of the site to reflect the required customer-specific hyperlinks. 1Y0-A22 dumps The administrator now plans to back up the site.
Which file must the administrator back up?
A. Default.ica
B. Web.config
C. Repair.SFO
D. WebInterface.conf
E. LoginMainFormFoot.inc
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
After repairing a XenApp Web site, an administrator notices that the customized footer text is missing.
Which file must the administrator restore from backup?
A. Default.ica
B. Web.config
C. Repair.SFO
D. WebInterface.conf
E. LoginMainFormFoot.inc
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Scenario: An administrator used the Server Configuration Tool to install a Microsoft SQL Server Express data store database automatically as part of a XenApp 6.5 farm installation. The initial configuration consisted of a single zone and servers in a single physical location. The administrator added an equal number of servers and users to the farm at a second physical location over a WAN.
Which action would require the administrator to migrate the data store database from Microsoft SQL Server Express to Microsoft SQL Server?
A. Adding an additional zone to the farm
B. Replicating the data store to a second database server
C. Moving the data store from local storage to SAN storage
D. Adding the configuration logging database to the same SQL server
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Scenario: An administrator used the Server Configuration Tool to install a Microsoft SQL Server Express data store database automatically as part of a XenApp 6.5 farm installation. The initial configuration consisted of a single zone and servers in a single physical location. The administrator added an equal number of servers and users to the farm at a second physical location over a WAN.
Which action would require the administrator to migrate the data store database from Microsoft SQL Server Express to Microsoft SQL Server?
A. Adding an additional zone to the farm
B. Mirroring the SQL database to a second SQL server
C. Moving the database from local storage to SAN storage
D. Adding the configuration logging database to the same SQL server
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Scenario: An administrator used the Server Configuration Tool to install a Microsoft SQL Server Express data store database automatically as part of a XenApp 6.5 farm installation. The initial configuration consisted of a single zone and servers in a single physical location. The administrator added an equal number of servers and users to the farm at a second physical location over a WAN.
Which new requirement would require the administrator to migrate the data store database from Microsoft SQL Server Express to Microsoft SQL Server?
A. Implementing database mirroring
B. Adding an additional zone to the farm
C. Moving the database from local storage to SAN storage
D. Adding the configuration logging database to the same SQL server
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Scenario: A XenApp Administrator in an enterprise environment plans to use Access Gateway to secure ICA connections from the external network. The Access Gateway is in the DMZ using ICA proxy mode.
Which two locations for these components would be the most secure? (Choose two.)
A. Place the XML broker in the DMZ.
B. Place the Web Interface in the DMZ.
C. Place the XML broker in the internal network.
D. Place the Web Interface in the internal network.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 11
Scenario: A XenApp Administrator in a small environment plans to use Access Gateway to secure ICA connections from an external network. 1Y0-A22 dumps The Access Gateway is in the DMZ in ICA proxy mode. The environment requires minimum configuration to secure connections from the Web Interface server to the XML broker server.
Where should the administrator place the Web Interface server and XML broker?
A. On one server and place the server in the DMZ
B. On separate servers and place the servers in the DMZ
C. On one server and place the server in the internal network
D. On separate servers and place the servers in the internal network
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
In order for the Web Interface server to correctly work with the Access Gateway Enterprise Edition configuration in the attached exhibit,
1Y0-A22 dumps
the administrator must configure the authentication point at __________. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. LDAP
B. RADIUS
C. the Web Interface
D. the Access Gateway
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Which two methods can an administrator use to configure Web Interface in high availability mode? 1Y0-A22 dumps (Choose two.)
A. Windows Cluster services
B. NetScaler Load Balancing feature
C. Windows Load Balancing services
D. NetScaler Access Gateway feature
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 14
A XenApp Administrator plans to use Citrix NetScaler to load balance Web Interface servers.
Which persistence setting should the administrator choose to correctly configure high availability for Web Interface?
A. NOCE
B. DESTIP
C. SOURCEIP
D. COOKIEINSERT
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
Scenario: A XenApp Administrator of a 100-server farm needs to apply Citrix and vendor hotfixes on a monthly basis, and a server restart is always required. The administrator needs to automate this process but does NOT have a third party tool available.
Which two tasks should the administrator complete to guarantee that updates will be applied successfully? (Choose two.)
A. Prohibit logons and notify users.
B. Restart the server and install hotfixes.
C. Apply application load evaluators and notify users.
D. Log off all users from servers and schedule a .EXE setup file installation.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 16
Scenario: The Citrix Administrator of a large farm needs to perform a health check after a scheduled update window. The health check should alert the administrator when the server is unavailable to users.
Which action must the administrator take to perform a health check after a scheduled update window?
A. Use PowerShell SDK scripts to verify the applied updates.
B. Use MFCOM to check applied updates and enabled logons.
C. Use MFCOM scripts to verify enabled logons and open Citrix ports.
D. Use PowerShell SDK scripts to check enabled logons and open Citrix ports.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
Scenario: A new administrator has been asked to ensure that all servers meet the minimum required patching level. A test server has been used to confirm that all patches can be deployed to the production servers. Testing has identified that production servers are NOT at the same patch level.
Which action can the administrator take to identify which patches are required on each production server?
A. Use the Citrix Computer policy wizard.
B. Use the Citrix AppCenter History node.
C. Use the Citrix AppCenter Configuration Tools node.
D. Use the Prepare this server for imaging and provisioning task.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
Scenario: A XenApp Administrator needs to deploy a small MSI package across all XenApp servers. This package requires a restart which needs to be scheduled to ensure that all servers do NOT restart at once. 1Y0-A22 dumps
Which action must the administrator take to fulfill the requirement?
A. Set up Installation Manager.
B. Configure Health Monitoring and Recovery.
C. Create a maintenance policy in the AppCenter console.
D. Use the XenApp Server Role Manager to install Installation Manager.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
Which component should an administrator monitor to verify if the XenApp servers are accepting ICA connections?
A. ICA Listener
B. Logon Monitor
C. Citrix IMA Service
D. Citrix Streaming Service
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Scenario: Some users in remote offices complain that Citrix sessions are slow, and the network administrator has asked the Citrix Administrator to determine whether any data transmission errors are occurring for a group of sample users. In this environment, EdgeSight, Branch Repeater and Session Reliability are NOT used.
How can the Citrix Administrator determine the extent of data transmission errors based on the sample users?
A. Configure Multi-Stream for sample users.
B. Open the Citrix Connection Center for sample users.
C. Enable ICA round trip calculators for idle connections for sample users.
D. Change the active session limit to something other than Never in the ICA-TCP settings.
Correct Answer: B

