[April 2023] Lead4Pass 200-901 dumps full upgrade sharing

200-901 exam

Lead4Pass 200-901 dumps April update fully upgraded! Contains 442 latest exam questions and answers, verified by a professional team to be true and effective!

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You can also take the Cisco 200-901 online exam practice

FromNumber of exam questionsExam nameExam codeLast updated
Free15Developing Applications and Automating Workflows using Cisco Platforms (DEVASC)200-901200-901 dumps
Question 1:

A development team is using a version control system that has a centralized workflow. Which feature of the version control system ensures the integrity of the central repository?

A. central common code versioning backup

B. built-in conflict resolution mechanism

C. distributed nature of the version control system architecture

D. tracked code changes of the developers

Correct Answer: D


Question 2:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the capabilities from the left onto the Cisco Network Management Platforms that support the capabilities on the right.

Select and Place:

200-901 dumps practice questions 2

Correct Answer:

200-901 dumps practice answers 1

Question 3:

What is the function of an Ethernet switch in a networking environment?

A. to switch a frame from one port to another port based on the IP address

B. to switch a frame from one port to another port based on the MAC address

C. to provide IP addressing to connected hosts

D. to block unwanted traffic

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

DRAG DROP

Refer to the exhibit. Drag and drop the actions from the left that the contents of this Dockerfile accomplish onto the right. Not all options are used.

200-901 dumps practice questions 4

Select and Place:

200-901 dumps practice questions 4-1

Correct Answer:

200-901 dumps practice questions 4-2

Question 5:

What is a capability of an agentless configuration management system?

A. It requires managed hosts to have an interpreter for a high-level language such as Python or Ruby.

B. It requires managed hosts to connect to a centralized host to receive updated configurations.

C. It uses compiled languages as the basis of the domain-specific language to interface with managed hosts.

D. It uses existing protocols to interface with the managed host.

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

A developer is reviewing a code that was written by a colleague. It runs fine, but there are many lines of code to do a seemingly simple task repeatedly. Which action organizes the code?

A. Refactor the code by removing any unnecessary tests.

B. Reverse engineer and rewrite the code logic.

C. Using functions, rewrite any pieces of code that are repeated.

D. Modify the code to use loops.

Correct Answer: C


Question 7:

How do XML and JSON compare regarding functionality?

A. XML provides support for mapping data structures into host languages than JSON.

B. XML provides more human readability than JSON.

C. JSON provides more support for data types than XML.

D. JSON natively supports arrays and XML does not natively support arrays.

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

Which IP service synchronizes the time across devices?

A. DNS

B. NTP

C. SNMP

D. NAT

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

What is a feature of XML compared to other data formats?

A. It uses tags to define the structure.

B. It uses parenthesis for key-value pairs.

C. It uses indentation to define the structure.

D. It uses namespaces for list representation.

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

An automation script fails to connect to an internal server exactly 1 out of 2 times it is executed. This behavior is seen in different clients. Which networking device must be at fault?

A. load balancer

B. laptop on which the script is running

C. switch

D. router

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

What is the function of the default gateway in a network?

A. to drop traffic that is destined for the default gateway

B. to drop traffic that is not destined for the default gateway

C. to forward traffic to the same subnet

D. to forward traffic to different subnets

Correct Answer: D


Question 12:

Refer to the exhibit.

200-901 dumps practice questions 12

A developer is part of a team that is working on an open-source project in which source code is hosted in a public GitHub repository.

While the application was built, security concerns were addressed by encrypting the credentials on the server. After a few months, the developer realized that a hacker managed to gain access to the account. The exhibit contains part of the source code for the login process.

Why was the attacker able to access the developer\’s account?

A. The encoded credentials were available in the source code.

B. The application was not encrypting the communication with the server.

C. The credentials were encrypted in the source code.

D. An SSL certificate was used instead of the TLS protocol to authenticate.

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

When a Cisco IOS XE networking device is configured by using RESTCONF, what is the default data encoding method?

A. application/yaml-data+json

B. application/yang-data+json

C. application/xml-data+json

D. application/json-data+xml

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

Several teams at a company are developing a new CRM solution to track customer interactions with the goal of improving customer satisfaction and driving higher revenue. The proposed solution contains these components:

1.

MySQL database that stores data about customers

2.

HTML5 and JavaScript UI that runs on Apache

3.

REST API is written in Python

What are the two advantages of applying the MVC design pattern to the development of the solution? (Choose two.)

A. to enable multiple views of the same data to be presented to different groups of users

B. to provide separation between the view and the model by ensuring that all logic is separated out into the controller

C. to ensure data consistency, which requires that changes to the view are also made to the model

D. to ensure that only one instance of the data model can be created

E. to provide only a single view of the data to ensure consistency

Correct Answer: AB


Question 15:

Which CI/CD component allows for the storing of code packages and enables the testing of the same code that is running on the live system?

A. Artifactory

B. Jira

C. ITSM

D. Git

Correct Answer: A


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Latest CCNP dumps to pass the 350-401 ENCOR exam

Share the latest exam questions and answers of the 350-401 ENCOR certification exam online, and use ChatGPT to answer the most popular topics that all candidates care about. Using AI can help you better prepare for the next exam, AI will not help you with the exam, but it can provide the exam details you need.

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ChatGPT’s answer:

Q1: What is the 350-401 ENCOR certification exam?

The 350-401 ENCOR (Implementing Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies) certification exam is a test offered by Cisco that validates a candidate’s knowledge and skills in implementing and operating core enterprise network technologies. The exam is one of the requirements for obtaining the CCNP Enterprise certification, which is a professional-level certification designed for network engineers, network administrators, and other IT professionals who work with enterprise networking technologies.

The 350-401 ENCOR exam covers a range of topics, including network infrastructure, security, automation, virtualization, and network assurance. Specifically, the exam tests the candidate’s knowledge and skills in the following areas:

  • Architecture
  • Virtualization
  • Infrastructure
  • Network assurance
  • Security
  • Automation

The exam consists of 90-110 questions and lasts for 120 minutes. To pass the exam, candidates must score a minimum of 825 out of 1000 points. Passing the 350-401 ENCOR exam, along with passing one of the concentration exams, is required to earn the CCNP Enterprise certification.

Q2: What are the 350-401 ENCOR certification examination methods?

The 350-401 ENCOR (Implementing Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies) certification exam can be taken using two methods:

1. Online Proctored Exam: This is an online version of the exam that can be taken from any location with a reliable internet connection. The exam is proctored remotely, which means that candidates must follow strict exam rules and regulations to ensure a secure and fair testing environment. The online proctored exam can be scheduled through Pearson VUE, the official testing provider for Cisco certifications.

2. In-Person Exam: This is a traditional exam that can be taken at a Pearson VUE testing center. Candidates must travel to the testing center to take the exam, which is proctored on-site. The in-person exam is generally available in areas where the online proctored exam is not possible.

Both exam methods cover the same content and have the same number of questions, format, and time limit. However, the online proctored exam may have some additional technical requirements, such as a webcam, microphone, and a quiet testing environment. It’s important to note that both exam methods require candidates to register and pay for the exam in advance through the Pearson VUE website.

Q3: How to pass the 350-401 ENCOR certification exam?

Passing the 350-401 ENCOR (Implementing Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies) certification exam requires a combination of knowledge, skills, and test-taking strategies. Here are some tips to help you prepare and pass the exam:

1. Understand the exam objectives: Review the exam objectives and the topics that will be covered in the exam. You can find the exam objectives on the Cisco website or through the exam study materials.

2. Use official study materials: Cisco offers a range of study materials, including books, video courses, and practice exams. These materials are designed to help you prepare for the exam and provide an in-depth understanding of the exam topics.

3. Practice, practice, practice: Practice is key to passing the exam. Use the official practice exams and other resources (https://www.lead4pass.com/350-401.html) to test your knowledge and identify areas that require more study.

4. Build a lab: Build a lab environment using Cisco networking equipment or software simulations to gain practical experience in configuring and troubleshooting the technologies covered in the exam.

5. Join a study group: Join a study group or online forum to connect with other candidates, ask questions, and share study resources.

6. Manage your time: The exam is timed, so it’s important to manage your time during the exam. Pace yourself and don’t spend too much time on any one question.

7. Read the questions carefully: Read each question carefully and make sure you understand what is being asked. Look for keywords that can help you identify the correct answer.

8. Eliminate wrong answers: If you’re unsure of the answer, eliminate the wrong answers to narrow down the choices and improve your chances of selecting the correct answer.

9. Review your answers: Once you’ve completed the exam, review your answers and make sure you’ve answered all the questions.

By following these tips and investing time and effort into your study, you can increase your chances of passing the 350-401 ENCOR exam and earning your CCNP Enterprise certification.

Q4: Is the 350-401 ENCOR certification exam worth it?

The 350-401 ENCOR (Implementing Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies) certification exam is definitely worth it for network engineers and other IT professionals who work with enterprise network technologies. Here are some reasons why:

1. Industry recognition: The CCNP Enterprise certification, which is obtained by passing the 350-401 ENCOR exam, is recognized worldwide as a valuable credential for network engineers and other IT professionals.

2. Career advancement: Earning the CCNP Enterprise certification can help you advance your career by demonstrating your knowledge and skills in enterprise network technologies. It can also make you a more competitive candidate for job opportunities and promotions.

3. Skill development: Preparing for and passing the 350-401 ENCOR exam requires a deep understanding of enterprise network technologies, which can help you develop your skills and become a more effective network engineer or IT professional.

