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Latest updates Oracle 1Z0-516 exam practice questions
QUESTION 1 Select two correct statements for the management segment qualifier in Oracle General Ledger. (Choose two.) A. The management segment can be a balancing segment. B. The management segment can be a natural account segment. C. The management segment cannot be an intercompany segment. D. This segment qualifier is used for management reporting and analysis. E. Data access sets cannot limit access to specific management segment values. Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 2 Your client occasionally charges sales tax erroneously to some customers. The client\\’s current process involves manually issuing a credit memo to correct the customer\\’s account. Customers routinely deduct the sales tax from the invoice before paying. Identify two steps that can help simplify the clients current process. (Choose two.) A. Set up AutoAccounting. B. Set up adjustment approval limits. C. Set up transaction type for tax adjustment. D. Select the TAX: Allow Override of Tax Code profile option. E. Define receivables activity of adjustment with tax accounting distribution. F. Define receivables activity of miscellaneous cash with tax accounting distribution. Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 3 Which two parameters facilitate cross organization reports in a Multi-Org environment? (Choose two.) A. Ledger B. Legal Entity C. Operating Unit D. Reporting Level E. Reporting Context Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 4 The commerce step “Pending” has four participant profiles in the following order: SalesRep, SalesManager, Owner, and Admin. The Admin profile allows access with the FullAccess user type. The Owner profile has at performer steps “start” step selected. The step has an auto-forwarding rule. A FullAccess user with the SalesGroupA and SalesManagerA groups creates a new quote and saves it, which moves the quote to “Pending”. The auto-forwarding rule returned the following two lines: SalesManagerA~Company~SalesManager SalesGroupA~Company~SalesRep Which profile will be used to display the quote in the “Pending” step to this user? A. SalesManager profile B. SalesRep profile C. Admin profile D. Owner profile Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5 XYZ Enterprises, a US-based export firm, has two offices in the US (East) and the US (West). They use their primary ledger for their US operations, and an additional ledger for management analysis and reporting. They use five segments for their accounting flexfield: company, department, account, product, and future. Select the minimum number of required flexfield qualifiers that they would be using for the accounting structure. (Choose three.) A. Future segment B. Product segment C. Balancing segment D. Cost center segment E. Department segment F. Management segment G. Natural account segment Correct Answer: CDG
QUESTION 6 Ten analysts are assigned the same Receivables responsibility and are given their own logins. The requirement is to restrict three of the analysts from creating chargebacks or adjustments. What would be your advice to ensure compliance with this internal control? A. Use forms personalization to restrict function access. B. Set the “AR: Cash – Allow Actions” system profile to no at the responsibility level. C. Set the “AR: Cash – Allow Actions” system profile to no at the user level for the three analysts. D. Set the “AR: Cash – Allow Actions” system profile to yes at the user level for the three analysts. E. Set the “AR: Cash – Allow Actions” system profile to yes at the application level for the three analysts. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7 You created an invoice with one line item of $100 and a tax of $10. This line item is credited with an applied credit memo of $50. What is the credit to the tax line? A. $5 B. $1 C. $10 D. $20 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8 Which two scenarios can be automated with File Transfer Protocol (FTP)? (Choose two.) A. An administrator needs to bulk update attachments on a multiple Commerce Transactions B. Every month, an administrator needs to apply changes requested by the marketing department on descriptions for parts in CPQ Cloud C. An administrator needs to update Configuration Attribute Value Pricing on a Model and deploy the changes D. Every night, an administrator queries the inventory database and updates a CPQ Cloud data table with the new inventory levels Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 9 What are three valid reasons for a Configuration rule failing to execute? (Choose three.) A. A runtime error occurs within the rule, which is firing before the current rule B. The status of the rule is set to Inactive C. The rule\\’s Condition attributes are hidden in Configuration Layout D. The attributes used in the rule are not added in Configuration Layout Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 10 Based on default values, which statement is false about automatic FTP (File Transfer Protocol) processing in CPQ Cloud? A. You must upload file to the automated folder on the FTP server B. You must list files in the order in which they should be processed in the upload_list.xml file C. FTP uploads are processed every 90 minutes D. You can use the Bulk Data service to extract the file format and upload it via FTP automation Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11 Which two scenarios are valid for looping by using XSL Snippets? (Choose two.) A. The data needs to be manipulated before, being used in loop conditions B. The grid selector cannot handle the conditions that you need to implement C. The data in the line item grid must be displayed as a table D. You want to display a table of single-select, quote-level Commerce attributes Correct Answer: AB
What standard functionality would you use to align attribute labels on a configuration screen to that they are evenly distributed vertically? A. Add spacers in the Configuration Layout and define spacer height B. Add read-only text area attributes in the layout with the required dimensions C. Add HTML attributes and use D. Use CSS Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13 Using standard functionality, how do you prevent a user from manually adding or removing rows in an array set? A. by hiding the control attribute and marking it as a forced set B. by using CSS to hide icons C. by hiding the control attribute D. by selecting the “Disable user override” property on the configurable array set editor page Correct Answer: C
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Where do I get the Cisco 010-151 exam questions? ExamineeVeryThing shares the latest and effective Cisco CCT Data Center 010-151 exam questions and answers, online practice tests, and the most authoritative Cisco exam experts update 010-151 exam questions throughout the year. Get the full 010-151 exam dump selection: https://www.lead4pass.com/010-151.html (72 Q&As). Pass the exam with ease!
The Cisco Certified Technician (CCT) for Data Center validates a technician’s competency in the following areas;
Basic Cisco NX-OS configuration
Cisco Data Center products and hardware components with an emphasis on the Cisco Unified Computing System (UCS).
The curriculum covers remedial services (HW break-fix) on Cisco Data Center products, including hardware replacement, software, and configuration backup and restores, check the safety and environmental requirement, recognize connection type and cable requirement, and perform basic physical layer troubleshooting. The Cisco Certified Technician (CCT) should be competent in the following areas; basic Cisco NX-OS configuration, Cisco Data Center products, and hardware components.
The Cisco Certified Technician should be able to perform remedial services (HW break-fix) on Cisco Data Center products, including software and configuration backup and restore, check the safety and environmental requirement, recognize connection type and cable requirement, and perform basic physical layer troubleshooting.
Latest updates Cisco 010-151 exam practice questions
QUESTION 1 What is the maximum number of supervisor modules that the Cisco MDS 9710 Switch supports? A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 6 E. 8 Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 Which two statements about DIMM replacement in Cisco UCS Servers are true? (Choose two.) A. In blade servers, DIMMs can be installed in either 1, 2, 4, or 8 DIMMs per channel. B. Rack-mount and blade servers have memory fault LEDs that indicate which DIMM requires attention. C. In servers that require pairs of DIMMs, the pairs must be identical (manufacturer, size, part #, and so on). D. If the memory in a server is not fully populated, you can install DIMMs in any open slot. Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 3 Which two statements about the Ethernet media are true? (Choose two.) A. A twisted-pair cable system has each pair of wires twisted together to reduce electromagnetic interference. B. Compared to multimode fiber, the single-mode fiber is designed for shorter distances with higher cost. C. 40 Gigabit Ethernet twinax cables deploy Enhanced Quad Small Form Factor Pluggable (QSFP+) connectors. D. The twinax cables can be found in either a shielded twisted-pair or an unshielded twisted-pair variation. Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 4 Which Cisco NX-OS command displays kernel uptime? A. show module B. show version C. show license D. show boot E. show interface Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5 Which command-line interface mode is best described by this prompt? UCS-switch-A (nxos)# A. maintenance mode B. EXEC mode C. local management mode D. global configuration mode E. Cisco IOS mode Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6 What is the maximum distance that the 40GBASE-LR4 Ethernet standard can span? A. 550 m B. 10 km C. 40 km D. 80 km Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7 Refer to the exhibit.