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LX0-101 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which of the following directories contains additional information about installed packages?
A. /usr/share/documentation
B. /usr/local/share/documentation
C. /usr/local/doc
D. /usr/share/doc
E. /usr/packages/doc
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which of the following commands will allow an administrator to adjust the number of mounts after which an existing filesystem will be checked by e2fsck?
A. debugfs
B. dumpe2fs
C. mode2fs
D. tune2fs
E. mke2fs
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3 CORRECT TEXT
In which directory must definition files be placed to add additional repositories to yum?
Correct Answer: /ETC/YUM.REPOS.D,/ETC/YUM.REPOS.D/,YUM.REPOS.D,YUM.REPOS.D/

QUESTION 4
An administrator is looking for an executable file foo. Which of the following commands would search for foo within directories set in the shell variable, PATH? LX0-101 dumps
A. locate
B. which
C. find
D. query
E. whereis
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which of the following command lines would an administrator use to restrict the GNU find command to searching a particular number of subdirectories?
A. –max-dirs
B. -dirmax
C. -maxdepth
D. -s
E. -n
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
The lspci command can display information about devices EXCEPT:
A. card bus speed (e.g. 66Mhz).
B. card IRQ settings.
C. card vendor identification.
D. card AGP rate (e.g. 1x, 2x, 4x).
E. card Ethernet MAC address.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 7
In compliance with the FHS, in which of the following places are man pages typically found?
A. /usr/share/man
B. /opt/man
C. /usr/doc/
D. /var/pkg/man
E. /usr/local/man
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8 CORRECT TEXT
The system configuration file named is commonly used to set the default runlevel. (Please provide the fill name with full path information).
Correct Answer: /ETC/INITTAB