4. Networking opportunities: Joining a study group or online forum to prepare for the exam can help you connect with other IT professionals and build your professional network.

5. Cisco partnership benefits: If your organization is a Cisco partner, having CCNP Enterprise-certified professionals on staff can help you achieve partner status and access partner benefits.

Overall, the 350-401 ENCOR certification exam is definitely worth it for IT professionals who work with enterprise network technologies. It can help you advance your career, develop your skills, and gain industry recognition for your expertise.

Real Valid 350-401 ENCOR certification exam questions and answers for free from Lead4Pass:

TypeNumber of exam questionsExam nameExam code
Free15Implementing and Operating Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (ENCOR) & CCIE Enterprise Infrastructure & CCIE Enterprise Wireless350-401
Question 1:

Which First Hop Redundancy Protocol maximizes uplink utilization and minimizes the amount of configuration that is necessary?

A. GLBP

B. HSRP v2

C. VRRP

D. HSRP v1

Correct Answer: A

only GLBP can maximize utilization of links by being ACTIVE/ACTIVE while all others are ACTIVE/STANDBY/LISTENING

NOTE!!!! there is NO MHSRP only HSRP v1 and 2.

Question 2:

Refer to the exhibit.

New 350-401 questions 2

Which IPv6 OSPF network type is applied to interface Fa0/0 of R2 by default?

A. multipoint

B. broadcast C. Ethernet

D. point-to-point

Correct Answer: B

The Broadcast network type is the default for an OSPF-enabled ethernet interface (while Point-to-Point is the default OSPF network type for a Serial interface with HDLC and PPP encapsulation). Reference: https:// www.oreilly.com/library/view/cisco-ios-cookbook/0596527225/ch08s15.html

Question 3:

Which three resources must the hypervisor make available to the virtual machines? (Choose three)

A. memory

B. bandwidth

C. IP address

D. processor

E. storage

F. secure access

Correct Answer: ADE

Question 4:

What are some of the key differences between HSRPv1 and HSRPv2? (Choose two.)

A. HSRPv1 uses the multicast address of 224.0.0.102 while HSRPv2 uses 225.0.0.2.

B. HSRP uses a group range of 0-255, while HSRP uses a group range of 0-4095.

C. HSRPv1 uses seconds-based timers, while HSRPv2 uses milliseconds-based timers.

D. HSRPv1 provides support for IPv6, while HSRPv2 supports IPv4 only.

Correct Answer: BC

should be HSRPv1, HSRPv2

Question 5:

Which component does Cisco Threat Defense use to measure bandwidth, application performance, and utilization?

A. NetFlow

B. Cisco Umbrella

C. TrustSec

D. Advanced Malware Protection for Endpoints

Correct Answer: A

NetFlow was initially created to measure network traffic characteristics such as bandwidth, application performance, and utilization.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/security/network_security/ctd/ctd2-0/design_guides/ctd_2-0_cvd_guide_jul15.pdf


Question 6:

What is the difference in dBm when an AP power increases from 25 mW to 100 mW?

A. 75dBm

B. 150dBm

C. 6dBm

D. 125dBm

Correct Answer: C

Question 7:

Two Cisco switches are logically configured as a single switch using Cisco StackWise technology. This will result in virtually combining which two planes? (Choose two.)

A. Data Plane

B. Control Plane

C. Forwarding Plane

D. Management Plane

E. Bearer Plane

Correct Answer: BD

StackWise Virtual (SV) combines two switches into a single logical network entity from the network control plane and management perspectives. reference:https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/switches/catalyst-9000/nb-06-cat-9k-stack-wp-cte-en.html

Question 8:

Which LISP infrastructure device provides connectivity between non-sites and LISP sites by receiving non-LISP traffic with a LISP site destination?

A. PETR

B. PITR

C. map resolver

D. map server

Correct Answer: B

Proxy ingress tunnel router (PITR): answer \’PETR\’ PITR is an infrastructure LISP network entity that receives packets from non-LISP sites and encapsulates the packets to LISP sites or natively forwards them to non-LISP sites.

Reference: https://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=2992605 https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Data_Center/DCI/5-0/LISPmobility/DCI_LISP_Host_Mobility/LISPmobile_2.html

Question 9:

How is Layer 3 roaming accomplished in a unified wireless deployment?

A. An EoIP tunnel is created between the client and the anchor controller to provide seamless connectivity as the client is associated with the new AP.

B. The client entry on the original controller is passed to the database on the new controller.

C. The new controller assigns an IP address from the new subnet to the client

D. The client database on the original controller is updated with the anchor entry, and the new controller database is updated with the foreign entry.

Correct Answer: D

Question 10:

A customer has recently implemented a new wireless infrastructure using WLC-5520S at a site directly next to a large commercial airport Users report that they intermittently lose Wi-Fi connectivity, and troubleshooting reveals it is due to frequent channel changes Which two actions fix this issue? (Choose two)

A. Remove UNII-2 and Extended UNII-2 channels from the 5 Ghz channel list

B. Restore the OCA default settings because this automatically avoids channel interference

C. Disable DFS channels to prevent interference writ) Doppler radar

D. Enable DFS channels because they are immune to radar interference

E. Configure channels on the UNII-2 and the Extended UNII-2 sub-bands of the 5 Ghz band only

Correct Answer: AC

Question 11:

What does Call Admission Control require the client to send in order to reserve the bandwidth?

A. SIP flow information

B. Wi-Fi multimedia

C. traffic specification

D. VoIP media session awareness

Correct Answer: C

Question 12:

What Is the difference between the MAC address table and TCAM?

A. The MAC address table supports partial matches. TCAM requires an exact match.

B. The MAC address table is contained in TCAM ACL and QoS information is stored in CAM.

C. Router prefix lookups happen in TCAM. MAC address table lookups happen In CAM.

D. TCAM is used to make L2 forwarding decisions. CAM is used to build routing tables

Correct Answer: C

“TCAM is most useful for building tables for searching on longest matches such as IP routing tables organized by IP prefixes. The TCAM table stores ACL, QoS, and other information generally associated with upper-layer processing. As a result of using TCAM, applying ACLs does not affect the performance of the switch.”

https://community.cisco.com/t5/networking-documents/cam-content-addressable-memory-vs-tcam-ternary-content/ta-p/3107938

Question 13:

Refer to the exhibit.

new 350-401 questions 13

What does the snippet of code achieve?

A. It creates a temporary connection to a Cisco Nexus device and retrieves a token to be used for API calls.

B. It opens a tunnel and encapsulates the login information if the host key is correct.

C. It opens a client connection to a Cisco Nexus device and maintains it for the duration of the context.

D. It creates an SSH connection using the SSH key that is stored, and the password is ignored.

Correct Answer: C

the client is a Python library that facilitates client-side scripting and application development around the NETCONF protocol. The above Python snippet uses the client to connect and establish a NETCONF session to a Nexus device (which is also a NETCONF server).

Question 14:

A customer has 20 stores located throughout the city. Each store has a single Cisco AP managed by a central WLC. The customer wants to gather analytics for users in each store. Which technique supports these requirements?

A. angle of arrival

B. presence

C. hyper location

D. trilateration

Correct Answer: D

Question 15:

Which feature does Cisco TrustSec use to provide scalable, secure communication throughout a network?

A. security group tag ACL assigned to each port on a switch

B. security group tag number assigned to each port on a network

C. security group tag number assigned to each user on a switch

D. security group tag ACL assigned to each router on a network

Correct Answer: C

Cisco TrustSec uses tags to represent logical group privilege. This tag, called a Security Group Tag (SGT), is used in access policies. The SGT is understood and is used to enforce traffic by Cisco switches, routers, and firewalls. Cisco TrustSec is defined in three phases: classification, propagation, and enforcement. When users and devices connect to a network, the network assigns a specific security group. This process is called classification. Classification can be based on the results of the authentication or by associating the SGT with an IP, VLAN, or port profile (-> Answer \’security group tag ACL assigned to each port on a switch\’ and answer \’security group tag number assigned to each user on a switch\’ are not correct as they say “assigned … on a switch” only. Answer \’security group tag ACL assigned to each router on a network\’ is not correct either as it says “assigned to each router”).

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/solutions/collateral/borderless-networks/trustsec/C07-730151-00_overview_of_trustSec_og.pdf

Download Lead4Pass 350-401 dumps: https://www.lead4pass.com/350-401.html Practice 944 latest exam questions and answers to help candidates successfully pass the 350-401 ENCOR certification exam.

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Latest Lead4Pass 312-50v12 dumps For the 2023 CEH v12 Exam

CEH v12 Exam 2023

Lead4Pass 312-50v12 dumps contain 528 latest exam questions and answers for the 2023 CEH v12 certification exam. Practice the latest 312-50v12 certification exam questions using PDF and VCE lightweight tools with accurate answers and explanations of difficult questions to ensure 100% success in passing the CEH v12 certification exam.

Welcome to download 312-50v12 dumps: https://www.lead4pass.com/312-50v12.html, to ensure success as a member of the World’s Number 1 Ethical Hacking.

Read the latest 312-50v12 dumps exam questions online:

Number of exam questionsExam nameExam codeLast updated
15Certified Ethical Hacker Exam312-50v12312-50v11 dumps
QUESTION 1:

When configuring wireless on his home router, Javik disables SSID broadcast. He leaves authentication “open” but sets the SSID to a 32-character string of random letters and numbers.

What is an accurate assessment of this scenario from a security perspective?