Where is the best place to see the power supply status of the blade server enclosure? A. A – Chassis 1 B. B – Chassis 1 – PSUs C. C – Chassis1 – Servers D. D – Rack-Mounts – Servers E. E – Fabric Interconnects A – PSUs Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8 Which Cisco Nexus 5000 Series model supports 1/10G BASE-T ports? A. Cisco Nexus 5548P B. Cisco Nexus 5548UP C. Cisco Nexus 5596UP D. Cisco Nexus 5596T Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9 Which two statements about the Cisco Nexus 5596UP switch are true? (Choose two.) A. Its power supplies and fan trays are hot-swappable. B. It supports unified ports. C. It is offered in a one-rack-unit form factor. D. It has one expansion slot. E. It supports up to 96 10G BASE-T ports. Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 10 Refer to the exhibit.
Which Cisco MDS chassis supports the 48-Port 16-Gbps Fibre Channel Switching Module? A. MDS 9509 B. MDS 9513 C. MDS 9710 D. MDS 9506 Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11 The Ethernet specification details several different fiber optic media types. What is the wire transmission speed for 100BASE-FX Ethernet? A. 10 Mb/s B. 100 Mb/s C. 1000 Mb/s D. 10000 Mb/s Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12 Which device provides analysis of Fibre Channel traffic without any network disruption? A. Cisco MDS 9000 Data Analyzer Adapter B. Cisco MDS 9000 Port Analyzer Adapter C. Cisco MDS 9000 Channel Analyzer Device D. Cisco MDS 9000 Channel Analyzer Adapter Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13 Which action should the administrator take before physically removing a blade server for maintenance or replacement? A. Force the server to shut down. B. Disassociate the service profile. C. Decommission the server. D. Perform a graceful shutdown of the server. Correct Answer: C
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QUESTION 1 When using LDAP synchronization to automatically create and synchronize Cisco Unified Communications Manager end users, which two LDAP attributes can be synchronized to directory URI? (Choose two.) A. emailaddress B. msRTCSIPuseraddress C. mail D. msRTCSIPprimaryuseraddress E. email Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 2 Refer to the exhibit. Which option is the MOS value in this Cisco IOS snippet?
A. 0.0000 B. 3.7001 C. 3 D. 4.1320 E. 1.0000 Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 Which device pool configuration setting will override the device-level settings only when a device is roaming within a device mobility group? A. SRST Reference B. Media Resource Group List C. Region D. Calling Party Transformation CSS E. Location Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4 Which three Software Licensing transport setting types are available on UCM 12.0 for license management? (Choose three) A. Smart Licence Manager Proxy B. Prime Licences Manager C. HTTP/HTTPS proxy D. Direct E. Transport gateway F. Enterprise License Manager Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 5 Company ABC has implemented Cisco Meeting Server (CMS) WebRTC feature using CMS Single Combined deployment model. When testing this implementation, they found that users can login using WebRTC but are unable to join a Space meeting and the “Join Call” option for guests is not available. What is the root cause of this issue? A. CMS Webbridge is not able to connect to XMPP component B. TURN media ports are blocked between CMS Webbridge and User PC C. CMS Webbridge http-redirect configuration is not enabled D. CMS Webbridge does not trust Callbridge certificate E. CMS Callbridge cannot connect to XMPP component Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6 Which Cisco Unity Connection call handler greeting, when enable, overrides all other greetings? A. Alternate B. Busy C. Closed D. Holiday E. Internal Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7 Which three statements about configuring partitioned intradomain federation to Lync are true? (Choose three) A. Intradomain federation to Lync is only possible using SIP B. IMandP and Lync should federate to any required remote domains C. You must update the URIs of any users migrated from Lync to IMandP to match the Cisco Unified Presence server SIP URI format D. A static route must be added to point the local presence domain to the Lync server E. Microsoft RCC must be enabled F. The Enable use of Email Address when Federating option can be turned on if SIP URIs are different between IMandP and Lync Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 8 Which Cisco Unified Contact Center Express data store contains user scripts, grammars, and documents? A. configuration data store B. repository data store C. agent data store D. historical data store E. script data store Correct Answer: B Unified CCX applications might use auxiliary files that interact with callers, such as scripts, pre-recorded prompts, grammars, and custom Java classes. Depending on each implementation, Unified CCX applications use some or all of the following file types. The Unified CCX Server\\’s local disk prompt, grammar, and document files are synchronized with the central repository during Unified CCX engine startup and during run-time when the Repository datastore is modified.
QUESTION 9 When Cisco Unity Connection users attempt to connect using Web Inbox and receive a Site Is Unavailable error message, which service status should be verified? A. Tomcat B. Connection Exchange Notification Web Service C. Connection Voicemail Web Service D. Connection Administration E. Secured Web Server Correct Answer: A Cisco Tomcat service, as the name suggests, is used by the Web Server of CUCM and helps display the administration, operating system, disaster recovery, and other GUI interfaces of CUCM. The service leverages a built-in CA for Tomcat in that it redirects the incoming HTTP requests to HTTPS using the default self-signed certificate.
QUESTION 10 Which statement describes the supported integration method when Cisco Unity Connection and Cisco Unified Communications Manager are installed on the same server as Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition? A. Only SCCP integration is supported. B. Only SIP integration is supported. C. Both SCCP or SIP integration are supported, but you must choose one or the other. D. Q-Sig integration is supported through a voice-enabled Cisco ISR router. E. Circuit-switched integration is supported through PIMG. Correct Answer: A When installed on the same server there is no way to create trunk that is why sccp is the only way Cisco Unity Connection and Cisco Unified Communications Manager are installed on the same server.
QUESTION 11 A Company that is using the Cisco Unified Contact Center Express Enhanced version requires that selected types of agent calls are automatically recorded. Which call recording operation can be used to satisfy this requirement? A. Instruct agents to use the Record button on Cisco IPPA to trigger recording B. Instruct supervisors to use the Record button on Cisco Agent Desktop to trigger recording C. Instruct supervision to use the Record button on Cisco supervisor Desktop to trigger recording D. Configure the Cisco Agent Desktop workflow to trigger recording E. Recording s not supported on the Cisco Unified CCX Enhanced version. It is supported only on the Premium version. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12 Which Cisco ISO-XE dial-peer command has the highest preference for inbound H.323 dial- peer matching? A. Incoming calling-number e164-pattren-map B. Destination-pattern C. Incoming URI to D. Answer-address E. Incoming called-number Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 13 Which option is the default Cisco Wireless Unified Communications endpoints marking for video media traffic or video RTP traffic? A. DSCP 8 B. DSCP 24 C. DSCP 34 D. DSCP 46 Correct Answer: C When configuring network-level quality of service (QoS), Cisco video endpoints (including Cisco Unified IP Phone 8900 and 9900 Series and Cisco TelePresence System EX Series devices) generally mark traffic at Layer 3 according to Cisco general QoS guidelines related to voice and video packet marking (video media as DSCP 34 or PHB AF41; call signaling as DSCP 24 or PHB CS3) and therefore these devices can be trusted.
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CompTIA A+ 2019 is the foundation of your IT career
CompTIA A+ is the preferred qualifying credential for technical support and IT operational roles. It is about much more than PC repair.
Candidates are better prepared to troubleshoot and problem solve. Technicians understand a wide variety of issues ranging from networking and operating systems to mobile devices and security. A+ supports the ability to connect users to the data they need to do their jobs regardless of the devices being used.
CompTIA A+ 220-901 covers PC hardware and peripherals, mobile device hardware, networking and troubleshooting hardware, and network connectivity issues.
