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Exam 98-367: Security fundamentals – Microsoft: https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-98-367.aspx

Skills measured

  • Understand security layers (25–30%)
  • Understand operating system security (35-40%)
  • Understand network security (20–25%)
  • Understand security software (15–20%)

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Latest effective Microsoft IT Infrastructure 98-367 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
Where should you lock up the backup tapes for your servers?
A. The server room
B. A filing cabinet
C. The tape library
D. An offsite fire safe
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Backup tapes should be stored off site, preferably in a fire safe, so that the data is available should a fire, flood, or other
disaster affect the location were the servers are.


QUESTION 2
Password history policies are used to prevent:
A. Brute force attacks
B. Users from sharing passwords
C. Social engineering
D. Passwords from being reused immediately
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
This security setting determines the number of unique new passwords that have to be associated with a user account
before an old password can be reused. The value must be between 0 and 24 passwords. This policy enables
administrators to enhance security by ensuring that old passwords are not reused continually. Reference:
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc758950(v=ws.10).aspx


QUESTION 3
Role separation improves server security by:
A. Enforcing principle of least privilege.
B. Installing applications on separate hard disks.
C. Physically separating high security servers from other servers.
D. Placing servers on separate VLANs.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation


QUESTION 4
When conducting a security audit the first step is to:
A. Inventory the company\\’s technology assets
B. Install auditing software on your servers
C. Set up the system logs to audit security events
D. Set up a virus quarantine area
Correct Answer: A
Explanation


QUESTION 5
Setting a minimum password age restricts when users can:
A. Request a password reset
B. Change their passwords
C. Log on by using their passwords
D. Set their own password expiration
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Configure the minimum password age to be more than 0 if you want Enforce password history to be effective. Without a
minimum password age, users can cycle through passwords repeatedly until they get to an old favorite.


QUESTION 6
Basic security questions used to reset a password are susceptible to:
A. Hashing
B. Social engineering
C. Network sniffing
D. Trojan horses
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Self-service_password_reset


QUESTION 7
The certificate of a secure public Web server on the Internet should be: A. Issued by a public certificate authority (CA)
B. Signed by using a 4096-bit key
C. Signed by using a 1024-bit key
D. Issued by an enterprise certificate authority (CA)
Correct Answer: A
Explanation


QUESTION 8
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. Each correct selection is
worth one point.
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QUESTION 9
The Windows Firewall protects computers from unauthorized network connections.
Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select “No change is needed\\’\\’ if
the underlined text makes the statement correct.
A. Email viruses
B. Phishing scams
C. Unencrypted network access
D. No change is needed
Correct Answer: D
Explanation


QUESTION 10
Which attack listens to network traffic of a computer resource?
A. Resource gathering
B. Denial of service
C. ARP poisoning
D. Eavesdropping
E. Logic bomb
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Eavesdropping In general, the majority of network communications occur in an unsecured or “cleartext” format, which
allows an attacker who has gained access to data paths in your network to “listen in” or interpret (read) the traffic. When
an attacker is eavesdropping on your communications, it is referred to as sniffing or snooping. The ability of an
eavesdropper to monitor the network is generally the biggest security problem that administrators face in an enterprise.
Without strong encryption services that are based on cryptography, your data can be read by others as it traverses the
network.


QUESTION 11
Cookies impact security by enabling: (Choose two.)
A. Storage of Web site passwords.
B. Higher security Web site protections.
C. Secure Sockets Layer (SSL).
D. Web sites to track browsing habits.
Correct Answer: AD
Explanation
Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/HTTP_cookie


QUESTION 12
You have two servers that run Windows Server. All drives on both servers are formatted by using NTFS. You move a
file from one server to the other server. The file\\’s permissions in the new location will:
A. Enable full access to the everyone group
B. Restrict access to the Administrators group
C. Inherit the destination folder\\’s permissions
D. Retain the original folder\\’s permissions
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
You can modify how Windows Explorer handles permissions when objects are copied or moved to another NTFS
volume. When you copy or move an object to another volume, the object inherits the permissions of its new folder.


QUESTION 13
You suspect a user\\’s computer is infected by a virus. What should you do first?
A. Restart the computer in safe mode
B. Replace the computer\\’s hard disk drive
C. Disconnect the computer from the network
D. Install antivirus software on the computer
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

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Who should take this exam?

This exam validates that a candidate has fundamental security knowledge and skills. It can serve as a stepping stone to the Microsoft Certified Solutions Associate (MCSA) exams. It is recommended that candidates become familiar with the concepts and the technologies described here by taking relevant training courses. Candidates are expected to have some hands-on experience with Windows Server, Windows-based networking, Active Directory, anti-malware products, firewalls, network topologies and devices, and network ports.