A. Since the SSID is required in order to connect, the 32-character string is sufficient to prevent brute-force attacks.

B. Disabling SSID broadcast prevents 802.11 beacons from being transmitted from the access point, resulting in a valid setup leveraging “security through obscurity”.

C. It is still possible for a hacker to connect to the network after sniffing the SSID from a successful wireless association.

D. Javik’s router is still vulnerable to wireless hacking attempts because the SSID broadcast setting can be enabled using a specially crafted packet sent to the hardware address of the access point.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2:

An attacker identified that a user and an access point are both compatible with WPA2 and WPA3 encryption.

The attacker installed a rogue access point with only WPA2 compatibility in the vicinity and forced the victim to go through the WPA2 four-way handshake to get connected.

After the connection was established, the attacker used automated tools to crack WPA2-encrypted messages.

What is the attack performed in the above scenario?

A. Timing-based attack

B. Side-channel attack

C. Downgrade security attack

D. Cache-based attack

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3:

John, a disgruntled ex-employee of an organization, contacted a professional hacker to exploit the organization.

In the attack process, the professional hacker Installed a scanner on a machine belonging to one of the victims and scanned several machines on the same network to Identify vulnerabilities to perform further exploitation.

What is the type of vulnerability assessment tool employed by John in the above scenario?

A. Proxy scanner

B. Agent-based scanner

C. Network-based scanner

D. Cluster scanner

Correct Answer: C

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Network-based scanner

A network-based vulnerability scanner, in simplistic terms, is the process of identifying loopholes in a computer’s network or IT assets, which hackers and threat actors can exploit.

By implementing this process, one can successfully identify their organization’s current risk(s).

This is not where the buck stops; one can also verify the effectiveness of your system’s security measures while improving internal and external defenses.

Through this review, an organization is well equipped to take an extensive inventory of all systems, including operating systems, installed software, security patches, hardware, firewalls, anti-virus software, and much more.

Agent-based scanner

Agent-based scanners make use of software scanners on each and every device; the results of the scans are reported back to the central server. Such scanners are well-equipped to find and report on a range of vulnerabilities.

NOTE:

This option is not suitable for us, since for it to work, you need to install a special agent on each computer before you start collecting data from them.

QUESTION 4:

There have been concerns in your network that the wireless network component is not sufficiently secure.

You perform a vulnerability scan of the wireless network and find that it is using an old encryption protocol that was designed to mimic wired encryption, what encryption protocol is being used?

A. WEP

B. RADIUS

C. WPA

D. WPA3

Correct Answer: A

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) may be a security protocol, laid out in the IEEE wireless local area network (Wi-Fi) standard, 802.11b, that’s designed to supply a wireless local area network (WLAN) with A level of security and privacy like what’s usually expected of a wired LAN.

A wired local area network (LAN) is usually protected by physical security mechanisms (controlled access to a building, for example) that are effective for a controlled physical environment but could also be ineffective for WLANs because radio waves aren’t necessarily bound by the walls containing the network.

WEP seeks to determine similar protection thereto offered by the wired network’s physical security measures by encrypting data transmitted over the WLAN. encoding protects the vulnerable wireless link between clients and access points; once this measure has been taken, other typical LAN security mechanisms like password protection, end-to-end encryption, virtual private networks (VPNs), and authentication are often put in situ to make sure privacy.

A research group from the University of California at Berkeley recently published a report citing “major security flaws” in WEP that left WLANs using the protocol susceptible to attacks (called wireless equivalent privacy attacks). within the course of the group’s examination of the technology, they were ready to intercept and modify transmissions and gain access to restricted networks.

The Wireless Ethernet Compatibility Alliance (WECA) claims that WEP ? which is included in many networking products. was never intended to be the only security mechanism for a WLAN, and that, in conjunction with traditional security practices, it’s very effective.

QUESTION 5:

Which type of malware spreads from one system to another or from one network to another and causes similar types of damage as viruses to do to the infected system?

A. Rootkit

B. Trojan

C. Worm

D. Adware

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6:

How does a denial-of-service attack work?

A. A hacker prevents a legitimate user (or group of users) from accessing a service

B. A hacker uses every character, word, or letter he or she can think of to defeat authentication

C. A hacker tries to decipher a password by using a system, which subsequently crashes the network

D. A hacker attempts to imitate a legitimate user by confusing a computer or even another person

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7:

When you are getting information about a web server, it is very important to know the HTTP Methods (GET, POST, HEAD, PUT, DELETE, TRACE) that are available because there are two critical methods (PUT and DELETE). PUT can upload a file to the server and DELETE can delete a file from the server.

You can detect all these methods (GET, POST, HEAD, DELETE, PUT, TRACE) using the NMAP script engine.

What Nmap script will help you with this task?

A. HTTP-methods

B. HTTP enum

C. HTTP-headers

D. HTTP-git

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8:

What is not a PCI compliance recommendation?

A. Use a firewall between the public network and the payment card data.

B. Use encryption to protect all transmission of cardholder data over any public network.

C. Rotate employees handling credit card transactions on a yearly basis to different departments.

D. Limit access to cardholder data to as few individuals as possible.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
https://www.pcisecuritystandards.org/pci_security/maintaining_payment_security Build and Maintain a Secure Network

312-50v12 dumps questions 9

In a MAC flooding attack, a switch is fed with many Ethernet frames, each containing different source MAC addresses, by the attacker. Switches have limited memory for mapping various MAC addresses to physical ports.

What happens when the CAM table becomes full?

A. Switch then acts as a hub by broadcasting packets to all machines on the network

B. The CAM overflow table will cause the switch to crash causing Denial of Service

C. The switch replaces the outgoing frame switch factory default MAC address of FF:FF:FF:FF:FF: FF

D. Every packet is dropped and the switch sends out SNMP alerts to the IDS port

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10:

Insecure direct object reference is a type of vulnerability where the application does not verify if the user is authorized to access the internal object via its name or key.

Suppose a malicious user Rob tries to get access to the account of a benign user Ned.

Which of the following requests best illustrates an attempt to exploit an insecure direct object reference vulnerability?

A. “GET /restricted/goldtransfer?to=Rob&from=1 or 1=1′ HTTP/1.1Host: westbank.com”

B. “GET /restricted/\r\n\%00account%00Ned%00access HTTP/1.1 Host: westbank.com”

C. “GET /restricted/accounts/?name=Ned HTTP/1.1 Host westbank.com”

D. “GET /restricted/ HTTP/1.1 Host: westbank.com

Correct Answer: C

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

This question shows a classic example of an IDOR vulnerability. Rob substitutes Ned’s name in the “name” parameter and if the developer has not fixed this vulnerability, then Rob will gain access to Ned’s account.

Below you will find more detailed information about IDOR vulnerability.

Insecure direct object references (IDOR) are a cybersecurity issue that occurs when a web application developer uses an identifier for direct access to an internal implementation object but provides no additional access control and/or authorization checks.

For example, an IDOR vulnerability would happen if the URL of a transaction could be changed through client-side user input to show unauthorized data of another transaction. Most web applications use simple IDs to reference objects.

For example, a user in a database will usually be referred to via the user ID. The same user ID is the primary key to the database column containing user information and is generated automatically. The database key generation algorithm is very simple: it usually uses the next available integer.

The same database ID generation mechanisms are used for all other types of database records.

The approach described above is legitimate but not recommended because it could enable the attacker to enumerate all users. If it’s necessary to maintain this approach, the developer must at least make absolutely sure that more than just a reference is needed to access resources.

For example, let’s say that the web application displays transaction details using the following URL:
https://www.example.com/transaction.php?id=74656

A malicious hacker could try to substitute the id parameter value 74656 with other similar values, for example:
https://www.example.com/transaction.php?id=74657

The 74657 transactions could be valid transactions belonging to another user. The malicious hacker should not be authorized to see it. However, if the developer made an error, the attacker would see this transaction, and hence we would have an insecure direct object reference vulnerability.

QUESTION 11:

Session splicing is an IDS evasion technique in which an attacker delivers data in multiple, small-sized packets to the target computer, making it very difficult for an IDS to detect the attack signatures.

Which tool can be used to perform session splicing attacks?

A. TCP splice

B. Burp

C. Hydra

D. Whisker

Correct Answer: D

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Many IDS reassemble communication streams; hence, if a packet is not received within a reasonable period, many IDS stop reassembling and handling that stream. If the application under attack keeps a session active for a longer time than that spent by the IDS on reassembling it, the IDS will stop.

As a result, any session after the IDS stops reassembling the sessions will be susceptible to malicious data theft by attackers. The IDS will not log any attack attempt after a successful splicing attack. Attackers can use tools such as Nessus for session splicing attacks.?

Did you know that the EC-Council exam shows how well you know their official book? So, there is no “Whisker” in it. In the chapter “Evading IDS” -> “Session Splicing”, the recommended tool for performing a session-splicing attack is Nessus.

Where Wisker came from is not entirely clear, but I will assume the author of the question found it while copying Wikipedia.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Intrusion_detection_system_evasion_techniques One basic technique is to split the attack payload into multiple small packets so that the IDS must reassemble the packet stream to detect the attack.

A simple way of splitting packets is by fragmenting them, but an adversary can also simply craft packets with small payloads. The ‘whisker’ evasion tool calls crafting packets with small payloads ‘session splicing’.