CompTIA A+ 220-902 covers installing and configuring operating systems including Windows, iOS, Android, Apple OS X, and Linux. It also addresses security, the fundamentals of cloud computing and operational procedures.
CompTIA A+ 220-1001 covers mobile devices, networking technology, hardware, virtualization and cloud computing, and network troubleshooting.
CompTIA A+ 220-1002 covers installing and configuring operating systems, expanded security, software troubleshooting and operational procedures.
Test your CompTIA A+ 220-901 exam level
QUESTION 1 Joe, a user, wants to modify the fan speed settings on his PC. Which of the following locations allows the fan speed settings to be changed? A. BIOS B. Device Manager C. Motherboard Jumpers D. Computer Management Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 Users report that a network printer has stopped working and the shared print queue has grown throughout the day. Several users have attempted to print the same job numerous times. If possible, the technician would like to preserve only the original print jobs on the print server. Which of the following should the technician attempt FIRST? A. Restart the printer hardware B. Remove duplicate jobs from the queue C. Restart the print spooler service D. Update the server\\’s printer drivers Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 A user reports that when powering up a computer, only a blank screen appears, however, the computer functioned properly the day before. A technician looks at the computer and verifies the power light is on and the fans are working properly when powering on the computer. Which of the following is the MOST likely the cause of the issue? A. CPU B. PSU C. FDD D. SSD Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4 A network technician has been tasked with deploying new VoIP phones on a network. When the technician plugs the Ethernet cable for the phone into the wall port, the phone fails to turn on. When the technician plugs the Ethernet cable directly into the computer, the computer is able to access the network. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this issue? A. The network switch does not support PoE B. The technician is connecting the phone to the wrong type of port C. The firewall on the network is blocking access to the DHCP server D. The Ethernet cable is the wrong type Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 Which of the following versions of Windows XP would a technician MOST likely install for a small business? A. Windows XP Professional 64-bit B. Windows XP Professional C. Windows XP Media Center D. Windows XP Home Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6 Which of the following types of devices MOST likely uses electronic ink technology? A. Smartphone B. Phablet C. E-reader D. Tablet Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7 When working on a computer that supports triple-Channel memory configurations, which of the following RAM modules would provide the BEST memory performance? A. 2 DIMMs B. 4DIMMs C. 6DIMMs D. 8DIMMs Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8 Joe, a user, recently purchased a new multifunction printer and attempted to installed it himself He informed a technician that the printer is on his list of printers, but he is unable to print. The technician sees that printer is listed printer under devices and printers. Which of the following should the technician do NEXT? A. Reboot the computer into safe mode and try to printer a test page. B. Download the correct drives from the manufacture\\’s website and install them. C. Unplug the USB cable from the printer and try another USB slot the PC. D. Set the printer as the default within the device properties. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9 Which of the following does IPv6 use to autoconfigure nodes? A. APIPA B. Neighbor discovery C. CIDR D. Address resolution protocol Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10 Which of the following ports must be open for an email client to receive email? A. 21 B. 22 C. 25 D. 53 E. 110 Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 11 A 27 in (68.6 cm) analog monitor display shows the left and right sides are bulging outward. Which of the following should the technician performance FIRST to remedy the issue? A. Decrease contrast. B. Increase trapezoid. C. Increase gamma. D. Decrease pin cushion. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12 A user has an inkjet printer that generates very sloppy prints with multiple colors missed in patterns. Which of the following maintenance tasks should the technician perform to solve this problem? A. Install the maintenance kit. B. Replace the toner ribbon. C. Clean the heating element. D. Replace the fuser. E. Clean the head. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13 Which of the following characteristics is generally found on a docking station that port replicators do not offer? A. Replicators usually have most USB ports than docks. B. Docks generally do not need separate power to function. C. Docks have independent hardware that replicators lack. D. Replicators have additional NIC that docks lack. Correct Answer: C
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This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below.
Create database objects (20–25%)
Work with data (25–30%)
Modify data (20–25%)
Troubleshoot and optimize (25–30%)
Who should take this exam?
This exam is intended for SQL Server database administrators, system engineers, and developers with two or more years of experience, who are seeking to validate their skills and knowledge in writing queries.
Test your Microsoft Business Intelligence 70-461 exam level
QUESTION 1 You are the database developer at ABC.com. ABC.com has a SQL Server 2012 database infrastructure that has a database named ComDB with tables named Partners and Events. These tables were created using the following Transact- SQL code: CREATE TABLE [dbo].[Partners] ( [CompanyID] [int] NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY, [CompanyName] [varchar] (150) NOT NULL, [Location] [varchar] (150) NOT NULL, [ContactName] [varchar] (150) NOT NULL, [Email] [varchar] (150) NOT NULL, [Phone] [varchar] (10) NOT NULL ) CREATE TABLE [dbo].[Events] ( [EventID] [int] NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY, [CompanyID] [int] NOT NULL, [EventDescription] [nvarchar] (MAX), [EventDate] [nvarchar] (50) NOT NULL, [EventCordinator] [nvarchar] (150) NOT NULL ) You add a foreign key relationship between the two tables on the CompanyID column. You need to develop a stored procedure named sp_coEvents that retrieves CompanyName for all partners and the EventDate for all events that they have coordinated. To answer, type the correct code in the answer area. A. Check the answer in explanation. Correct Answer: A CREATE PROCEDURE sp_coEvent AS SELECT CompanyName, EventDate FROM Partners JOIN Events ON Partners.CompanyID = Events.CompanyID
QUESTION 2 You have an application named Appl. You have a parameter named @Count that uses the int data type. App1 is configured to pass @Count to a stored procedure. You need to create a stored procedure named usp_Customers for App1 that returns only the number of rows specified by the @Count parameter. The solution must NOT use BEGIN, END, or DECLARE statements. Part of the correct Transact-SQL statement has been provided in the answer area. Correct Answer: Please review the part for this answer CREATE PROCEDURE usp_Customers @Count int SELECT TOP(@Count) Customers.LastName FROM Customers ORDER BY Customers.LastName
QUESTION 3 Which FOR XML options can you use to manually format the XML returned? (Choose all that apply.) A. FOR XML AUTO B. FOR XML EXPLICIT C. FOR XML RAW D. FOR XML PATH Correct Answer: BD A. Incorrect: FOR XML AUTO automatically formats the XML retuned. B. Correct: FOR XML EXPLICIT allows you to manually format the XML returned. C. Incorrect: FOR XML RAW automatically formats the XML retuned. D. Correct: FOR XML PATH allows you to manually format the XML returned.
QUESTION 4 Which of the following T-SQL statements automatically occur in the context of a transaction? (Choose all that apply.) A. An ALTER TABLE command B. A PRINT command C. An UPDATE command D. A SET command Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 5 Which of the following are true about table-valued UDFs? A. Table-valued UDFs can return scalar values or tables. B. Table-valued UDFs always involve multiple T-SQL statements. C. Table-valued UDFs can be invoked in a SELECT list or a WHERE clause. D. Table-valued UDFs can be invoked in the FROM clause of a SELECT statement. Correct Answer: D The FROM clause requires a table and table-valued UDFs return tables.
QUESTION 6 You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database. The database contains a table named Employee. Part of the Employee table is shown in the exhibit.