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QUESTION 1
A laser printer has just had its toner cartridge removed and toner has leaked inside and out. The BEST method to
remove spilled toner, both inside and outside of the printer, is which of the following?
A. ESD vacuum
B. Maintenance kit
C. Damp towel
D. Compressed air
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 2
A customer wants to setup a SOHO wired network. The customer needs assistance in setting up a static IP address on
three computers on the network. Which of the following is the BEST solution for the technician to implement?
A. Internet Options >Connection > Network > LAN settings > choose Proxy server, type in the IP address
B. Windows Firewall > the Connections tab > Add Exception > Change Scope, type in the IP address
C. Internet Options > Advanced tab > LAN settings, type in the IP address
D. Local Area Connections >Properties > TCP/IP > Properties > General > Specify, type in the IP address
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 3
A technician is preparing to clean off a malware infection from a Windows XP PC. Which of the following should be
disabled prior to starting the cleaning process?
A. System Properties
B. System Restore
C. Remote Desktop
D. Automatic Updates
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 4
For any given 802.11n wireless Internet signal, which of the following is needed to establish a connection?
A. MAC address filtering
B. Windows password
C. Proper SSID
D. SSL certificate
Correct Answer: C
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/wireless/access_point/12.4_21a_JA1/configuration/guide
/scg12421aJA1-chap7-mbssid.html


QUESTION 5
A user\\’s personal laptop was hacked. A technician troubleshooting the issue discovers the user used the numbers
123456789 as their account password. The user has not changed the password in two years. Which of the following
best practices should the technician recommend the user implement to prevent future hacking? (Select TWO).
A. Configure screen saver
B. Set a strong password
C. Set login time restrictions
D. Use a more secure browser
E. Change the password frequently
Correct Answer: BE


QUESTION 6
Which of the following is MOST effective in preventing security breaches on a network? (Select THREE).
A. Bandwidth throttling
B. Eliminate password history
C. Enable QoS
D. Antivirus software
E. User education
F. Enforced login/logoff hours
Correct Answer: DEF
Reference: http://www.esecurityplanet.com/network-security/how-to-prevent-security- breaches-from-known-
vulnerabilities.html


QUESTION 7
When using a PC on a Windows Domain, which of the following is the MOST critical service when connecting to multiple
file, print, and email servers?
A. Internet Connection Sharing Service
B. Windows Firewall Service
C. Computer Browser Service
D. DNS Service
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 8
A small business owner is looking to assign users to a Windows group level. They have the following requirements for
these users, and stress that they should receive no more privileges than necessary:
The users should not be able to change passwords for higher level accounts.
The users need the ability to install software.
The users cannot create new accounts for others.
Which of the following group levels will BEST meet these needs?
A. Remote Desktop Users
B. Power Users
C. Standard Users
D. Administrators
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 9
Which of the following characteristics MOST separates a tablet from a laptop?
A. Lack of field serviceable parts
B. Lack of any storage medium
C. Lack of internal wireless
D. Lack of a touchscreen
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 10
A technician is attempting to upgrade a customer\\’s PC from Windows XP Professional to Windows 7 Professional x64.
The system contains a late generation Pentium 4 Processor with hyper-threading. The technician is having difficulty
installing the operating system as it consistently errors out during setup. Which of the following is MOST likely
happening?
A. Pentium 4 HT processors are 64-bit compatible but do not support the x64 instruction set.
B. The BIOS needs to be configured to enable x64 support.
C. Windows XP can only be directly upgraded to Windows 7 Home Basic and Home Premium editions.
D. Pentium 4 HT processors are not 64-bit compatible.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 11
A technician notices a computer is overheating after 30 minutes of use. Which of the following is the MOST likely
cause?
A. Clogged temporary file folders
B. Internal dust buildup
C. Incorrect input voltage setting
D. ACPI is disabled
Correct Answer: B
Reference: http://pcrepairaugustaga.com/computer-dust-free/