By itself, small packets will not evade any IDS that reassembles packet streams. However, small packets can be further modified in order to complicate reassembly and detection. One evasion technique is to pause between sending parts of the attack, hoping that the IDS will time out before the target computer does. A second evasion technique is to send the packets out of order, confusing simple packet re-assemblers but not the target computer.

NOTE: Yes, I found scraps of information about the tool that existed in 2012, but I can not give you unverified information. According to the official tutorials, the correct answer is Nessus, but if you know anything about Wisker, please write in the QA section. Maybe this question will be updated soon, but I’m not sure about that.

QUESTION 12:

Which Intrusion Detection System is the best applicable for large environments where critical assets on the network need extra scrutiny and is ideal for observing sensitive network segments?

A. Honeypots

B. Firewalls

C. Network-based intrusion detection system (NIDS)

D. Host-based intrusion detection system (HIDS)

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13:

Given below are the different steps involved in the vulnerability-management life cycle.

1) Remediation
2) Identify assets and create a baseline
3) Verification
4) Monitor
5) Vulnerability scan
6) Risk assessment

Identify the correct sequence of steps involved in vulnerability management.

A. 2–>5–>6–>1–>3–>4

B. 2–>1–>5–>6–>4–>3

C. 2–>4–>5–>3–>6–> 1

D. 1–>2–>3–>4–>5–>6

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14:

Miley, a professional hacker, decided to attack a target organization’s network. To perform the attack, she used a tool to send fake ARP messages over the target network to link her MAC address with the target system’s IP address.

By performing this, Miley received messages directed to the victim’s MAC address and further used the tool to intercept, steal, modify, and block sensitive communication to the target system.

What is the tool employed by Miley to perform the above attack?

A. Gobbler

B. KDerpNSpoof

C. BetterCAP

D. Wireshark

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15:

ViruXine.W32 virus hides its presence by changing the underlying executable code.

This Virus code mutates while keeping the original algorithm intact, the code changes itself each time it runs, but the function of the code (its semantics) will not change at all.

312-50v12 dumps questions 15

Here is a section of the Virus code:

312-50v12 dumps questions 15-1

What is this technique called?

A. Polymorphic Virus

B. Metamorphic Virus

C. Dravidic Virus

D. Stealth Virus

Correct Answer: A


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[Dec 28, 2022] Latest Update Lead4Pass 300-920 dumps

latest update

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Number of exam questionsExam nameExam codeLast updated
15Developing Applications for Cisco Webex and Webex Devices (DEVWBX)300-920300-920 dumps
New Question 1:

Which two statements describe valid limitations for Webex Teams bot accounts in a group space? (Choose two.)

A. A bot account cannot send a message without an SSL certificate.

B. A bot account cannot hear a message unless the bot is @ mentioned.

C. A bot account cannot send a message without a valid access token.

D. A bot account cannot respond to another bot.

E. A bot account cannot send a message with an @mention.

Correct Answer: BC

Reference: https://developer.webex.com/docs/bots

New Question 2:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the code snippets onto the exhibit to create a valid Webex Meetings API request allowing Jane (an admin) to reset John\’s PMR pin. Not all options are used.

Select and Place:

300-920 questions 2

Correct Answer:

300-920 questions 2-1

Question 3:

DRAG DROP Refer to the exhibit. A training coordinator must post links to Webex recordings on a company SharePoint site. This is usually a manual process, but a DevOps engineer wants to automate it using Webex XML APIs. After a successful LstRecording call wrapped in xml2js, the ‘console dir(result)’ output is shown in the exhibit. Using ‘dot notation’, drag and drop the code below onto the code snippet to output the streamURL for each recording.

300-920 questions 3

Select and Place:

300-920 questions 3-1

Correct Answer:

300-920 questions 3-2

Question 4:

Which two capabilities are currently supported by the Webex Meetings XML API? (Choose two.)

A. Request a recording link for playback.

B. Send a text message to the meeting host.

C. Request permissions to schedule on someone else\’s behalf.

D. Schedule a new meeting.

E. Send a problem report.

Correct Answer: CD

Reference: https://community.cisco.com/t5/cloud-collaboration/api-for-scheduling-a-webex-meeting-on-behalf-of-other-user/td-p/3472319

Question 5:
300-920 questions 5

Refer to the exhibit. Which code completes the return statement that initiates local screen sharing on the active meeting?

A. activeMeeting.updateShare({ sendShare: true receiveShare: true, stream: null

})

B. activeMeeting.updateShare({ sendShare: true receiveShare: false, stream: remoteShare })

C. activeMeeting.updateShare({ sendShare: true receiveShare: true, stream: localShare })

D. activeMeeting.updateShare({ sendShare: false receiveShare: false, stream: null })

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://github.com/webex/webex-js-sdk/tree/master/packages/node_modules/%40webex/plugin-meetings

Question 6:
300-920 questions 6

Refer to the exhibit. A macro and a UI extension (also called In-Room Control) are being developed. What is the reason for the error displayed in the console?

A. Widgets of type “Slider” are not supported on the device.

B. The UI extension was not exported to the device.

C. The name of the widget in the macro and the UI extension must match.

D. Promises are not supported for this device.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/telepresence/endpoint/ce99/webex-board-administrator-guide-ce99.pdf

Question 7:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the code to complete the JavaScript snippet so that it:

1.

retrieves the details of an individual user

2.

checks what licenses they have already

3.

updates their account with a new license Options can be used more than once.

Select and Place:

300-920 questions 7

Correct Answer:

300-920 questions 7-1

Question 8:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the code to create a valid Guest Issuer JWT token to use with the Webex Teams Browser SDK. Not all options are used.

Select and Place:

300-920 questions 8

Correct Answer:

300-920 questions 8-1

Reference: https://developer.webex.com/docs/guest-issuer

Question 9:

Which two statements about incoming WebEx call notifications on iOS and Android applications are true? (Choose two.)

A. When running in the background on Android, Firebase Cloud Messaging must use a notification message.

B. When running in the background on Android, Firebase Cloud Messaging must use a data message.

C. Webhooks are required with the iOS SDK only when the application is in the background.

D. When running in the background on iOS, Application Push Notifications must be configured to be silent.

E. Webhooks are required in the foreground and background for iOS and Android applications.

Correct Answer: BC

Reference: https://github.com/webex/webex-android-sdk-example-push-notification-server/blob/master/README.md https://developer.webex.com/docs/sdks/ios

Question 10:
300-920 questions 10

Refer to the exhibit. What is the Webex Teams REST API HTTP response status code, based on this code snippet?

A. 401

B. 403

C. 429

D. 501

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://developer.webex.com/docs/api/v1/messages/get-message-details

Question 11:
300-920 questions 11

Refer to the exhibit. A developer must construct an HTTP Request to use the XML API to set a Personal Meeting Room PIN for a given user. Which code completes the code to create the request?

A. xmlhttp.open(“GET”, “https://cisco.webex.com/WBXService/XMLService”);

B. xmlhttp.open(“PATCH”, “https://cisco.webex.com/WBXService/XMLService”);

C. xmlhttp.open(“PUT”, “https://cisco.webex.com/WBXService/XMLService”);

D. xmlhttp.open(“POST”, “https://cisco.webex.com/WBXService/XMLService”);

Correct Answer: D

The post method can be used for the HTTP requests that set up a personal meeting room PIN for a user.

Question 12:
300-920 questions 12

Refer to the exhibit. Assume that there is already a connection to a device for this jsxapi.code snippet. Which snippet completes the code so that the connected device makes a call to the user [email protected]?

300-920 questions 12-1

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://github.com/CiscoDevNet/labs-xapi/pull/12/files/40c9fc38e115f4dec4709836501a165008caeaba

Question 13:

Which two items are needed to give a Webex user the ability to archive all Webex Teams messages for an organization? (Choose two.)

A. Give the user “Read-only administrator privileges” in the Webex Control Hub.

B. Create an Integration app with all “spark_compliance” read scopes enabled.

C. Use the Webex Meetings XML API “SetUser” to update the user\’s “” value to “TRUE”.

D. Configure the user as a “Compliance Officer” in the Webex Control Hub.

E. Create a Bot app with all “webex_compliance” read scopes enabled.

Correct Answer: AD

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cloudCollaboration/spark/esp/Webex-Teams-Security-Frequently-Asked-Questions.pdf

Question 14:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the code segments to construct a script that carries out these functions:

1.

adds a new room

2.

adds two users, Bob, and Alice, to the room

3.

when both users have been added, send a welcome message

Select and Place:

300-920 questions 14

Correct Answer:

300-920 questions 14-1

Reference: https://github.com/webex/webex-js-sdk/tree/master/packages/node_modules/webex (see usage)

Question 15:

A company wants to adopt Webex Teams as a messaging platform and use REST APIs to automate the creation of teams and rooms. Which sequence of REST API requests is needed to create and populate a new Webex team and create a populated Webex room for the team?

A. POST /teams, POST /memberships, POST /rooms

B. POST /teams, POST /people, POST /rooms

C. POST /teams, POST /team/memberships, POST /rooms

D. POST /teams, POST /team/memberships, POST /rooms, POST /memberships

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://developer.webex.com/docs/api/basics


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New update CyberOps Associate 200-201 dumps with PDF and VCE

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Number of exam questionsExam nameFromRelease timePrevious issue
13Threat Hunting and Defending using Cisco Technologies for CyberOps (CBROPS)Lead4passNov 10, 2022200-201 dumps exam questions
NEW QUESTION 1:

What is the difference between inline traffic interrogation (TAPS) and traffic mirroring (SPAN)?