Unless stated above, no columns in the Employee table reference other tables. Confidential information about the employees is stored in a separate table named EmployeeData. One record exists within EmployeeData for each record in the Employee table. You need to assign the appropriate constraints and table properties to ensure data integrity and visibility. On which column in the Employee table should you a create a self-reference foreign key constraint? A. DateHired B. DepartmentID C. EmployeelD D. EmployeeNum E. FirstName F. JobTitle G. LastName H. MiddleName I. ReportsToID Correct Answer: I
QUESTION 7 How can you use output parameters in T-SQL stored procedures? (Choose all that apply.) A. You can pass data into a procedure by using an output parameter, but you cannot receive information back from it. B. You can pass data into a procedure by using an output parameter, and any change made to the parameter will be passed back to the calling routine. C. You cannot pass data into a procedure by using an output parameter; it is only used for passing data back to the caller. D. You cannot pass data into a procedure by using an output parameter, nor can you receive data back from a procedure from an output parameter. Correct Answer: B
You have a database named Sales that contains the tables as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.) You need to create a query that returns a list of products from Sales.ProductCatalog. The solution must meet the following requirements: Return rows ordered by descending values in the UnitPrice column. Use the Rank function to calculate the results based on the UnitPrice column. Return the ranking of rows in a column that uses the alias PriceRank. Use two-part names to reference tables. Display the columns in the order that they are defined in the table. The PriceRank column must appear last. Part of the correct T-SQL statement has been provided in the answer area. Provide the complete code.
Correct Answer: SELECT CatID, CatName, ProductID, ProdName, UnitPrice, RANK (ORDER BY UnitPrice DESC) OVER () AS PriceRank FROM Sales.ProductCatalog ORDER BY PriceRank
QUESTION 9 Which of the following T-SQL statements can be used to cause branching within a stored procedure? (Choose all that apply.) A. WHILE B. BEGIN/END C. IF/ELSE D. GO Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 10 What kind of optimizer hints does SQL Server 2012 support? (Choose all that apply.) A. Query B. Join C. Order D. Table Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 11 You want to add a new GUID column named BookGUID to a table named dbo.Book that already contains data. BookGUID will have a constraint to ensure that it always has a value when new rows are inserted into dbo.Book. You need to ensure that the new column is assigned a GUID for existing rows. Which four Transact-SQL statements should you use? (To answer, move the appropriate SQL statements from the list of statements to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.) Select and Place:
Actually, in the real world, you don\\’t have to use WITH VALUES at the end of the statement and it works just as well. But because the question specifically states which FOUR TSQL statements to use, we have to include it.
QUESTION 12 What are the benefits of using an UPDATE statement based on joins? (Choose all that apply.) A. You can filter the rows to update based on information in related rows in other tables. B. You can update multiple tables in one statement. C. You can collect information from related rows in other tables to be used in the source expressions in the SET clause. D. You can use data from multiple source rows that match one target row to update the data in the target row. Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 13 You need to create a query that calculates the total sales of each OrderID from a table named Sales.Details. The table contains two columns named OrderID and ExtendedAmount. The solution must meet the following requirements: Use one-part names to reference columns. Order the results by OrderID with the smallest value first. NOT depend on the default schema of a user. Use an alias of TotalSales for the calculated ExtendedAmount. Display only the OrderID column and the calculated TotalSales column. Provide the correct code in the answer area. Key Words:
Correct Answer: SELECT OrderId, SUM(ExtendedAmount) AS TotalSales FROM Sales.Details ORDER BY OrderID ASC
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Latest Cisco CCNP Collaboration 300-075 Practice Questions and Answers
UESTION 1 What happens if location-based CAC is used and there is no bandwidth available when a remote caller is placed on hold? A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager sends TOH rather than MOH. B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager terminates the call. C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager plays default MOH. D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager attempts to reconnect the call immediately. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 Which statement best describes globalized call routing in Cisco Unified Communications Manager? A. All incoming calling numbers on the phones are displayed as an E.164 with the + prefix. B. Call routing is based on numbers represented as an E.164 with the + prefix format. C. All called numbers sent out to the PSTN are in E.164 with the + prefix format. D. The CSS of all phones contain partitions assigned to route patterns that are in global format. E. All phone directory numbers are configured as an E.164 with the + prefix. Correct Answer: B Explanation: Incorrect answer: ACDE For the destination to be represented in a global form common to all cases, we must adopt a global form of the destination number from which all local forms can be derived. The + sign is the mechanism used by the ITU\\’s E.164 recommendation to represent any PSTN number in a global, unique way. This form is sometimes referred to as a fully qualified PSTN number. Link: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/srnd/7x/dialplan.html#wp1153205
QUESTION 3 On which Cisco Unified Communications Manager configuration parameter does the CODEC that a Cisco IP Phone uses for a call depend? A. enterprise parameters B. media resources C. physical location D. region E. location Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4 What are two important considerations when implementing TEHO to reduce long-distance cost? (Choose two.) A. on-net calling patterns B. E911 calling C. number of route patterns D. caller ID Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 5 An engineer is setting up a Cisco VCS Cluster with SIP endpoints only. While configuring the Cisco VCS peers, which signaling protocol is used between peers to determine the best route for calls? A. SIP B. H.323 C. SCCP D. MGCP Correct Answer: B Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/telepresence/infrastructure/vcs/config_guide/X8 7/Cisco-VCS-Cluster-Creation-and-Maintenance-Deployment-Guide-X8-7.pdf (page 4, basic configuration is done, third point)
QUESTION 6 You want to avoid unnecessary interworking in Cisco TelePresence Video Communication Server, such as where a call between two H.323 endpoints is made over SIP, or vice versa. Which setting is recommended? A. H.323 – SIP interworking mode. Reject B. H.323 – SIP interworking mode. On C. H.323 – SIP interworking mode. Registered only D. H.323 – SIP interworking mode. Off E. H.323 – SIP interworking mode. Variable Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7 Which statement about Enhanced Locationbased CAC on a Cisco Unified Communications Managerbased voice network A. E-LCAC can adjust its knowledge of effective paths due to link failures and reconfigurations. B. Every cluster that participates in LBM requires the location be locally configured for location to device association C. Each cluster requires a complete view of the modeled topology. D. Each cluster should be configured with the immediate neighboring locations such that the topology of each cluster Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8 Company X has a primary and a backup Cisco Unified Communications Manager instance. The administrator had to do maintenance on the primary node and did a shutdown, which resulted in a failover to the backup node. What happens when the primary node comes back online? A. The primary node becomes the backup node. B. Endpoints detect that the primary is back and reregisters automatically. C. The backup node must be shut down first to allow the endpoints to realize that the primary node is online again. D. Nothing, the endpoints only failover when the node they lose connection to their registered node. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9 What impact do roaming-sensitive settings and Device Mobility settings have on call routing? A. Device Mobility settings have no impact on call routing, but roaming-sensitive settings modify the AAR group, AAR CSS, and device CSS. B. Device Mobility settings modify the device CSS and the roaming-sensitive settings modify the AAR group and AAR CSS. C. Device Mobility settings modify the AAR group and the AAR CSS, the roaming-sensitive settings modify the device CSS. D. Roaming-sensitive settings are settings that do not have an impact on call routing. Device Mobility settings, on the other hand, may have an impact on call routing because they modify the device CSS, AAR group, and AAR CSS. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10 When an H.323 trunk is added for Call Control Discovery, which statement is true? A. The H.323 trunk is added by selecting Inter-Cluster Trunk (Non-Gatekeeper Controlled) and Device Protocol Inter- Cluster Trunk. The Enable SAF check box should be selected in the trunk configuration. B. The H.323 trunk is added by selecting Inter-Cluster Trunk (Non-Gatekeeper Controlled) and Device Protocol Inter- Cluster Trunk. The Trunk Service Type should be Call Control Discovery. C. The H.323 trunk is added by selecting Call Control Discovery Trunk and then selecting D. 323 as the protocol to be used. E. The H.323 trunk is added by selecting H.323 Trunk, and selecting Inter-Cluster Trunk as the Device Protocol. The destination IP address field is configured as `SAF\\’ to indicate that this trunk is used for SAF. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11 Refer to the exhibit.