QUESTION 12
A user needs to replicate a large directory containing folders and files from one drive to another. It also contains several
empty folders needed for future growth. Which of the following commands should a technician use in order to
accomplish this task?
A. ATTRIB /S
B. RD /S
C. COPY /A
D. XCOPY /E
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 13
Which of the following will allow a company to implement the MOST cost-efficient way to easily identify whether a user
has secure access to particular areas of a building?
A. Require badges
B. Install retina scanners
C. Install firewalls
D. Require key fobs
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 14
A user has downloaded and installed a browser add-on that causes the browser to hang. The PC has very slow system
response when rebooted. Which of the following should a technician do to troubleshoot this problem?
A. Run System Restore, update antivirus program, and run an antivirus scan.
B. Remove all Internet temporary files, run an antivirus scan, and reboot using Last Known Good Configuration.
C. Remove all temporary files, turn off System Restore, update and run an antivirus scan.
D. Run an antivirus scan, Run Disk Cleanup, and reboot into Safe Mode.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 15
Which of the following is the correct UNC path to use when mapping a network drive?
A. \\share\password
B. \\share\server
C. \\server\username
D. \\server\share
Correct Answer: D
Reference: http://windows.microsoft.com/is-is/windows7/create-a-shortcut-to-map-a- network-drive


QUESTION 16
A computer is showing the “No boot device found” message even though a technician has verified that the hard drive is
set as Device 1 in the BIOS boot order. Which of the following causes is MOST likely at play?
A. A 40-pin cable was used instead of an 80-pin cable to connect the HDD.
B. The hard drive is disconnected.
C. The hard drive has corrupted sectors and needs a CHKDSK scan.
D. Both PATA devices are incorrectly set to the master jumper setting.
Correct Answer: D
Reference: http://wdc.custhelp.com/app/answers/detail/a_id/981/~/how-to-physically- install,-set-jumper-settings,-and-
set-up-a-serial-ata,-eide


QUESTION 17
Which of the following allows a Windows 7 remote user to edit a file offline then automatically update the changes when
back in the office?
A. Windows Defender
B. Sync Center
C. Windows Aero
D. HomeGroup
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 18
A user has a work laptop configured with a static IP. The user wants to be able to take the laptop home and connect it to
their router which uses DHCP. However, the user does not want to manually change their settings every day. Which of
the following is the BEST step the user could take to make this possible?
A. Setup a VPN on the laptop to store the work IP settings.
B. Use the Ethernet port at work and only use Wi-Fi while at home.
C. Install an additional NIC in the laptop to access the home network.
D. Place the static IP in the alternative field while using DHCP.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 19
A PC technician notices that the printers deployed via a new Group Policy are not showing up on the workstation. Which
of the following commands should be run on the PC?
A. extract
B. robocopy
C. gpupdate
D. tasklist
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 20
For the last year, a company has gathered statistics on the most common security incidents. The highest percentage
deals with opening email attachments that contain malware. Which of the following would mitigate this issue without
reducing productivity?
A. Annual cyber security education
B. Update antivirus signatures more often
C. Block all email attachments
D. Install an IPS on each workstation
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 21
Ann, a user, has brought her laptop in for service. She reports that her battery is at 100%, but whenever it is unplugged
it immediately shuts down. Which of the following should the technician do?
A. Replace the battery
B. Change power settings to balanced
C. Replace the power adapter
D. Enable APM in the BIOS
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: http://www.dummies.com/how-to/content/how-to-replace-your-laptop- battery.html


QUESTION 22
A computer program that functions normally while quietly installing malicious software on a machine is known as a:
A. DDoS attack.
B. Worm.
C. Phishing attack.
D. Trojan.
Correct Answer: D
Reference: http://computer.howstuffworks.com/trojan-horse.htm


QUESTION 23
A technician wants to create a customized list of common utilities that are easily accessible in the same location. Which
of the following tools would allow them to build such a list?
A. MSCONFIG
B. MMC
C. MSTSC
D. MSINFO32
Correct Answer: B
Reference: http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb742442.aspx


QUESTION 24
A user calls a technician and states that their computer shutdowns after about 15 minutes of being turned on. The user
also states that if they wait about an hour and turn the computer back on, it will function properly, but will shut down after
15 minutes as it did before. Which of the following should the technician check on the motherboard that could be
causing this problem?
A. SATA connection
B. CMOS battery
C. TPM chip
D. Capacitors
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 25
Which of the following security threats is BEST mitigated through proper user training?
A. A Worm
B. Rootkits
C. Social Engineering
D. Browser Adware
Correct Answer: C
Reference: http://www.veracode.com/blog/2013/03/hacking-the-mind-how-why-social- engineering-works/


QUESTION 26
Following an authorized person through a door or other security check point without showing proper identification or
defeating a security mechanism is known as which of the following?
A. Hacking
B. Emulating
C. Partitioning
D. Tailgating
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 27
Which of the following utilities will display a listing of active IP ports on the computer being tested?
A. NETSTAT
B. PING
C. IPCONFIG
D. TRACERT
Correct Answer: A
Reference: http://pcsupport.about.com/od/commandlinereference/p/netstat-command.htm