A. TAPS interrogation is more complex because traffic mirroring applies additional tags to data and SPAN does not alter the integrity and provides a full-duplex network.

B. SPAN results in more efficient traffic analysis, and TAPS is considerably slower due to latency caused by mirroring.

C. TAPS replicates the traffic to preserve integrity, and SPAN modifies packets before sending them to other analysis tools

D. SPAN ports filter out physical layer errors, making some types of analyses more difficult, and TAPS receives all packets, including physical errors.

Correct Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 2:

An analyst is exploring the functionality of different operating systems.

What is a feature of Windows Management Instrumentation that must be considered when deciding on an operating system?

A. queries Linux devices that have Microsoft Services for Linux installed
B. deploys Windows Operating Systems in an automated fashion
C. is an efficient tool for working with Active Directory
D. has a Common Information Model, which describes installed hardware and software

Correct Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 3:

Which type of attack occurs when an attacker is successful in eavesdropping on a conversation between two IP phones?

A. known-plaintext
B. replay
C. dictionary
D. man-in-the-middle

Correct Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 4:

Which information must an organization use to understand the threats currently targeting the organization?

A. threat intelligence
B. risk scores
C. vendor suggestions
D. vulnerability exposure

Correct Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 5:

What is the difference between tampered and untampered disk images?

A. Tampered images have the same stored and computed hash.
B. Tampered images are used as evidence.
C. Untampered images are used for forensic investigations.
D. Untampered images are deliberately altered to preserve evidence

Correct Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 6:

What are two social engineering techniques? (Choose two.)

A. privilege escalation
B. DDoS attack
C. phishing
D. man-in-the-middle
E. pharming

Correct Answer: CE

NEW QUESTION 7:
CyberOps Associate new 200-201 dumps exam questions 7

Refer to the exhibit. Where is the executable file?

A. info
B. tags
C. MIME
D. name

Correct Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 8:

Which metric should be used when evaluating the effectiveness and scope of a Security Operations Center?

A. The average time the SOC takes to register and assign the incident.
B. The total incident escalations per week.
C. The average time the SOC takes to detect and resolve the incident.
D. The total incident escalations per month.

Correct Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 9:

An engineer received an alert affecting the degraded performance of a critical server. Analysis showed a heavy CPU and memory load. What is the next step the engineer should take to investigate this resource usage?

A. Run “ps -d” to decrease the priority state of high-load processes to avoid resource exhaustion.
B. Run “ps -u” to find out who executed additional processes that caused a high load on a server.
C. Run “ps -ef” to understand which processes are taking a high amount of resources.
D. Run “ps -m” to capture the existing state of daemons and map the required processes to find the gap.

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://unix.stackexchange.com/questions/62182/please-explain-this-output-of-ps-ef-command

NEW QUESTION 10:

An engineer needs to have visibility on TCP bandwidth usage, response time, and latency, combined with deep packet inspection to identify unknown software by its network traffic flow. Which two features of Cisco Application Visibility and Control should the engineer use to accomplish this goal? (Choose two.)

A. management and reporting
B. traffic filtering
C. adaptive AVC
D. metrics collection and exporting
E. application recognition

Correct Answer: AE

NEW QUESTION 11:

Refer to the exhibit.

CyberOps Associate new 200-201 dumps exam questions 11

Which type of attack is being executed?

A. SQL injection
B. cross-site scripting
C. cross-site request forgery
D. command injection

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.w3schools.com/sql/sql_injection.asp

NEW QUESTION 12:

What is an attack surface as compared to a vulnerability?

A. any potential danger to an asset
B. the sum of all paths for data into and out of the environment
C. an exploitable weakness in a system or its design
D. the individuals who perform an attack

Correct Answer: C

An attack surface is the total sum of vulnerabilities that can be exploited to carry out a security attack. Attack surfaces can be physical or digital. The term attack surface is often confused with the term attack vector, but they are not the same thing. The surface is what is being attacked; the vector is the means by which an intruder gains access.

NEW QUESTION 13:

Which security model assumes an attacker within and outside of the network and enforces strict verification before connecting to any system or resource within the organization?

A. Biba
B. Object-capability
C. Take-Grant
D. Zero Trust

Correct Answer: D

Zero Trust security is an IT security model that requires strict identity verification for every person and device trying to access resources on a private network, regardless of whether they are sitting within or outside of the network perimeter.


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[Update Nov 01, 2022] CCNP Security 300-725 dumps from Lead4Pass with PDF and VCE

Lead4Pass has shared the latest 300-725 dumps exam questions and answers more than once, and today continues to share some free 300-725 exam questions and answers to help all candidates progress.

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Read the CCNP Security 300-725 exam questions and answers shared online today:

Number of exam questionsExam nameFromRelease timePrevious issue
15Securing the Web with Cisco Web Security Appliance (SWSA)Lead4PassNov 01, 2022300-725 dumps questions 1-15
New Question 16:

What causes authentication failures on a Cisco WSA when LDAP is used for authentication?

A. when the passphrase contains only 5 characters

B. when the passphrase contains characters that are not 7-bit ASCI

C. when the passphrase contains one of the following characters `@ # $ % ^\’

D. when the passphrase contains 50 characters

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-0/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide/b_WSA_UserGuide_appendix_011001.html

New Question 17:
new 300-725 exam questions 17

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about the transaction log is true?

A. The log does not have a date and time

B. The proxy had the content and did not contact other servers

C. The transaction used TCP destination port 8187

D. The AnalizeSuspectTraffic policy group was applied to the transaction

Correct Answer: D

New Question 18:

Which two features can be used with an upstream and downstream Cisco WSA web proxy to have the upstream WSA identify users by their client IP address? (Choose two.)

A. X-Forwarded-For

B. high availability

C. web cache

D. via

E. IP spoofing

Correct Answer: AD

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-0/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide/b_WSA_UserGuide_chapter_0100.html

New Question 19:

Which information in the HTTP request is used to determine if it is subject to the referrer exceptions feature in the Cisco WSA?

A. protocol

B. version

C. header

D. payload

Correct Answer: C

Requests for embedded content usually include the address of the site from which the request originated (this is known as the “referer” field in the request\’s HTTP header). This header information is used to determine the categorization of the referred content.

Reference https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-0/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide/b_WSA_UserGuide_chapter_01100.html

New Question 20:

Which key is needed to pair a Cisco WSA and Cisco ScanCenter for CTA?

A. public SSH key that the Cisco WSA generates

B. public SSH key that Cisco ScanCenter generates

C. private SSH key that Cisco ScanCenter generates

D. private SSH key that the Cisco WSA generates

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-0/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide/b_WSA_UserGuide_chapter_010111.html

New Question 21:

Which behavior is seen while the policy trace tool is used to troubleshoot a Cisco WSA?

A. External DLP policies are evaluated by the tool

B. A real client request is processed and a EUN page is displayed

C. SOCKS policies are evaluated by the tool

D. The web proxy does not record the policy trace test requests in the access log when the tool is in use

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-0/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide/b_WSA_UserGuide_appendix_011001.html#con_1415277

New Question 22:

What are all of the available options for configuring an exception to blocking for referred content?

A. all embedded/referred and all embedded/referred except

B. selected embedded/referred except, all embedded/referred, and selected embedded/referred

C. selected embedded/referred and all embedded/referred except

D. all embedded/referred, selected embedded/referred, and all embedded/referred except

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-7/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide_11_7/b_WSA_UserGuide_11_7_chapter_01001.html (procedure)

New Question 23:

Which two parameters are mandatory to control access to websites with proxy authentication on a Cisco WSA? (Choose two.)

A. External Authentication

B. Identity-Enabled Authentication

C. Transparent User Identification

D. Credential Encryption

E. Authentication Realm

Correct Answer: DE

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-7/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide_11_7/b_WSA_UserGuide_11_7_appendix_010111.html

New Question 24:

Which configuration option is suitable for explicit mode deployment?

A. PAC

B. WCCP

C. ITD

D. PBR

Correct Answer: A

In explicit-mode deployment, users will point the proxy setting to WSA. This can be done by pointing directly to WSA or via a PAC (Proxy Auto-Config) file.

New Question 25:

Which two sources provide data to Cisco Advanced Web Security Reporting to create dashboards? (Choose two.)

A. Cisco WSA devices

B. Cisco ISE

C. Cisco ASAv

D. Cisco Security MARS

E. Cisco Cloud Web Security gateways

Correct Answer: AE

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/Advanced_Reporting/WSA_Advanced_Reporting_6/Advanced_Web_Security_Reporting_6_1.pdf

New Question 26:

Which statement about Cisco Advanced Web Security Reporting integration is true?

A. AWSR uses IP addresses to differentiate Cisco WSA deployments

B. AWSR does not require a license to index data

C. AWSR can remove log files after they are indexed

D. AWSR installation is CLI-based on Windows and Red Hat Linux systems

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/Advanced_Reporting/WSA_Advanced_Reporting_7/Advanced_Web_Security_Reporting_7_0.pdf

New Question 27:

Which two types of reports are scheduled on the Cisco WSA to analyze traffic? (Choose two.)

A. Layer 3 traffic monitor

B. URL categories

C. host statistics

D. application visibility

E. system capacity

Correct Answer: AD

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-0/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide/b_WSA_UserGuide_chapter_010101.pdf (8)

New Question 28:

Which two caches must be cleared on a Cisco WSA to resolve an issue in processing requests? (Choose two.)