The remote site needs to run multicast MOH from flash. Which statement about the MOH server configuration in Cisco Unified Communications Manager is true? A. The MOH server must be enabled for G.729 in the Cisco IP Voice Media Streaming Application service parameters. B. Multicast MOH can use only G.711. So you must configure the command codec G711ulaw under the call-manager- fallback configuration at the remote site router. C. The MOH for the remote site is a standalone configuration. No extra configuration is required on the Cisco Unified Communications Manager MOH server. D. Configure a separate region for the MOH server. The codec between the MOH region and all other regions should be specified as G.711. Apply the MOH region through a device pool at the MOH server configuration page. E. Configure the location setting for the MOH server to 80 Kbps. This configuration forces the MOH server to use G.711 for the remote site. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12 Refer to the exhibit. The HQ site uses area code 650. The BR1 site uses area code 408. The long distance national code for PSTN dialing is 1. To make a long distance national call, an HQ or BR1 user dials access code 9, followed by 1, and then the 10-digit number. Both sites use MGCP gateways. AAR must use globalized call routing using a single route pattern. Assume that all outgoing PSTN numbers are localized at the egress gateway as shown in the exhibit. Which statement is true?
A. The AAR group system must be configured on the device configuration of the phones. B. The AAR group system must be configured on the line configuration of the phones. C. The single AAR group system cannot be used. A second AAR group must be configured in order to have source and destination AAR groups. D. The AAR group system must be configured under the AAR service parameters. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13 The network administrator of Enterprise X receives reports that at peak hours, some calls between remote offices are not passing through. Investigation shows no connectivity problems. The network administrator wants to estimate the volume of calls being affected by this issue. Which two RTMT counters can give more information on this? (Choose two.) A. CallsRingNoAnswer B. OutOfResources C. LocationOutOfResources D. RequestsThrottled E. CallsAttempted Correct Answer: BC
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Cisco CCDE written exam will validate that professionals have the expertise to gather and clarify network functional requirements, develop network designs to meet functional specifications, develop an implementation plan, convey design decisions and their rationale, and possess expert-level network infrastructure knowledge.
Free test Cisco CCDE 352-001 Exam questions and Answers
QUESTION 1 Which option is a BFD design consideration? A. BFD should not be used with RSVP-TE backup tunnels. B. BFD echo mode may reduce convergence time. C. BFD does not support sessions over MPLS LSPs. D. BFD is supported on indirectly connected peers. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 Refer to the exhibit.
As part of your design to monitor reachable services, a route health injector has just been deployed on the network. The route health injector injects /32 host routes into BGP with the next hop of 184.108.40.206, but the /32 routes are not being installed into the RIB or FIB of Router A. Which BGP feature must be deployed to make be deployed to make the design to work? A. BGP community attributes B. MP-BGP C. BGP AS-Path prepending D. eBGP multihop attribute Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 A mobile service provider wants to design and deploy an Ethernet service with similar physical link failover/failback characteristics on the active/backup links as APS/MSP SONET. Which Layer 2 service addresses this design requirement? A. Ethernet Pseudowires B. FlexLink C. MLPPP D. Port-Channel Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 Which two statements about AToM are true? (Choose two) A. It encapsulates Layer 2 frames at the egress PE B. When using AToM, the IP precedence filed is not copied to the MPLS packet C. AToM supports connecting different L2 technologies using interworking option D. The loopback address of the PE router must be either /24 or /32 E. It provides support for L2VPN features on ATM interfaces Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 5 Which network management tool should a network manager consult in order to pinpoint the cause of a routing recursion error? A. debug (for BGP output) B. syslog (for BGP errors) C. RMON events group D. SNMP routing traps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6 What are two reasons to choose L2TPv3 over other technologies for a VPN solution? (Choose two.) A. The VPN solution does not contain MPLS on the network core. B. The VPN solution should support Frame Relay to Ethernet pseudowire connections. C. The VPN solution requires multipoint Ethernet LAN service. D. The VPN solution should be industry-standard. Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 7 You are designing an IEEE 802.1X solution for a customer, where the network supports a large number of IP phones and printers. You plan to configure MAC address bypass for the phones and printers. What is your primary design and security concern? A. the additional AAA traffic on the network B. the placement of the AAA server C. the potential of MAC address spoofing D. the scaling of the MAC address database Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8 What is a characteristic of traffic shaping? A. It minimizes traffic transmission intervals. B. It remarks excess packets above the committed rates. C. It delays and can drop excess traffic. D. It classifies traffic based on certain characteristics. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9 An enterprise company needs to transport multicast traffic between its hub-and-spoke WAN routers over an MPLS Layer 3 VPN provider that does not currently support multicast. Which option describes how this enterprise how this enterprise can achieve this requirement in a cost-effective way? A. Use MSDP over the WAN. B. Enable multicast routing on the WAN physical and tunnel interfaces. C. Create multicast-enabled GRE tunnels over the WAN between the hub-and-spoke routers. D. Provide an Internet link to each site and use DMVPN over the Internet. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10 Which three options are important functions of IPv6 first-hop security? (Choose three.) A. implements a broadcast-control mechanism B. limits IPv6 route advertisement in the network C. suppresses excessive multicast neighbor discovery D. prevents IPv6 packet fragmentation E. prevents rogue DHCP servers from assigning IPv6 addresses Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 11 The Database team will deploy a new clustering technology that uses IPv4, multicast- based data replication, where the servers listen and transmit at the same time on multiple groups. Multicast is not being run on the current network and there are no plans to enable it. New Layer 2 switches will be purchased to connect new servers in order to keep multicast traffic off the existing network. Which two features should the new switches support to provide good multicast performance? (Choose two.) A. IGMP snooping B. PIM snooping C. MLD snooping D. IGMP querier E. Bidirectional PIM Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 12 A Company has these requirements for access to their wireless and wired corporate LANs using 802.1x Clients devices that corporate assets and have joined the active directory domain are allowed access Personal devices must be not allowed access Clients and access servers must be mutually authenticated. Which solution meets these requirements? A. Protected EAP/Microsoft CHAP v2 with user authentication B. EAP-TLS with machine authentication C. EAP-TLS with user authentication D. Protected EAP/Microsoft CHAP v2 with Machine authentication Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13 What are two reasons for instrumenting your network and network devices to collect performance data? (Choose two.) A. to determine the impact of jitter and latency on application performance B. to enable capacity planning decisions C. to route traffic around constrained choke points in the network D. to determine the locations at which QoS needs to be implemented Correct Answer: BD
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This exam tests the knowledge of a network security engineer to configure and implement security on Cisco network perimeter edge devices such as a Cisco switch, Cisco router, and Cisco ASA firewall.
This exam focuses on the technologies used to strengthen security of a network perimeter such as Network Address Translation (NAT), ASA policy and application inspect, and a zone-based firewall on Cisco routers.