QUESTION 9
In the vi editor, which of the following commands will delete the current line at the cursor and the 16 lines following it (17 lines total)? LX0-101 dumps
A. 17d
B. 17dd
C. 17x
D. d17d
E. 16d
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
All of the following commands will update the Modify timestamp on the file /tmp/myfile.txt EXCEPT:
A. file /tmp/myfile.txt
B. echo “Hello” >/tmp/myfile.txt
C. sed -ie “s/1/2/” /tmp/myfile.txt
D. echo -n “Hello” >/tmp/myfile.txt
E. touch /tmp/myfile.txt
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11 CORRECT TEXT
What command with all options and/or parameters will send the signal USR1 to any executing process of program apache2?
Correct Answer: KILLALL-SSIGUSR1APACHE2,KILLALL-SUSR1APACHE2,KILLALLSIGUSR1APACHE2,KILLALL-USR1APACHE2

QUESTION 12
An administrator wishes to kill a process with a PID of 123. Which of the following commands will allow the process to “clean up” before exiting?
A. kill -1 123
B. kill -9 123
C. kill -15 123
D. kill -17 123
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
An administrator has just added a CD-ROM drive (/dev/hdd) to a system and added it to the administrator’s fstab. Typically the administrator can use which of the following commands to mount media in that drive to /mnt/cdrom?
A. mount /dev/cdrom /mnt/cdrom
B. mount /dev/cdrom
C. mount -t cdrom /dev/cdrom /mnt/cdrom
D. mount /mnt/cdrom
E. automount /mnt/hdd /mnt/cdrom}
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
To what environment variable will an administrator assign or append a value if the administrator needs to tell the dynamic linker to look in a build directory for some of a program’s shared libraries?
A. LD_LOAD_PATH
B. LD_LIB_PATH
C. LD_LIBRARY_PATH
D. LD_SHARE_PATH
E. LD_RUN_PATH
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
Pressing the Ctrl-C combination on the keyboard while a command is executing in the foreground sends which of following signal codes?
A. 1 (SIGHUP)
B. 2 (SIGINT)
C. 3 (SIGQUIT)
D. 9 (SIGKILL)
E. 15 (SIGTERM)
Correct Answer: B

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[New Microsoft Exam Dumps] Microsoft MCSA: Windows 10 70-697 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers Update