A. authentication cache

B. application cache

C. logging cache

D. DNS cache

E. HTTP cache

Correct Answer: AD

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/web-security-appliance/118259-technote-wsa-00.html

New Question 29:

Which statement about configuring an identification profile for machine authentication is true?

A. Cloud Web Security Connector mode with an active directory enabled supports machine authentication

B. Identification profile machine ID is supported locally, but the Cisco WSA does not support machine ID authentication

C. Cloud Web Security with Kerberos enabled supports machine authentication

D. If an Active Directory realm is used, identification can be performed for an authenticated user or IP address but not for a machine ID

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-0/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide/b_WSA_UserGuide_chapter_01001.html

New Question 30:

Which two benefits does AMP provide compared to the other scanning engines on the Cisco WSA? (Choose two.)

A. protection against malware

B. protection against zero-day attacks

C. protection against spam

D. protection against viruses

E. protection against targeted file-based attacks

Correct Answer: BD

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/enterprise-networks/advanced-malware-protection/solution-overview-c22-734228.html


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Number of exam questionsExam nameFromRelease timePrevious issue
15Developing Solutions using Cisco IoT and Edge Platforms (DEVIOT)Lead4PassOct 10, 2022300-915 exam dumps questions (Q1-Q15)

Continue your DevNet Professional 300-915 DEVIOT exam knowledge:

New Question 16:

Which two states are applications expected to be seen in when they are managed on Cisco IOx? (Choose two.)

A. DEACTIVATED

B. ACTIVATED

C. ALLOWED

D. STOPPED

E. VALIDATED

Correct Answer: BD

New Question 17:

When an RS232 device is connected to a Cisco IR829 router, the data collected is not being parsed correctly by the edge application.

Which two steps should be taken to troubleshoot the issue? (Choose two.)

A. SSH access on the Cisco IR829 router must be enabled for IOx Guest OS.

B. Communication mode must be set to half duplex over a serial connection.

C. Serial cable length should not exceed 1.5 meters.

D. Ensure that communication parameters like baud rate and parity are set correctly.

E. Set the cable connections based on the PIN layout from the sensor vendor.

Correct Answer: DE

New Question 18:

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about MQTT messaging are true? (Choose two.)

A. Result in code 5 means the connection is accepted; result code 0 means the connection is “refused, not authorized”.

B. Redundant ClientIDs are supported by MQTT brokers.

C. MQTT does not support a “keep alive” functionality because it runs on top of TCP.

D. Result code 0 means the connection is accepted; result code 5 means the connection is “refused, not authorized”.

E. Brokers can send the Last Will and Testament messages on behalf of the client.

Correct Answer: DE

New Question 19:

How do the Cisco router (IR) and switch (IE) portfolios support edge data services?

A. Edge data services can be run and managed as containers using Cisco IOx.

B. Edge data services can run only in virtual machines on a separate compute layer.

C. Edge data services are aliases for IR/IE configuration services.

D. Edge data services run as separate instances only on virtual machines.

Correct Answer: C

New Question 20:

Refer to the exhibit. While troubleshooting an error on an application descriptor for a Docker app in Cisco IOx (package.YAML), the app type appears to be missing. Which app type must be added to the snippet to resolve the issue?

A. paas

B. docker-vm

C. docker

D. docker-app

Correct Answer: C

New Question 21:

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about data flow are true? (Choose two.)

A. Another AMQP broker should be implemented on the customer cloud.

B. Instead of AMQP, MQTT should be used for compatibility issues in a cloud-to-cloud connection.

C. A VPN tunnel is not necessary because the MQTT payload is encrypted by default.

D. The gateway must stay constantly connected to the Kinetic cloud to avoid blank data sets, even when using caching functions.

E. The Python application could use the paho-mqtt library.

Correct Answer: BE

New Question 22:

Which two statements define the mechanism for console access of the Guest Operating System from the Cisco IR829 router? (Choose two.)

A. The Guest OS can be accessed by default on Telnet port 2070 from the Cisco IR829 console.

B. The Guest OS console is available directly by the AUX port 3362 from the Cisco IR829 router.

C. The Guest OS can be accessed directly using the console port on the Cisco IR829 router.

D. The Guest OS can be accessed by initiating SSH from the Cisco IR829 console.

E. The Guest OS console is available only when a static IP is configured on the host.

Correct Answer: AD

New Question 23:

The environment for an Industrial IoT project in a large open pit mine is being scoped. The location has a large amount of dust and the device will be exposed to less than 1 meter of water temporarily.

When the edge device is being chosen, which Ingress protection rating must be used?

A. IP37

B. IP61

C. IP67

D. IP76

Correct Answer: C

New Question 24:

Which two statements about how to provision and manage data originators in a cloud environment are true? (Choose two.)

A. The provisioning of digital identities is the responsibility of the data originators.

B. Cloud providers offer services for automated device provisioning, which allows the lifecycle of the cloud representation for data originators to be managed.

C. Cloud providers offer application programming interfaces, which allow a programmatic provisioning of data originators.

D. There is no need to provision and manage access for data originators in the cloud.

E. access to public clouds must be configured and managed manually.

Correct Answer: CE

New Question 25:

Refer to the exhibit. Which line of code completes the Dockerfile?

A. RUN chmod 777 /usr/bin/sample.py

B. RUN chown root:root /usr/bin/sample.py

C. WORKDIR /usr/bin

D. USER root

Correct Answer: A

New Question 26:

As part of an IoT project, an organization is developing an application that will share multiple clients using a REST API.

Based on the software development process, what are two valid technical activities that can be suggested to secure the REST API that is developed during the development of the software? (Choose two.)

A. Respond to request failures in detail to allow users for easier troubleshoot.

B. Implement HTTP whitelisting to only methods that are allowed.

C. Implement and review audit logs for security-related events.

D. Reject HTTP methods that are invalid with an error code 404.

E. Implement physical firewalling and access control to the resources.

Correct Answer: BD

New Question 27:

Which two actions must be completed before starting the process of sending IoT data to the cloud via edge routers? (Choose two.)

A. Measure the voltage, power rating, and quiescent current for the sensors that send data to the cloud.

B. Gather the hardware (MAC) addresses of local and cloud routers to ensure low-latency communication.

C. Collect information about the CPU architecture in the cloud and edge to ensure that they match.

D. Gather the interval, the volume, and the latency that the data must be provisioned with.

E. Collect information about growth, required elasticity, and high availability of the provisioning process.

Correct Answer: DE

New Question 28:

After an application is deployed, potential issues arise around connectivity. As part of the troubleshooting process, the IP address must be determined to ensure end-to-end communication.

Which method provides the required details using the Cisco IOx CLI?

A. ioxclient application status

B. ioxclient application metrics

C. ioxclient application getconfig

D. ioxclient application info

Correct Answer: D

New Question 29:

Where are edge data services typically instantiated?

A. at the edge of the network

B. in the cloud

C. in the data center

D. in a private cloud

Correct Answer: A

New Question 30:

Refer to the exhibit. A new application has just been developed as a Docker container. What is the missing step for packaging the container ready for deployment in IOx?

A. Pull/push the image to the Docker registry.

B. Build the package.YAML files.

C. Build the package. cert file to sign the app.

D. Log in to the device manager and load the application.

Correct Answer: B


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Read CCNA 200-301 dumps exam questions and answers online:

Number of exam questionsRelease timeExam nameFromPrevious issue
15Sep 20, 2022Implementing and Administering Cisco Solutions (CCNA)Lead4PassSep 2, 2022
New Question 1:

DRAG DROP

A network engineer is configuring an OSPFv2 neighbor adjacency. Drag and drop the parameters from the left onto their required categories on the right. Not all parameters are used.

Select and Place:

CCNA 200-301 dumps exam q1

Correct Answer:

CCNA 200-301 dumps exam answer q1

New Question 2:

Drag and drop the threat-mitigation techniques from the left onto the types of threat or attack they mitigate on the right.

Select and Place:

CCNA 200-301 dumps exam q2

Correct Answer:

CCNA 200-301 dumps exam answer q2

Double-Tagging attack:

CCNA 200-301 dumps exam answer q2-1

In this attack, the attacking computer generates frames with two 802.1Q tags. The first tag matches the native VLAN of the trunk port (VLAN 10 in this case), and the second matches the VLAN of a host it wants to attack (VLAN 20).

When the packet from the attacker reaches Switch A, Switch A only sees the first VLAN 10 and it matches with its native VLAN 10 so this VLAN tag is removed. Switch A forwards the frame out all links with the same native VLAN 10. Switch B

receives the frame with a tag of VLAN 20 so it removes this tag and forwards it out to the Victim’s computer.

Note: This attack only works if the trunk (between two switches) has the same native VLAN as the attacker.

To mitigate this type of attack, you can use VLAN access control lists (VACLs, which apply to all traffic within a VLAN. We can use VACL to drop attacker traffic to specific victims/servers) or implement Private VLANs.

ARP attack (like ARP poisoning/spoofing) is a type of attack in which a malicious actor sends falsified ARP messages over a local area network as ARP allows a gratuitous reply from a host even if an ARP request was not received. This

results in the linking of an attacker\’s MAC address with the IP address of a legitimate computer or server on the network. This is an attack based on ARP which is at Layer 2. Dynamic ARP inspection (DAI) is a security feature that validates ARP packets in a network which can be used to mitigate this type of attack.

New Question 3:

Drag and drop the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller security settings from the left onto the correct security mechanism categories on the right.