Free test Cisco CCNP Security 300-206 Exam questions and Answers
QUESTION 1 Which two web browsers are supported for the Cisco ISE GUI? (Choose two.) A. HTTPS-enabled Mozilla Firefox version 3.x B. Netscape Navigator version 9 C. Microsoft Internet Explorer version 8 in Internet Explorer 8-only mode D. Microsoft Internet Explorer version 8 in all Internet Explorer modes E. Google Chrome (all versions) Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 2 You are the administrator of a Cisco ASA 9.0 firewall and have been tasked with ensuring that the Firewall Admins Active Directory group has full access to the ASA configuration. The Firewall Operators Active Directory group should have a more limited level of access. Which statement describes how to set these access levels? A. Use Cisco Directory Agent to configure the Firewall Admins group to have privilege level 15 access. Also configure the Firewall Operators group to have privilege level 6 access. B. Use TACACS+ for Authentication and Authorization into the Cisco ASA CLI, with ACS as the AAA server. Configure ACS CLI command authorization sets for the Firewall Operators group. Configure level 15 access to be assigned to members of the Firewall Admins group. C. Use RADIUS for Authentication and Authorization into the Cisco ASA CLI, with ACS as the AAA server. Configure ACS CLI command authorization sets for the Firewall Operators group. Configure level 15 access to be assigned to members of the Firewall Admins group. D. Active Directory Group membership cannot be used as a determining factor for accessing the Cisco ASA CLI. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 When you install a Cisco ASA AIP-SSM, which statement about the main Cisco ASDM home page is true? A. It is replaced by the Cisco AIP-SSM home page. B. It must reconnect to the NAT policies database. C. The administrator can manually update the page. D. It displays a new Intrusion Prevention panel. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4 You moved your servers from physical to virtual infrastructure, how to defend it ? A. Cisco V B. Cisco ASA 1000V C. VXLAN D. VSG Correct Answer: BD Cisco VSG and the ASA 1000V provide complementary functionalities. The VSG provides virtual machine context- aware and zone-based security capabilities. The ASA 1000V provides tenant edge security and default gateway functionalities. Together, they provide a trusted and comprehensive virtual and cloud security Portfolio. From: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/switches/virtual-security-gateway/index.html Second – you moved your servers from physical to virtual infrastructure, how to defend it – Cisco V, Cisco ASA 1000V, VXLAN, VSG
QUESTION 5 About User identity with domain (there is a screen), if user is not in domain, what identity will be? A. local B. default Correct Answer: A ASA Identity Firewal: The default domain is used for all users and user groups when a domain has not been explicitly configured for those users or groups. When a default domain is not specified, the default domain for users and groups is LOCAL. Additionally, the Identity Firewall uses the LOCAL domain for all locally defined user groups or locally defined users (users who log in and authenticate by using a VPN or web portal).
QUESTION 6 Which statement about Dynamic ARP Inspection is true ? A. In a typical network, you make all ports as trusted expect for the ports connection to switches , which are untrusted B. DAI associates a trust state with each switch C. DAI determines the validity of an ARP packet based on valid IP to MAC address binding from the DHCP snooping database D. DAI intercepts all ARP requests and responses on trusted ports only E. DAI cannot drop invalid ARP packets Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7 Which Cisco Security Manager form factor is recommended for deployments with fewer than 25 devices? A. only Cisco Security Manager Standard B. only Cisco Security Manager Professional C. only Cisco Security Manager UCS Server Bundle D. both Cisco Security Manager Standard and Cisco Security Manager Professional Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8 Which of the following that Cisco engineer must secure a current monitoring environment? (Choose Two) A. RSA-SIG B. MD5 C. AES D. 3DES E. DES Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 9 Which Cisco ASA (8.4.1 and later) CLI command is the best command to use for troubleshooting SSH connectivity from the Cisco ASA appliance to the outside 192.168.1.1 server? A. telnet 192.168.1.1 22 B. ssh -l username 192.168.1.1 C. traceroute 192.168.1.1 22 D. ping tcp 192.168.1.1 22 E. packet-tracer input inside tcp 10.0.1.1 2043 192.168.4.1 ssh Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10 What is needed for the successful synchronization between NTP servers with enabled authentication? A. NTP Trusted Key B. TLS certification (NTP certificates) C. Stratum hash D. Something else Correct Answer: A You can configure the Cisco CG-OS router to authenticate the time sources to which the local clock synchronizes. When you enable NTP authentication, the Cisco CG-OS router synchronizes to a time source only if the source carries one of the authentication keys specified by the ntp trusted-key command. The Cisco CG-OS router drops any packets that fail the authentication check and prevents them from updating the local clock.
QUESTION 11 On the Cisco ASA, tcp-map can be applied to a traffic class using which MPF CLI configuration command? A. inspect B. sysopt connection C. tcp-options D. parameters E. set connection advanced-options Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 12 A. choosed to use udp as answer Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13 Which command enables uRPF on ASA interface? A. ip protection source B. ip source guard enable C. ip reverse-path verify reachable-via any D. ip verify unicast source reachable-via interface_name E. ip verify reverse-path interface interface_name Correct Answer: E
We share 13 of the latest Cisco CCNP Security 300-206 exam dumps and 300-206 pdf online download for free.Now you know what you’re capable of! If you’re just interested in this, please keep an eye on “Examineeverything.org” blog updates! If you want to get the Cisco CCNP Security 300-206 Exam Certificate: https://www.lead4pass.com/300-206.html (Total questions:441 Q&A).
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Share real and effective Microsoft IT Infrastructure 98-367 exam dumps for free. 13 Online 98-367 Exam Practice test questions and answers, online 98-367 pdf download and YouTube video learning, easy to learn! Get the full 98-367 Dumps: https://www.lead4pass.com/98-367.html (Total Questions: 244 Q&A) to make it easy to pass the exam!
Latest effective Microsoft IT Infrastructure 98-367 Exam Practice Tests
QUESTION 1 Where should you lock up the backup tapes for your servers? A. The server room B. A filing cabinet C. The tape library D. An offsite fire safe Correct Answer: D Explanation Backup tapes should be stored off site, preferably in a fire safe, so that the data is available should a fire, flood, or other disaster affect the location were the servers are.
QUESTION 2 Password history policies are used to prevent: A. Brute force attacks B. Users from sharing passwords C. Social engineering D. Passwords from being reused immediately Correct Answer: D Explanation This security setting determines the number of unique new passwords that have to be associated with a user account before an old password can be reused. The value must be between 0 and 24 passwords. This policy enables administrators to enhance security by ensuring that old passwords are not reused continually. Reference: http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc758950(v=ws.10).aspx
QUESTION 3 Role separation improves server security by: A. Enforcing principle of least privilege. B. Installing applications on separate hard disks. C. Physically separating high security servers from other servers. D. Placing servers on separate VLANs. Correct Answer: A Explanation
QUESTION 4 When conducting a security audit the first step is to: A. Inventory the company\\’s technology assets B. Install auditing software on your servers C. Set up the system logs to audit security events D. Set up a virus quarantine area Correct Answer: A Explanation
QUESTION 5 Setting a minimum password age restricts when users can: A. Request a password reset B. Change their passwords C. Log on by using their passwords D. Set their own password expiration Correct Answer: B Explanation Configure the minimum password age to be more than 0 if you want Enforce password history to be effective. Without a minimum password age, users can cycle through passwords repeatedly until they get to an old favorite.
QUESTION 6 Basic security questions used to reset a password are susceptible to: A. Hashing B. Social engineering C. Network sniffing D. Trojan horses Correct Answer: B Explanation Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Self-service_password_reset
QUESTION 7 The certificate of a secure public Web server on the Internet should be: A. Issued by a public certificate authority (CA) B. Signed by using a 4096-bit key C. Signed by using a 1024-bit key D. Issued by an enterprise certificate authority (CA) Correct Answer: A Explanation
QUESTION 8 For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:Hot Area: Correct Answer:
QUESTION 9 The Windows Firewall protects computers from unauthorized network connections. Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select “No change is needed\\’\\’ if the underlined text makes the statement correct. A. Email viruses B. Phishing scams C. Unencrypted network access D. No change is needed Correct Answer: D Explanation
QUESTION 10 Which attack listens to network traffic of a computer resource? A. Resource gathering B. Denial of service C. ARP poisoning D. Eavesdropping E. Logic bomb Correct Answer: D Explanation Eavesdropping In general, the majority of network communications occur in an unsecured or “cleartext” format, which allows an attacker who has gained access to data paths in your network to “listen in” or interpret (read) the traffic. When an attacker is eavesdropping on your communications, it is referred to as sniffing or snooping. The ability of an eavesdropper to monitor the network is generally the biggest security problem that administrators face in an enterprise. Without strong encryption services that are based on cryptography, your data can be read by others as it traverses the network.