QUESTION 28
A user is trying to access an application on their home machine from work. The user sets up port forwarding on their
router but is still unable to connect to the application. Which of the following should be the user\\’s NEXT step in
resolving this issue?
A. Configure Wake-on-LAN for the NIC on the Work PC.
B. Configure a firewall exception on the Home PC.
C. Switch the Work PC network from “Work” to “Home”.
D. Disable the Windows firewall on the Home PC.
Correct Answer: B
Reference: http://windows.microsoft.com/is-is/windows7/open-a-port-in-windows-firewall


QUESTION 29
Joe, a technician, built a new computer for a customer. The computer has been setup with the appropriate operating
system, but when Joe boots the PC after configuration, he receives an invalid boot disk message. Which of the following
tools should he use to fix the issue?
A. Safe Mode with command prompt
B. Restore from a prior recovery point
C. MSCONFIG to disable startup programs
D. BIOS and change the boot order
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 30
A manager suspects a user has obtained movies protected by copyright using a torrent client. An incident response
technician responds and verifies the user has indeed been violating company policy. Which of the following would be
the next BEST step for this technician to perform?
A. Secure the workstation in a limited access facility.
B. Document the incident, purge all policy violating materials.
C. Immediately delete all unauthorized materials.
D. Reprimand the user and apply a content filter to their profile.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 31
A technician has successfully completed a gpupdate from a CMD box of a user\\’s PC and is ready to move to the next
user. Which of the following is the appropriate NEXT step? (Select TWO).
A. View the CMD process in Task Manager
B. Type EXIT at the command prompt and press Enter
C. Minimize the CMD box to the taskbar
D. Click the “x” in the top right of the CMD window
E. Select Switch User on the PC
Correct Answer: BD


QUESTION 32
A user has a nonfunctional computer that has two hard drives. The user needs to retrieve information from one of the
drives. Which of the following would be used?
A. Reformat bad hard drives
B. External enclosure
C. Reformat all hard drives
D. CHKDSK along with DEFRAG utility
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 33
After installing an updated video card driver in a Windows XP machine, a technician sees a blue screen of death
(BSOD). Which of the following would BEST help the technician repair the computer?
A. Update antivirus definitions
B. Run System Restore
C. Last Known Good Configuration
D. Factory pre-installation CD
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 34
An end user receives an unsolicited and unencrypted email containing a co-workers birth date and social security
number. The end user should immediately contact the IT department and report a violation of which of the following
policies?
A. DRM
B. EULA
C. IRP
D. PII
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 35
A technician has recently installed some new memory in a PC. When the computer is rebooted, the technician hears
loud noise coming from inside the case. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause?
A. The CPU is incompatible with the memory
B. Something is obstructing one of the fans
C. One of the hard drives is failing
D. The new memory is over heating
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 36
Which of the following options in Windows is the best way to secure a workstation?
A. Screensaver
B. User education
C. Disable Autorun
D. Complex password
E. ID badge
F. Key fob
G. Retinal scan
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 37
Which of the following utilities would a technician use on a Windows Vista or Windows 7 machine to configure what
applications are allowed to send/receive data over the LAN connection?
A. Users and Groups
B. Windows Firewall
C. Registry Editor
D. Task Scheduler
Correct Answer: B
Reference: http://windows.microsoft.com/en-us/windows7/products/features/windows- firewall


QUESTION 38
A technician has a list of IP addresses that the technician\\’s manager needs the network names for. Which of the
following commands would be used?
A. NBTSTAT – A
B. PING – t
C. NETSTAT ?o
D. NBTSTAT – a
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 39
A technician receives a trouble ticket about intermittent wireless on a user\\’s laptop while they are at home but not at
work. Which of the following could be the cause of this issue?
A. While at home, the user is too close to their access point
B. Encryption is set differently at home then at work
C. Cordless phone is interfering with signal at home
D. Laptop\\’s wireless is set to only work while at work
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 40
A customer calls an IT consultant to explain an issue they are having with their Windows 7 Professional PC. Windows
Update attempts to install patches upon each startup but fails on the same single update. The customer has attempted
to re-run Windows Update from Control Panel but the issue remains. Which of the following courses of action would
BEST resolve the problem?
A. Running a full DEFRAG on the system
B. Clearing the AppData temp folder entirely
C. Clearing the Windows Update download cache entirely
D. Uninstalling the Windows Update feature in Windows 7 and reinstalling it directly from the Microsoft website
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
A technician is notified that a laptop is not booting. It is discovered that there are no system lights, sounds, or display
when the power button is pressed. Which of the following should the technician attempt FIRST in the troubleshooting
process?
A. Connect an external monitor into the laptop to determine if the LCD has failed.
B. Boot the system from either a boot CD or other removable media type.
C. Disconnect the AC and battery power and hold the power button for several seconds.
D. Remove any hard drives or optical drives, RAM, and any wireless cards or USB devices from the laptop.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 2
Which of the following are examples of multimedia devices? (Select TWO).
A. Scanner
B. Digitizer
C. Webcam
D. Microphone
E. Touchscreen
Correct Answer: CD
Multimedia is the integration of multiple forms of media. This includes text, graphics, audio, video, etc. For example, a
presentation involving audio and video clips would be considered a “multimedia presentation.” Educational software that
involves animations, sound, and text is called “multimedia software.” CDs and DVDs are often considered to be
“multimedia formats” since they can store a lot of data and most forms of multimedia require a lot of disk space.
Webcam incorporates both audio and video. Similarly, microphone is a multimedia device because it incorporates sound
and it can also be used for various applications. Touchscreen, scanner and digitizer are input devices because they
require input from the user to function properly.