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70-697 dumps
QUESTION 1
You are an lT consultant for small and mid-sized business.
One of your clients wants to start using Virtual Smart Cards on its Windows 10 Enterprise laptops and tablets. Before implementing any changes, the client wants to ensure that the laptops and tablets support Virtual Smart Cards. You need to verify that the client laptops and tablets support Virtual Smart Cards.
What should you do?
A. Ensure that each laptop and tablet has a Trusted Platform Module (TPM) chip of version l.2 or greater.
B. Ensure that Bitlocker Drive Encryption is enabled on a system drive of the laptops and tablets.
C. Ensure that each laptop and tablet can read a physical smart card.
D. Ensure that the laptops and tablets are running Windows 10 Enter prise edition.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. Contoso.com is synchronized to a Microsoft Azure Active Directory. You have a Microsoft lntune subscription. Your company pLANs to implement a Bring Your Own Device (BYOD) policy. You will provide users with access to corporate data from their personal iOS devices.
You need to ensure that you can manage the personal iOS devices.
What should you do first?
A. lnstall the Company Portal app from the App1e App Store.
B. Create a device enrollment manager account.
C. Set a DNS alias for the enrollment server address.
D. Configure the lntune Service to Service Connector for Hosted Exchange.
E. Enroll for an App1e Push Notification (APN) certificate.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 3
You manage Microsoft lntune for a company named Contoso.lntune client computers run Windows 10 Enterprise.
You notice that there are 25 mandatory updates listed in the lntune administration console. You need to prevent users from receiving prompts to restart Windows following the installation of mandatory updates.
Which policy template should you use?
A. Microsoft lntune Agent Settings
B. Windows Configuration Policy
C. Microsoft lntune Center Settings
D. WindowsCustomPolicy(Windows 10andWindows 10Mobile)
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
You have an Active Directory domain named contoso.com that contains a deployment of Microsoft System Center 20l2 Configuration Manager Service Pack 1 (SP1). 70-697 dumps You have a Microsoft lntune subscription that is synchronized to contoso.com by using the Microsoft Azure Active Directory Synchronization Tool (DirSync.) You need to ensure that you can use Configuration Manager to manage the devices that are registered to your Microsoft lntune subscription.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents a part of the solution.
A. ln Microsoft lntune, create a new device enrollment manager account.
B. lnstall and configure Azure Active Directory Synchronization Services (AAD Sync.)
C. ln Microsoft lntune, configure an Exchange Connector.
D. ln Configuration Manager, configure the Microsoft lntune Connector role.
E. ln Configuration Manager, create the Microsoft lntune subscription.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 5
You have a Microsoft lntune subscription.
You have three security groups named Security1, Security2 and Security3. Security1 is the parent group of Security2.
Security2 has l00 users.
You need to change the parent group of Security2 to be Security3.
What should you do first?
A. Edit the properties of Security1.
B. Edit the properties of Security2.
C. Delete security2.
D. Remove all users from Security2.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
You have a Windows 10 Enterprise computer named Computer1 that has the Hyper-V feature installed.
Computer1 hosts a virtual machine named VM1. VM1 runs Windows 10 Enterprise. VM1 connects to a private virtual network switch.
From Computer1, you need to remotely execute Windows PowerShell cmdlets on VM1.
What should you do?
A. Run the winrm.exe command and specify the -s parameter.
B. Run the Powershell.exe command and specify the -Command parameter.
C. Run the Receive-PSSession cmdlet and specify the -Name parameter.
D. Run the lnvoke-Command cmdlet and specify the -VMName parameter.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
HOTSPOT
You have an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. You have a server that runs Windows Server 20l2 R2 and that is a Remote Desktop server
The RD Web Access Web App1ication settings are shown in the following graphic.
70-697 dumps
\Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information presented in the graphic. 70-697 dumps
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
70-697 dumps
Correct Answer:
70-697 dumps
QUESTION 8
You are the desktop administrator for a small company.
Your work group environment consists of Windows 10 Enterprise computers. You want to prevent l0 help desk computers from sleeping. However, you want the screens to shut off after a certain period of time if the computers are not being used.
You need to configure and App1y a standard power configuration scheme for the l0 help desk computers on your network.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. lmport the power scheme by using POWERCFG /lMPORT on each of the remaining help desk computers. Set the power scheme to Active by using POWERCFG /S.
B. Use POWERCFG /X on one help desk computer to modify the power scheme to meet the requirements. Export the power scheme by using POWERCFG /EXPORT.
C. Use POWERCFG /S on one help desk computer to modify the power scheme to meet the requirements. Export the power scheme by using POWERCFG /EXPORT.
D. lmport the power scheme by using POWERCFG /lMPORT on each of the remaining help desk computers. Set the power scheme to Active by using POWERCFG /X.
Correct Answer: AB

]QUESTION 9
A company has an Active Directory Domain Services(ADDS) domain. All client computers run Windows 10 Enterprise.
Some computers have a Trusted Platform Module (TPM) chip.
You need to configure a single Group Policy object (GPO) that will allow Windows Bitlocker Drive Encryption on all client computers.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Enable the Require additional authentication at startup policy setting.
B. Enable the Enforce drive encryption type on operating system drives policy setting.
C. Enable the option to allow Bitlocker without a compatible TPM.
D. Configure the TPM validation profile to enable Plat form Configuration Registerindices(PCRs)0,2,4,andll.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 10
You deploy several tablet PCs that run Windows 10 Enterprise.
You need to minimize power usage when the user presses the sleep button.
What should you do? 70-697 dumps
A. ln Power Options, configure the sleep button setting to Sleep.
B. ln Power Options, configure the sleep button setting to Hibernate.
C. Configure the active power pLAN to set the system cooling policy to passive.
D. Disable the C-State control in the computer’s BlOS.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Employees are permitted to bring personally owned portable Windows 10 Enterprise computers to the office. They are permitted to install corporate App1ications by using the management infrastructure agent and access corporate emailbyusing the Mailapp.
An employee’s personally owned portable computer is stolen.
You need to protect the corporate App1ications and email messages on the computer. Which two actions
should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Prevent the computer from connecting to the corporate wireless network.
B. Change the user’s password.
C. Disconnect the computer from the management infrastructure.
D. lnitiate a remote wipe.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 12
You support Windows 10 Enterprise computers.
Your company has started testi g App1ication Virtualization (App-V) App1ications on several laptops. You discover that the App-V App1ications are available to users even when the laptops are offline. You need to ensure that the App-V App1ications are available to users only when they are connected to the company network.
What should you do?
A. Change user permissions to the App-V App1ications.
B. Disable the Disconnected operation mode.
C. Configure mandatory profiles for laptop users.
D. Reset the App-V client FileSystem cache.
Correct Answer: B