QUESTION 11 Cookies impact security by enabling: (Choose two.) A. Storage of Web site passwords. B. Higher security Web site protections. C. Secure Sockets Layer (SSL). D. Web sites to track browsing habits. Correct Answer: AD Explanation Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/HTTP_cookie
QUESTION 12 You have two servers that run Windows Server. All drives on both servers are formatted by using NTFS. You move a file from one server to the other server. The file\\’s permissions in the new location will: A. Enable full access to the everyone group B. Restrict access to the Administrators group C. Inherit the destination folder\\’s permissions D. Retain the original folder\\’s permissions Correct Answer: C Explanation You can modify how Windows Explorer handles permissions when objects are copied or moved to another NTFS volume. When you copy or move an object to another volume, the object inherits the permissions of its new folder.
QUESTION 13 You suspect a user\\’s computer is infected by a virus. What should you do first? A. Restart the computer in safe mode B. Replace the computer\\’s hard disk drive C. Disconnect the computer from the network D. Install antivirus software on the computer Correct Answer: D Explanation
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Who should take this exam?
This exam validates that a candidate has fundamental security knowledge and skills. It can serve as a stepping stone to the Microsoft Certified Solutions Associate (MCSA) exams. It is recommended that candidates become familiar with the concepts and the technologies described here by taking relevant training courses. Candidates are expected to have some hands-on experience with Windows Server, Windows-based networking, Active Directory, anti-malware products, firewalls, network topologies and devices, and network ports.
Candidates for this exam have fundamental knowledge of Windows devices and mobility. Candidates should have some hands-on experience with Windows devices, Windows-based networking, Active Directory, antimalware products, firewalls, network topologies and devices, and network ports.
Online Practice test CompTIA A+ 220-902 exam questions, 100% real and effective exam questions answers, easy access to 220-902 dumps enhance your skills and experience, 220-902 PDF online Download, Meetexams updates valid exam dumps throughout the year for full 220-902 exam dumps: https://www.lead4pass.com/220-902.html (Total Questions: 1347 Q&A)
Latest effective CompTIA A+ 220-902 Exam Practice Tests
QUESTION 1 A laser printer has just had its toner cartridge removed and toner has leaked inside and out. The BEST method to remove spilled toner, both inside and outside of the printer, is which of the following? A. ESD vacuum B. Maintenance kit C. Damp towel D. Compressed air Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 A customer wants to setup a SOHO wired network. The customer needs assistance in setting up a static IP address on three computers on the network. Which of the following is the BEST solution for the technician to implement? A. Internet Options >Connection > Network > LAN settings > choose Proxy server, type in the IP address B. Windows Firewall > the Connections tab > Add Exception > Change Scope, type in the IP address C. Internet Options > Advanced tab > LAN settings, type in the IP address D. Local Area Connections >Properties > TCP/IP > Properties > General > Specify, type in the IP address Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 A technician is preparing to clean off a malware infection from a Windows XP PC. Which of the following should be disabled prior to starting the cleaning process? A. System Properties B. System Restore C. Remote Desktop D. Automatic Updates Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 For any given 802.11n wireless Internet signal, which of the following is needed to establish a connection? A. MAC address filtering B. Windows password C. Proper SSID D. SSL certificate Correct Answer: C Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/wireless/access_point/12.4_21a_JA1/configuration/guide /scg12421aJA1-chap7-mbssid.html
QUESTION 5 A user\\’s personal laptop was hacked. A technician troubleshooting the issue discovers the user used the numbers 123456789 as their account password. The user has not changed the password in two years. Which of the following best practices should the technician recommend the user implement to prevent future hacking? (Select TWO). A. Configure screen saver B. Set a strong password C. Set login time restrictions D. Use a more secure browser E. Change the password frequently Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 6 Which of the following is MOST effective in preventing security breaches on a network? (Select THREE). A. Bandwidth throttling B. Eliminate password history C. Enable QoS D. Antivirus software E. User education F. Enforced login/logoff hours Correct Answer: DEF Reference: http://www.esecurityplanet.com/network-security/how-to-prevent-security- breaches-from-known- vulnerabilities.html
QUESTION 7 When using a PC on a Windows Domain, which of the following is the MOST critical service when connecting to multiple file, print, and email servers? A. Internet Connection Sharing Service B. Windows Firewall Service C. Computer Browser Service D. DNS Service Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8 A small business owner is looking to assign users to a Windows group level. They have the following requirements for these users, and stress that they should receive no more privileges than necessary: The users should not be able to change passwords for higher level accounts. The users need the ability to install software. The users cannot create new accounts for others. Which of the following group levels will BEST meet these needs? A. Remote Desktop Users B. Power Users C. Standard Users D. Administrators Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9 Which of the following characteristics MOST separates a tablet from a laptop? A. Lack of field serviceable parts B. Lack of any storage medium C. Lack of internal wireless D. Lack of a touchscreen Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10 A technician is attempting to upgrade a customer\\’s PC from Windows XP Professional to Windows 7 Professional x64. The system contains a late generation Pentium 4 Processor with hyper-threading. The technician is having difficulty installing the operating system as it consistently errors out during setup. Which of the following is MOST likely happening? A. Pentium 4 HT processors are 64-bit compatible but do not support the x64 instruction set. B. The BIOS needs to be configured to enable x64 support. C. Windows XP can only be directly upgraded to Windows 7 Home Basic and Home Premium editions. D. Pentium 4 HT processors are not 64-bit compatible. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11 A technician notices a computer is overheating after 30 minutes of use. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause? A. Clogged temporary file folders B. Internal dust buildup C. Incorrect input voltage setting D. ACPI is disabled Correct Answer: B Reference: http://pcrepairaugustaga.com/computer-dust-free/
QUESTION 12 A user needs to replicate a large directory containing folders and files from one drive to another. It also contains several empty folders needed for future growth. Which of the following commands should a technician use in order to accomplish this task? A. ATTRIB /S B. RD /S C. COPY /A D. XCOPY /E Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13 Which of the following will allow a company to implement the MOST cost-efficient way to easily identify whether a user has secure access to particular areas of a building? A. Require badges B. Install retina scanners C. Install firewalls D. Require key fobs Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14 A user has downloaded and installed a browser add-on that causes the browser to hang. The PC has very slow system response when rebooted. Which of the following should a technician do to troubleshoot this problem? A. Run System Restore, update antivirus program, and run an antivirus scan. B. Remove all Internet temporary files, run an antivirus scan, and reboot using Last Known Good Configuration. C. Remove all temporary files, turn off System Restore, update and run an antivirus scan. D. Run an antivirus scan, Run Disk Cleanup, and reboot into Safe Mode. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 15 Which of the following is the correct UNC path to use when mapping a network drive? A. \\share\password B. \\share\server C. \\server\username D. \\server\share Correct Answer: D Reference: http://windows.microsoft.com/is-is/windows7/create-a-shortcut-to-map-a- network-drive
QUESTION 16 A computer is showing the “No boot device found” message even though a technician has verified that the hard drive is set as Device 1 in the BIOS boot order. Which of the following causes is MOST likely at play? A. A 40-pin cable was used instead of an 80-pin cable to connect the HDD. B. The hard drive is disconnected. C. The hard drive has corrupted sectors and needs a CHKDSK scan. D. Both PATA devices are incorrectly set to the master jumper setting. Correct Answer: D Reference: http://wdc.custhelp.com/app/answers/detail/a_id/981/~/how-to-physically- install,-set-jumper-settings,-and- set-up-a-serial-ata,-eide