QUESTION 3
Which of the following features of Windows allows a device to have a default IP address if a DHCP server is not
available?
A. APIPA
B. ARP
C. IPv6
D. DNS
Correct Answer: A
Reference. http://compnetworking.about.com/cs/protocolsdhcp/g/bldef_apipa.htm


QUESTION 4
In older laptop screens, the backlight is powered by which of the following?
A. A CCFL lamp
B. A gas
C. LEDs
D. OLED
Correct Answer: A
Reference. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cold_cathode


QUESTION 5
Which of the following is correct about differences in CAT5 and CAT6 connectors?
A. CAT5 connectors have locking tabs
B. CAT5 and CAT6 use the same connectors
C. CAT6 supports three different wiring standards
D. CAT6 connectors are longer for better contact
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 6
A technician is tasked with adding a Barcode Scanner to a user PC. Which of the following would MOST likely be used
to make the connection to the PC? (Select TWO).
A. RJ-45
B. Serial port
C. USB
D. DB-15
E. Infrared
Correct Answer: BC


QUESTION 7
Which of the following display connections has 15-pins?
A. RGB
B. VGA
C. DVI
D. HDMI
Correct Answer: B
Reference. http://pinouts.ru/Video/VGA15_pinout.shtml


QUESTION 8
A corporate technician has been tasked with providing a thin client PC for a new employee. Which of the following
configurations would be the MOST appropriate?
A. A PC with the maximum amount of supported RAM
B. A PC equipped with high end audio and video cards
C. A PC that meets the minimum requirements for running an OS
D. A PC with the most powerful processor
Correct Answer: C
A thin client is a bare minimum box of components that is used for simple tasks. A PC with minimum requirements to
run an OS can act as a thin client.


QUESTION 9
Which type of fire extinguishing technology should be used when encountering an electrical fire?
A. Class B fire extinguishers
B. Overhead sprinkler system
C. Water-based fire extinguishers
D. Non-water based extinguishers
Correct Answer: D
Reference. http://cs.adelaide.edu.au/~kevin/Wardens/extinguishers.html


QUESTION 10
A technician has replaced the NIC in a computer running Windows XP Professional and has properly installed the
device driver. The computer indicates the card has network connectivity, but the technician is unable to access the
Internet. Which of the following should the technician do NEXT to finish the NIC installation?
A. Change the computer and DNS server\\’s IP addresses in the Action Center
B. Use ipconfig to check the current settings and Network Connections to make changes
C. Assign the NIC an APIPA address using ipconfig and the network setup wizard
D. Reboot the computer and configure the necessary network settings in the BIOS
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 11
A technician has a desktop with two hard drives. The technician would like to configure a RAID array such that one drive
can fail, but data can still be accessed. Which of the following RAID types should the technician install?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 5
D. 6
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 12
The accounting department has requested a printer with a duplexing assembly. They most likely want to add which of
the following features?
A. Print in color on card stock
B. Print on both sides
C. Print on envelopes
D. Print on specialized paper
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 13
A network technician is in the process of setting up a university lab. The lab requires 23 workstations; the workstations
will need to be segregated from the rest of the network, with no wireless access, while limiting collisions. Which of the
following will satisfy these requirements while being the LEAST expensive?
A. Bridge
B. Switch
C. Router
D. Hub
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 14
Which of the following RAID types employs two identically sized disks and creates a mirror for data redundancy
purposes?
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 1+0
D. RAID 5
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 15
Which of the following connector types is used on a CAT5 cable?
A. RJ-45
B. DB-9
C. RJ-11
D. RS-232
Correct Answer: A
Reference. http://www.ertyu.org/steven_nikkel/ethernetcables.html