Select and Place:

CCNA 200-301 dumps exam q3

Correct Answer:

CCNA 200-301 dumps exam answer q3

Layer 2 Security Mechanism includes WPA+WPA2, 802.1X, Static WEP, and CKIP while Layer 3 Security Mechanisms (for WLAN) includes IPSec, VPN Pass-Through, Web Passthrough …

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless/4400-series-wireless-lan-controllers/106082-wlc-compatibility-matrix.html

New Question 4:

Drag and drop the network protocols from the left onto the correct transport services on the right.

Select and Place:

CCNA 200-301 dumps exam q4

Correct Answer:

CCNA 200-301 dumps exam answer q4

New Question 5:

DRAG DROP

Refer to the exhibit.

CCNA 200-301 dumps exam q5

Drag and drop the networking parameters from the left onto the correct values on the right.

Select and Place:

CCNA 200-301 dumps exam q1-1

Correct Answer:

CCNA 200-301 dumps exam answer q1

The “IP route” and “IP addr show eth1” are Linux commands.

1.

“IP route”: display the routing table

2.

“IP addr show eth1”: get depth information (only on eth1 interface) about your network interfaces like IP Address, MAC Address information

New Question 6:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the AAA functions from the left onto the correct AAA services on the right.

Select and Place:

CCNA 200-301 dumps exam q6

Correct Answer:

CCNA 200-301 dumps exam answer q6

New Question 7:

Drag and drop the IPv4 network subnets from the left onto the correct usable host ranges on the right.

Select and Place:

CCNA 200-301 dumps exam q7

Correct Answer:

CCNA 200-301 dumps exam answer q7

This subnet question requires us to grasp how to subnet very well. To quickly find out the subnet range, we have to find out the increment and the network address of each subnet. Let\’s take an example with the subnet 172.28.228.144/18:

From the /18 (= 1100 0000 in the 3rd octet), we find out the increment is 64. Therefore the network address of this subnet must be the greatest multiple of the increment but not greater than the value in the 3rd octet (228). We can find out the 3rd octet of the network address is 192 (because 192 = 64 * 3 and 192 < 228) -> The network address is 172.28.192.0. So the first usable host should be 172.28.192.1 and it matches with the 5th answer on the right. In this case, we don\’t need to calculate the broadcast address because we found the correct answer.

Let\’s take another example with subnet 172.28.228.144/23 -> The increment is 2 (as /23 = 1111 1110 in 3rd octet) -> The 3rd octet of the network address is 228 (because 228 is the multiply of 2 and equal to the 3rd octet) -> The network address is 172.28.228.0 -> The first usable host is 172.28.228.1. It is not necessary but if we want to find out the broadcast address of this subnet, we can find out the next network address, which is 172.28. (228 + the increment number).0 or

172.28.230.0 then reduce 1 bit -> 172.28.229.255 is the broadcast address of our subnet. Therefore the last usable host is 172.28.229.254.

New Question 8:

Drag and drop the descriptions of file-transfer protocols from the left onto the correct protocols on the right.

Select and Place:

CCNA 200-301 dumps exam q8

Correct Answer:

CCNA 200-301 dumps exam answer q8

New Question 9:

Drag-drop the descriptions from the left onto the correct configuration-management technologies on the right.

Select and Place:

CCNA 200-301 dumps exam q9

Correct Answer:

CCNA 200-301 dumps exam answer q9

The focus of Ansible is to be streamlined and fast and to require no node agent installation. Thus, Ansible performs all functions over SSH. Ansible is built on Python, in contrast to the Ruby foundation of Puppet and Chef.

TCP port 10002 is the command port. It may be configured in the Chef Push Jobs configuration file. This port allows Chef Push Jobs clients to communicate with the Chef Push Jobs server.

Puppet is an open-source configuration management solution, which is built with Ruby and offers custom Domain Specific Language (DSL) and Embedded Ruby (ERB) templates to create custom Puppet language files, offering a declarative-

paradigm programming approach.

A Puppet piece of code is called a manifest and is a file with a .pp extension.

New Question 10:

Drag and drop the WLAN components from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right.

Select and Place:

CCNA 200-301 dumps exam q10

Correct Answer:

CCNA 200-301 dumps exam answer q10

The service port can be used for management purposes, primarily for out-of-band management. However, AP management traffic is not possible across the service port. In most cases, the service port is used as a “last resort” means of accessing the controller GUI for management purposes. For example, in the case where the system distribution ports on the controller are down or their communication to the wired network is otherwise degraded.

A dynamic interface with the Dynamic AP Management option enabled is used as the tunnel source for packets from the controller to the access point and as the destination for CAPWAP packets from the access point to the controller. The virtual interface is used to support mobility management, Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) relay, and embedded Layer 3 security such as guest web authentication. It also maintains the DNS gateway hostname used by Layer 3 security and mobility managers to verify the source of certificates when Layer 3 web authorization is enabled.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/8-5/config-guide/b_cg85/ports_and_interfaces.html

New Question 11:

Drag and drop the functions from the left onto the correct network components on the right.

Select and Place:

CCNA 200-301 dumps exam q11

Correct Answer:

CCNA 200-301 dumps exam answer q11

Refer to the exhibit.

CCNA 200-301 dumps exam answer q11-1

New Question 12:

Drag and drop the routing table components on the left onto the corresponding letter from the exhibit on the right. not all options are used.

Select and Place:

CCNA 200-301 dumps exam q12

Correct Answer:

CCNA 200-301 dumps exam answer q12

New Question 13:

Drag and drop each broadcast IP address on the left to the Broadcast Address column on the right. Not all options are used.

Select and Place:

CCNA 200-301 dumps exam q13

Correct Answer:

CCNA 200-301 dumps exam answer q13

New Question 14:

An interface has been configured with the access list that is shown below.

CCNA 200-301 dumps exam q14

On the basis of that access list, drag each information packet on the left to the appropriate category on the right.

Select and Place:

CCNA 200-301 dumps exam answer q14

Correct Answer:

CCNA 200-301 dumps exam answer q14-1

New Question 15:

Order the DHCP message types as they would occur between a DHCP client and a DHCP server.

Select and Place:

CCNA 200-301 dumps exam q15

Correct Answer:

CCNA 200-301 dumps exam answer q15

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The latest Cisco 300-425 Dumps exam questions and answers are shared online:

Number of exam questionsUpdate timeExamPrevious issue
15Sep 13, 2022Designing Cisco Enterprise Wireless Networks (ENWLSD) (300-425)
Question 1:

Which UDP port numbers are used for exchanging mobility packets in an AireOS wireless deployment?

A. UDP 16666 for the control plane, EoIP (IP protocol 97) for the data plane

B. UDP 16668 for control plane, UDP 16667 for data plane

C. UDP 16667 for control plane, UDP 16666 for data plane

D. UDP 16666 for control plane, UDP 16667 for data plane

Correct Answer: D

Reference:

300-425 dumps questions 1

Question 2:

A customer asks an engineer to explain the concept of mobility domains and mobility groups. Which statement does the engineer respond with?

A. A mobility group does not constrain the distribution of the security context of a client and also does not constrain AP fail-over between controllers when the WLC is in the same mobility domain.

B. If WLCs are in the same mobility domain, they communicate with each other but, if an anchor WLC is present it must be in the same mobility domain for communication to be possible.

C. If WLCs are in the same mobility domain, they communicate with each other. Mobility groups constrain the distribution of the security context of a client and also constrain AP fail-over between controllers.

D. WLCs do not need to be in the same mobility domain to communicate with each other. Mobility groups constrain the distribution of the security context of a client and also constrain AP fail-over between controllers.

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/8-0/configuration-guide/b_cg80/b_cg80_chapter_010011.html

Question 3:

An engineer is designing a wireless deployment for a university auditorium. Which two features can be used to help deal with the issues introduced by high AP count? (Choose two.)

A. TSPEC

B. RXSOP

C. TPC

D. LSS

E. DFS

Correct Answer: CE

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless-mobility/80211/200069-Overview-on-802-11h-Transmit-Power-Cont.html

Question 4:

A wireless engineer is designing a wireless network to support real-time applications over wireless. Which IEEE protocol must the engineer enable on the WLC so that the number of packets that are exchanged between an access point and client is reduced and fast roaming occurs?

A. 802.11w

B. 802.11r

C. 802.11i

D. 802.11k

Correct Answer: B

Reference:

300-425 dumps questions 4

Question 5:

A network administrator of a global organization is collapsing all controllers to a single cluster located in central Europe. Which concern must be addressed?

A. Some channels may not be available consistently across the organization.

B. Different RF policies per office are not available in this configuration.

C. Syslog must be configured to the time zone of the NMS platform.

D. Centralized controllers cannot uniformly authenticate global users.

Correct Answer: C

Reference:

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/technotes/86/b_Cisco_Wireless_LAN_ Controller_Configuration_Best_Practices.html

Question 6:

An engineer must ensure that the new wireless LAN deployment can support seamless roaming between access points using a standard based on an amendment to the 802.11 protocol. Which protocol must the engineer select?

A. 802.11i

B. 802.11ac

C. 802.11r

D. 802.11e

Correct Answer: C

Reference:

300-425 dumps questions 6

Question 7:

A network engineer is preparing for an office site survey with a height of 2.5 meters. Which three components are recommended to complete the survey? (Choose three.)