QUESTION 17 Which of the following allows a Windows 7 remote user to edit a file offline then automatically update the changes when back in the office? A. Windows Defender B. Sync Center C. Windows Aero D. HomeGroup Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18 A user has a work laptop configured with a static IP. The user wants to be able to take the laptop home and connect it to their router which uses DHCP. However, the user does not want to manually change their settings every day. Which of the following is the BEST step the user could take to make this possible? A. Setup a VPN on the laptop to store the work IP settings. B. Use the Ethernet port at work and only use Wi-Fi while at home. C. Install an additional NIC in the laptop to access the home network. D. Place the static IP in the alternative field while using DHCP. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 19 A PC technician notices that the printers deployed via a new Group Policy are not showing up on the workstation. Which of the following commands should be run on the PC? A. extract B. robocopy C. gpupdate D. tasklist Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20 For the last year, a company has gathered statistics on the most common security incidents. The highest percentage deals with opening email attachments that contain malware. Which of the following would mitigate this issue without reducing productivity? A. Annual cyber security education B. Update antivirus signatures more often C. Block all email attachments D. Install an IPS on each workstation Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 21 Ann, a user, has brought her laptop in for service. She reports that her battery is at 100%, but whenever it is unplugged it immediately shuts down. Which of the following should the technician do? A. Replace the battery B. Change power settings to balanced C. Replace the power adapter D. Enable APM in the BIOS Correct Answer: A Explanation: http://www.dummies.com/how-to/content/how-to-replace-your-laptop- battery.html
QUESTION 22 A computer program that functions normally while quietly installing malicious software on a machine is known as a: A. DDoS attack. B. Worm. C. Phishing attack. D. Trojan. Correct Answer: D Reference: http://computer.howstuffworks.com/trojan-horse.htm
QUESTION 23 A technician wants to create a customized list of common utilities that are easily accessible in the same location. Which of the following tools would allow them to build such a list? A. MSCONFIG B. MMC C. MSTSC D. MSINFO32 Correct Answer: B Reference: http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb742442.aspx
QUESTION 24 A user calls a technician and states that their computer shutdowns after about 15 minutes of being turned on. The user also states that if they wait about an hour and turn the computer back on, it will function properly, but will shut down after 15 minutes as it did before. Which of the following should the technician check on the motherboard that could be causing this problem? A. SATA connection B. CMOS battery C. TPM chip D. Capacitors Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 25 Which of the following security threats is BEST mitigated through proper user training? A. A Worm B. Rootkits C. Social Engineering D. Browser Adware Correct Answer: C Reference: http://www.veracode.com/blog/2013/03/hacking-the-mind-how-why-social- engineering-works/
QUESTION 26 Following an authorized person through a door or other security check point without showing proper identification or defeating a security mechanism is known as which of the following? A. Hacking B. Emulating C. Partitioning D. Tailgating Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 27 Which of the following utilities will display a listing of active IP ports on the computer being tested? A. NETSTAT B. PING C. IPCONFIG D. TRACERT Correct Answer: A Reference: http://pcsupport.about.com/od/commandlinereference/p/netstat-command.htm
QUESTION 28 A user is trying to access an application on their home machine from work. The user sets up port forwarding on their router but is still unable to connect to the application. Which of the following should be the user\\’s NEXT step in resolving this issue? A. Configure Wake-on-LAN for the NIC on the Work PC. B. Configure a firewall exception on the Home PC. C. Switch the Work PC network from “Work” to “Home”. D. Disable the Windows firewall on the Home PC. Correct Answer: B Reference: http://windows.microsoft.com/is-is/windows7/open-a-port-in-windows-firewall
QUESTION 29 Joe, a technician, built a new computer for a customer. The computer has been setup with the appropriate operating system, but when Joe boots the PC after configuration, he receives an invalid boot disk message. Which of the following tools should he use to fix the issue? A. Safe Mode with command prompt B. Restore from a prior recovery point C. MSCONFIG to disable startup programs D. BIOS and change the boot order Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 30 A manager suspects a user has obtained movies protected by copyright using a torrent client. An incident response technician responds and verifies the user has indeed been violating company policy. Which of the following would be the next BEST step for this technician to perform? A. Secure the workstation in a limited access facility. B. Document the incident, purge all policy violating materials. C. Immediately delete all unauthorized materials. D. Reprimand the user and apply a content filter to their profile. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 31 A technician has successfully completed a gpupdate from a CMD box of a user\\’s PC and is ready to move to the next user. Which of the following is the appropriate NEXT step? (Select TWO). A. View the CMD process in Task Manager B. Type EXIT at the command prompt and press Enter C. Minimize the CMD box to the taskbar D. Click the “x” in the top right of the CMD window E. Select Switch User on the PC Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 32 A user has a nonfunctional computer that has two hard drives. The user needs to retrieve information from one of the drives. Which of the following would be used? A. Reformat bad hard drives B. External enclosure C. Reformat all hard drives D. CHKDSK along with DEFRAG utility Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 33 After installing an updated video card driver in a Windows XP machine, a technician sees a blue screen of death (BSOD). Which of the following would BEST help the technician repair the computer? A. Update antivirus definitions B. Run System Restore C. Last Known Good Configuration D. Factory pre-installation CD Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 34 An end user receives an unsolicited and unencrypted email containing a co-workers birth date and social security number. The end user should immediately contact the IT department and report a violation of which of the following policies? A. DRM B. EULA C. IRP D. PII Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 35 A technician has recently installed some new memory in a PC. When the computer is rebooted, the technician hears loud noise coming from inside the case. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause? A. The CPU is incompatible with the memory B. Something is obstructing one of the fans C. One of the hard drives is failing D. The new memory is over heating Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 36 Which of the following options in Windows is the best way to secure a workstation? A. Screensaver B. User education C. Disable Autorun D. Complex password E. ID badge F. Key fob G. Retinal scan Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 37 Which of the following utilities would a technician use on a Windows Vista or Windows 7 machine to configure what applications are allowed to send/receive data over the LAN connection? A. Users and Groups B. Windows Firewall C. Registry Editor D. Task Scheduler Correct Answer: B Reference: http://windows.microsoft.com/en-us/windows7/products/features/windows- firewall
QUESTION 38 A technician has a list of IP addresses that the technician\\’s manager needs the network names for. Which of the following commands would be used? A. NBTSTAT – A B. PING – t C. NETSTAT ?o D. NBTSTAT – a Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 39 A technician receives a trouble ticket about intermittent wireless on a user\\’s laptop while they are at home but not at work. Which of the following could be the cause of this issue? A. While at home, the user is too close to their access point B. Encryption is set differently at home then at work C. Cordless phone is interfering with signal at home D. Laptop\\’s wireless is set to only work while at work Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 40 A customer calls an IT consultant to explain an issue they are having with their Windows 7 Professional PC. Windows Update attempts to install patches upon each startup but fails on the same single update. The customer has attempted to re-run Windows Update from Control Panel but the issue remains. Which of the following courses of action would BEST resolve the problem? A. Running a full DEFRAG on the system B. Clearing the AppData temp folder entirely C. Clearing the Windows Update download cache entirely D. Uninstalling the Windows Update feature in Windows 7 and reinstalling it directly from the Microsoft website Correct Answer: C
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