QUESTION 16
A user reports that the mobile device in use has a very dim display. Which of the following is a possible solution for this
issue?
A. Perform a soft reset
B. Adjust configurations/settings
C. Reinstall the OS
D. Replace the power cord
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 17
Which of the following devices uses both light and a lens to facilitate data warehousing?
A. Digitizer
B. Touch screen
C. Barcode reader
D. Camera
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 18
A workstation would MOST likely be connected to an office network using which of the following cable types?
A. eSATA
B. Bluetooth
C. SCSI
D. Ethernet
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 19
The technician is installing a new video card. Which of the following actions should the technician perform prior to
installation?
A. Disconnect power supply from motherboard.
B. Disconnect UPS from the wall\\’s electrical outlet.
C. Disconnect Power over Ethernet (PoE) cable.
D. Disconnect power from the workstation\\’s power supply.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 20
A technician replaces a defective 250GB hard drive in a desktop with a 2TB hard drive. After installation, the computer
detects the new 2TB drive as a 250GB drive. Which of the following should the technician do to fix this issue?
A. Reinstall the drive
B. Patch the OS
C. Upgrade the driver
D. Flash the BIOS
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 21
A user is printing pictures to the color laser printer and the bottom half of the picture is faded. The printer is displaying
no errors. Which of the following is the MOST likely resolution to the problem?
A. Replace the printer ribbon.
B. Replace the pickup assembly.
C. Replace the fuser.
D. Replace the print head.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 22
Which of the following are the MOST important considerations when configuring a PC that will be used for a CAD / CAM
workstation? (Select TWO).
A. Gigabit NIC
B. HDMI output
C. Maximum RAM
D. Powerful processor
E. High end audio output
Correct Answer: CD
Reference. http://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=499107


QUESTION 23
Which of the following connectors would terminate a POTS connection?
A. BNC
B. F
C. RJ-45
D. RJ-11
Correct Answer: D
Reference. http://www.danlipofsky.com/technical/ethernet/


QUESTION 24
Which of the following would be used to connect two remote sites?
A. Switch
B. Access point
C. Router
D. Hub
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 25
Which of the following uses policies to direct network traffic?
A. Router
B. Switch
C. Access Point
D. Bridge
Correct Answer: A
Reference. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Policy-based_routing


QUESTION 26
A user would like to share a local USB printer with several users in the office. Which of the following methods would
BEST accomplish this?
A. Install shared PCL drivers
B. Install a USB hub
C. Install a print server
D. Enable print sharing
Correct Answer: D
Reference. http://windows.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-vista/enable-file-and- printer-sharing


QUESTION 27
Which of the following should be removed prior to replacing or upgrading memory in a laptop?
A. Hard drive
B. Optical drive
C. Wireless card
D. Battery
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 28
Which of the following should a technician do FIRST after receiving a call from a customer asking for assistance?
A. Confirm the user and the associated issue.
B. Confirm the hardware make, model, and serial number.
C. Escalate the call to a supervisor.
D. Assign the appropriate status for the problem.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 29
A technician works for a company that has virtual servers and virtual desktops. The company hires a user who only
needs to access the virtual desktops. Which of the following is the MOST cost- effective workstation to purchase?
A. Thin client
B. Gaming PC
C. CAD PC
D. Thick client
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 30
A technician is asked to recommend hardware for a new computer for a graphic artist company that regularly uses 3-D
animation software. Which of the following components should be chosen to BEST meet the customer\\’s needs?
A. Specialized video card
B. Multi-core processor
C. TV tuner/recorder
D. Tape backup drive
Correct Answer: A
A high end special video card is needed to render 3D animation. Without a good video card, a graphic artist cannot work
properly on a computer creating 3D animation.