A. Use a battery pack to power APs B. Use a drawing of the office space to draw AP and client placements.

C. Use DoS attack on APs while measuring the throughput.

D. Use APs with directional antennas.

E. Use APs with external antennas.

F. Use APs with built-in antennas.

Correct Answer: ABF

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/technology/mesh/8-4/b_mesh_84/Site_Preparation_and_Planning.html#ID3405

Question 8:

A wireless engineer must optimize RF performance for multiple buildings with multiple types of construction and user density. Which two actions must be taken? (Choose two.)

A. Configure Flexconnect groups for each building.

B. Configure WMM profiles for each building.

C. Configure AP groups for each area type.

D. Configure RF profiles for each area type.

E. Enable DTPC on the network.

Correct Answer: CD

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/8-10/config-guide/b_cg810/configuring_ap_groups.html

Question 9:

A wireless engineer is hired to design a network for a technology company. The company campus has four buildings and a warehouse with access points that provide full wireless coverage as well as a pair of WLCs located in the core of the network. Which type of wireless architecture is being used?

A. unified deployment

B. autonomous deployment

C. centralized deployment

D. distributed deployment

Correct Answer: C

Reference:

300-425 dumps questions 9

Question 10:

Refer to the exhibit.

300-425 dumps questions 10

What is the main reason why the Wi-Fi design engineer took a different approach than installing the APs in the offices, even though that installation provides better coverage?

A. aesthetics

B. transmit power considerations

C. antenna gain

D. power supply considerations

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Mobility/emob30dg/RFDesign.html#wp10 00551

Question 11:

Where must the APs be mounted when used in a high-density wireless network to provide 6 dB to 20 dB of attenuation to a cell?

A. in the aisle

B. under the seat

C. above the stage

D. under the stage

Correct Answer: B

Reference:

300-425 dumps questions 11

Question 12:

A company wants to replace its existing PBX system with a new VoIP System that will include wireless IP phones. The CIO has concerns about whether the company\’s existing wireless network can support the new system. Which tool in Cisco Prime can help ensure that the current network will support the new phone system?

A. Location Readiness

B. Site Calibration

C. Map Editor

D. Voice Readiness

Correct Answer: D

Reference:

300-425 dumps questions 12

Question 13:

A rapidly expanding company has tasked its network engineer with wirelessly connecting a new cubicle area with Cisco workgroup bridges until the wired network is complete. Each of the 42 new users has a computer and VoIP phone. How many APs for workgroup bridging must be ordered to keep costs at a minimum while connecting all devices?

A. 4

B. 5

C. 6

D. 7

Correct Answer: A

Reference:

300-425 dumps questions 13

So, each AP will have 25 clients. Minimum 4 APs are sufficient.

Question 14:

Which two considerations must a network engineer have when planning for voice-over wireless roaming? (Choose two.)

A. Full reauthentication introduces gaps in a voice conversation.

B. Roaming time increases when using 802.1x + Cisco Centralized Key Management.

C. Roaming occurs when the phone has seen at least four APs.

D. Roaming occurs when the phone has reached 80 dBs or below.

E. Roaming with only 802.1x authentication requires full reauthentication.

Correct Answer: AE

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Mobility/vowlan/41dg/vowlan41dg-book/vowlan_ch5.html

Question 15:

An engineer is designing a wireless network that will support many different types of wireless clients. When conducting the survey, which client must be used to ensure a consistent experience for all of the wireless clients?

A. the client that has the highest RF properties

B. the client that is used most by the company

C. the client that is used least by the company

D. the client with the worst RF characteristics

Correct Answer: D

Reference:

300-425 dumps questions 15

https://documentation.meraki.com/MR/WiFi_Basics_and_Best_Practices/Conducting_Site_Surveys_ with_MR_Access_Points

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Latest Cisco 300-910 Dumps exam questions online practice test

New Question 1:

A DevOps engineer must validate the working state of the network before implementing a CI/CD pipeline model. Which configuration management tool is designed to accomplish this?

A. Jenkins

B. Genie CLI

C. Travis CI

D. Python YAML data libraries

Check answer

New Question 2:

A CI/CD pipeline that builds infrastructure components using Terraform must be designed. A step in the pipeline is needed that checks for errors in any of the .tf files in the working directory. It also checks the existing state of the defined infrastructure.

Which command does the pipeline run to accomplish this goal?

A. terraform plan

B. terraform check

C. terraform fmt

D. terraform validate

Check answer

New Question 3:
cisco 300-910 exam questions 3
cisco 300-910 exam questions 3

Refer to the exhibit. How should the Jenkins job be troubleshot based on the error provided?

A. Verify what the responding file created.

B. Update pip.

C. Install dependencies.

D. Place the code in a container and run the job again.

Check answer

New Question 4:

Which description of a canary deployment is true?

A. deployment by accident

B. deployment that is rolled back automatically after a configurable amount of minutes

C. deployment relating to data mining development

D. deployment to a limited set of servers or users

Check answer

New Question 5:
cisco 300-910 exam questions 5

Refer to the exhibit. What is causing the requests code to fail?

A. Rython3 is not compatible with requests.

B. The requests library is not imported.

C. The requests library is not installed.

D. The requests coming into stdin fail because device_ip cannot be parsed.

Check answer

New Question 6:

Which two actions help limit the attack surface of your Docker container? (Choose two.)

A. Run only a single service in each container.

B. Run all services in a single image.

C. Use version tags for base images and dependencies.

D. Use Kali Linux as a base image.

E. Download images over HTTPS supporting sites.

Check answer

New Question 7:

A DevOps engineer has built a container to host a web server and it must run as an executable. Which command must be configured in a Dockerfile to accomplish this goal?

A. ENTRYPOINT

B. ENTRYPOINT [“/usr/sbin/apache2ctl”, “-D”, “FOREGROUND”]

C. ENTRYPOINT [“BACKGROUND”, “-D”, “/usr/sbin/apache2ctl”]

D. ENTRYPOINT {usr/sbin/apache2ctl}

Check answer

New Question 8:

A company has experienced serious growth and the hosted applications are getting more and more hits. Based on the increased workload, applications have started to show signs of reduced performance, which is affecting the user experience.

Which two server metrics should be tracked to ensure that the customer experience remains within acceptable limits? (Choose two.)

A. application feature sprawl

B. CPU peak usage

C. CPU average usage

D. microservices count

E. CPU frequency

Check answer

New Question 9:
cisco 300-910 exam questions 9

Refer to the exhibit. What is the reason for this error message?

A. The required dependencies for the urllib3 module are not installed.

B. The requests module is not installed.

C. The required dependencies for the requests module are not installed.

D. The site-packages directory has been corrupted.

Check answer

New Question 10:
cisco 300-910 exam questions 10

Refer to the exhibit. What is the user doing with Drone in this automated test?

A. testing Alpine Linux versus Ubuntu Linux

B. testing a PostgreSQL DB against multiple architectures

C. testing only the amd64 architecture

D. testing PostgreSQL deployment in an Alpine Linux VM

Check answer

New Question 11:

An interface on a router as a Layer 3 link has been configured to another device by updating an Ansible playbook that is executed via a CI/CD pipeline. The Ansible playbook was written to push the configuration change using the ios_config module.

Which automated test validates that the interface is functioning as it should?

A. Add a pipeline step that runs the playbook a second type. If it does not modify the device on the second run, then the interface is correctly configured.

B. Automated testing is already built in because the playbook execution is successful only after Ansible validates that it applied the change.

C. Add a pipeline step that captures and parses the packet flow for the interface.

D. Add a pipeline step that captures and parses the show IP interface output so that the operational state can be referenced.

Check answer

New Question 12:

Which two characteristics of a build tool that is used in an automated build pipeline? (Choose two.)

A. It runs unit tests against code that is committed.

B. It builds your software in the production environment.

C. It builds your software when changes are committed.

D. It builds your software every 500 milliseconds.

E. It must have a plug-in for Puppet and Maven.

Check answer

New Question 13:
cisco 300-910 exam questions 13

Refer to the exhibit. A developer needs to scale the existing pods within the worked nodes. Which object should be edited to achieve this goal?

A. ReplicaSet

B. PriorityClass

C. Deployment

D. Pod

Check answer

New Question 14:

When static routes are added to a router in a network using a CI/CD pipeline, an Ansible playbook is used to make these changes. Which steps must be added to the pipeline to validate that the changes have the intended effect on the traffic flow?

A. Add a step to run the debug IP routing command before the change, and add a step after the change to issue the no debug IP routing command.

B. Add a step to capture the routing table before the change, and add a step after the change to capture it again. Calculate the difference between the two for review.

C. Add a step to ping a host on each of the static routes before the change, and a step after to repeat the same check. Calculate the difference between the two checks for review.

D. Add a step to run the same playbook again with the debug option enabled and use grep on the log output to ensure that the commands are not applied again.

Check answer

New Question 15:

A DevOps engineer is supporting a containerized application with multiple components running across the Kubernetes cluster. Metrics from the container (CPU and memory) and application (requests per second and heap size) are being collected by Prometheus and displayed with Grafana. Users report transaction timeout problems with the application, but the metric graphs all look within normal levels.

Which type of failure would prevent the engineer from seeing the problem using the captured metrics?

A. Grafana has lost connectivity to Prometheus, which causes graphs to display only the cached data.

B. CPU and memory metrics from Kubernetes nodes are not accurate due to the way that containers share resources.

C. Some containers are crashing regularly and being restarted automatically by Kubernetes.

D. The metric beat agent has crashed and is no longer sending new data to Prometheus, so the metrics are not updating.

Check answer

Verify answer:

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Download the Cisco 300-910 PDF 2022 Timeline:

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