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Cisco will be able to reduce even more digital risk

Cisco is credited with having established various different certification systems. Each of those certifications is for a specific area of IT expertise. Certifications such as these help establish the knowledge credentials of an IT professionals. Cisco Systems reported a better-than-expected quarterly profit. Cisco’s (NASDAQ: CSCO) earnings announcement shows a company that is slowing reinventing itself.
Cisco
Cisco faces the same problems that Microsoft and IBM does. In different ways, these technology companies are limited to hardware sales. Cisco (NASDAQ: CSCO) is the worldwide technology leader that has been making the Internet work since 1984. Our people, products, and partners help society securely connect and seize tomorrow’s digital opportunity today. Microsoft needed a hardware purchase (or upgrade) to sell its operating system version, while IBM and Cisco provided the core processing, storage and networking hardware needed for computing.

Cisco and the Cisco logo are trademarks or registered trademarks of Cisco and/or its affiliates in the U.S. and other countries. A listing of Cisco’s trademarks can be found at www.cisco.com/go/trademarks. Third-party trademarks mentioned are the property of their respective owners. The use of the word partner does not imply a partnership relationship between Cisco and any other company.

Cisco has found there are now 19.7 billion cyber threats per day. Figures from the UK’s Information Commissioner’s Office also show the number of retailers who have had data breaches has doubled in just one year. This means that as retailers accumulate more shopper data, more personal information is at risk to become compromised. In 2015-2016, 19 breaches caused the loss of client data—this rose to a whopping 38 breaches in the 2016-2017 timeframe.
Cisco
Senior Director of Threat Intelligence at Cisco Matt Watchinski tells CNBC that threats definitely increase during the holiday season. Knowing that breaches have gained over the last year, here’s some tips to keep your personal information safe:
1.Avoid sketchy emails
Don’t click on anything (including texts) that sound too good to be true. Check their website instead.
2.Update your passphrases
Passwords, operating systems, browsers, apps, and more—it’s always good to keep them fresh.
3.Vary your security questions (and answers)
Keep your security questions varied, creative, and hard to guess. Answers shouldn’t be easy to find through public search.
4.Don’t save credit card info
Keeping this information in browsers, retailers, and public spaces is a great risk. Watchinski also recommends visiting your credit card’s website to get a one-time credit card code.

To help with the fight against cybersecurity crime, Cisco has recently partnered with INTERPOL (International Police Organization) to share threat intelligence as a joint effort against cybercrime. The aim is for both organizations to develop a focused approach to share data. This will help quickly pinpoint threats around the world.
Cisco
Cisco’s already-broad security portfolio helps retailers and beyond to find a threat, and stop it everywhere. With the alliance with INTERPOL, Cisco will be able to reduce even more digital risk.

Cisco CEO Chuck Robbins summed up the results by saying, “Our strategy is working.” Look for a continued shift to services and software as Cisco recently announced its intentions to purchase BroadSoft, a cloud-based collaboration provider, to expand its capabilities. Cisco’s big opportunities are to continue to wisely acquire fast-growing companies to expand its cloud-based presence and to continue to offer network infrastructure solutions to the nascent Internet of Things.

Reference: https://newsroom.cisco.com/feature-content?type=webcontent&articleId=1899011