QUESTION 31
Which of the following channels, when used in close proximity to one another, provide the BEST protection against
crosstalk?
A. 1 and 11
B. 2 and 10
C. 6 and 1
D. 6 and 11
Correct Answer: A
Reference. http://www.dci.ca/?Section=ProductsandSubSection=WiFi-FAQ


QUESTION 32
Which of the following is an example of a Class C TCP/IP address?
A. 23.54.35.225
B. 127.0.0.0
C. 131.55.30.210
D. 197.27.37.57
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 33
Which of the following wireless technologies is primarily setup for video/audio and the frequency is 5 GHz?
A. Cellular
B. 802.11a
C. 802.11b
D. Satellite
Correct Answer: B
Reference. http://compnetworking.about.com/cs/wireless80211/g/bldef_80211a.htm


QUESTION 34
A technician is asked to verify that a CAT5 patch cord, created by another technician, is in working order. Which of the
following tools should the technician use to verify the patch cord?
A. Multimeter
B. Toner probe
C. Loopback plug
D. Cable tester
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 35
Which of the following devices is MOST likely to outperform a 15,000 rpm SAS hard drive in read speed?
A. Compact flash
B. SSD
C. Tape
D. SD
Correct Answer: B
Reference. http://www.8088.net/blog/index.php/2011/01/24/iops-comparison-solid- state-drive-
ssd-15000-7200-5900-5600-rpm/?lang=en


QUESTION 36
A brownout has occurred within a building. A technician is repairing a workstation which has a power light, but is not
displaying anything on the screen and is not making any sounds during boot up. Which of the following should be used
to further troubleshoot the workstation?
A. Loop back plug
B. POST card
C. Power supply tester
D. Multimeter
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 37
A technician receives a maintenance kit in the mail for a printer. The maintenance kit contains a fuser, a pickup roller,
and four paper rollers. Into which of the following types of printers should this maintenance kit be installed?
A. Impact
B. Laser
C. Thermal
D. Inkjet
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 38
A new security flaw and fix has been published about a laptop\\’s OS. Which of the following can be implemented to
prevent exploitation?
A. Enable screen lock
B. Patching policy
C. User training
D. Enable hard drive encryption
Correct Answer: B
Reference. http://www.computerweekly.com/feature/Microsoft-patch-management- policy


QUESTION 39
Which of the following laptop accessories would MOST likely be used to support multiple displays when the laptop
hardware does not have multiple video outputs?
A. Docking station
B. VGA to DVI converter
C. Adjustable monitor arm
D. PCMCIA card
Correct Answer: A
Reference. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Docking_station


QUESTION 40
A workstation has a network link light, but it cannot access internal network resources. Which of the following is the
MOST likely cause of the issue?
A. Slow transfer speeds
B. IP address conflict
C. Incorrect gateway
D. Packet collisions
Correct Answer: B

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Latest effective Cisco 300-370 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
A WLAN was installed at a high AP density. DTPC is lowering the transmit power of many APs too low.
Which change m the DTPC transmit power threshold must be made to allow APs to globally increase AP transmit power
by 3dBm?
A. from 70 dBm to 73 dBm
B. from -70 dBm to -73 dBm
C. from 70 dBm to 67 dBm
D. from -70 dBm to -67 dBm
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 2
A Cisco WLC v7.0 is not seeing an AP join. Which starting prefix debug command can help determine a combination of
discovery/join and DHCP process status?
A. debug capwap events – from Cisco WLC
B. debug capwap events – from the AP
C. debug ip udp – from Cisco WLC
D. debug ip udp – from the AP
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 3
An engineer is troubleshooting non-802.11 interference and observes the shown output. Which interference signature is
the most harmful to Wi-Fi? Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 300-370 exam question - q3A. cordless phone
B. microwave oven
C. 2 4 GHz wideband jammer
D. FHSS Bluetooth
E. analog video camera
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 4
A company consists of two adjacent buildings, each with its own Cisco 5508 Wireless Controller with APs joined to the
controller in the building. The two controllers are configured identically except for interface IP addresses. Only one SSID
is
being used in both buildings. The clients in building A are not experiencing any connectivity issues, but (he clients in
building B report poor connections An engineer performs a site survey and finds co-channel interference, yet discovers
mac
Transmit Power Control was never performed on the APs and that Radio Resource Management is not functioning like it
does in building A Furthermore, the controllers are in the same RF group and controller A is elected RF leader.
Which action will improve client connections in building B?
A. Ensure WMM is enabled on the SSID
B. Manually select controller B as RF group leader.
C. Configure controller B to be in a separate RF group.
D. Doable the low data rates on the a radio and the b/g radio in building B.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 5
Which visual cue accurately describes a characteristic of the zone of impact displayed in Cisco Prime Infrastructure?
A. The closer the cirlce is to blue, the more localized the impact is.
B. The smaller the circle, the more localized the impact is.
C. The larger the circle, the more severe the impact is.
D. The more translucent the circle is, the more localized the impact is.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 6
A VoWLAN has been deployed at a customer site. and users report that audio is choppy in some areas The exhibit
captures a voice exchange between one phone that is associated to the AP at the end of the corridor (172.31 255 101)
and
another phone that is positioned in a conference room nearby. Which action enhances the voice application quality of
experience?
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 300-370 exam question - q6A. Change the basic rate configuration on the WLC to include 54 Mbps.
B. Change the WLAN QoS profile to platinum.
C. Decrease the AP power level.
D. Disable higher data rates on the controller.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 7
The AP is unable to join the controller. What is the cause of this error? Refer to the exhibit.
A. The controller code version is lower than the code of the AP attempting to join.
B. AP code is not the same as the controller and must download firmware.
C. AP model % not compatible with the controller code version.
D. The AP is riot conjured in the controller auth-list of acceptable APs.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 300-370 exam question - q8

A client reports being unable to log into the wireless network According to the output, which network information should
be verified?
A. the Failed Attempts log on the authentication server
B. that the AP has IP connectivity to the authentication server
C. that the user has an account on the authentication server
D. that the authentication and accounting configuration are correct
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 9
You have successfully configured HA and SSO using two Cisco 5508 Wireless LAN Controllers. You are able to access
the Active Primary WLC but are unable to access the Secondary Standby WLC. Which two methods will allow you to
access the standby unit? (Choose two.)
A. Via SSH to the Redundancy Management Interface.
B. Via Service Port Interface.
C. Via SSH to the Management Interface.
D. Via console connection.
Correct Answer: CD


QUESTION 10
An engineer is troubleshooting AP join issues on a wireless infrastructure. While gathering debugs, the engineer notices
that one of the commands may generate an excessive an excessive amount of data on the console. Which command
causes this to occur?
A. debug capwap detail enable
B. debug capwap errors enable
C. debug capwap info enable
D. debug capwap events enable
E. debug capwap packet enable
F. debug capwap payload enable
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 11
Which two statements about the WLAN are true? (Choose two)lead4pass 300-370 exam question - q11Refer to the exhibit. lead4pass 300-370 exam question - q11-1A. The client has a 5 GHz connection.
B. The client has authenticated.
C. The client is 802.11n capable.
D. The Cisco device is a 3600 series AP.
E. 802 11b data rates are disabled in this WLAN
Correct Answer: CE


QUESTION 12
Employees upgraded company issued OS devices. Which are configured to authenticate to the network using WPA2-
Eniefpnse 802 lx with LEAP As a result, the devices are no longer able to authenticate. Which action must the engineer
do
10 resolve the issue?
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 300-370 exam question - q12A. Redeploy the existing configuration profile.
B. Change LEAP certificate on the ACS server.
C. Reset the network settings on the devices.
D. Rejoin the enterprise network manually.
E. Deploy a new configuration profile with LEAP enabled
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 13
An engineer must open a support case with Cisco TAC. Which two commands verify the model and serial number of a
controller?(Choose two)
A. show sysinfo
B. show udi
C. show inventory
D. show boot
E. show tech-support
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 14
A client is failing EAP authentication and a debug shows that the server is sending an Access-Reject message. Which
action must you take to resolve authentication?
A. Verify that the Validate server certificate on the client is disabled.
B. Verify that the client certificates are from the proper CA and server certificate.
C. Verify that the client server certificate has the proper Windows OlDs.
D. Verify that the user account is the same in the client certificate.
E. Verify that the user is using the same password that is on the server
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 15
An engineer is using various techniques to discover and isolate rogues on the network. For which technique must the
engineer consider legal ramifications?
A. rogue AP containment
B. RF detection
C. switch port tracing
D. wire detection
E. Cisco Prime Infrastructure location services
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 16
A WLC receives a coverage hole detection alert from an AP. What two conditions must occur for the controller to
dynamically mitigate the situation? (Choose two.)
A. The AP serving the troubled client must currently have a power level 2 or lower.
B. The client must be able to dynamically raise its power level to match the new AP power.
C. The AP must be RF visible to additional APs on the other side of the coverage hole for calibration.
D. The client must have WMM-PS disabled to allow for the increased power usage.
E. The AP serving the troubled client must currently have a power level higher than 2.
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 17
A user reports being unable to connect to a server with a certain program while connected to wireless. Which
troubleshooting methodology can be used to begin the troubleshooting process?
A. top-down
B. shoot from the hip
C. follow the path
D. bottom-up
E. divide and conquer
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 18
Which statement about the join process of the access point is true? Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 300-370 exam question - q18A. The AP failed to join because the self-signed certificate of the AP was not correct on the controller.
B. The time on the controller is outside of the certificates validity time interval so the join phase failed.
C. The AP moved from this controller to its primary controller.
D. The AP successfully joined the controller.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 19
An engineer is troubleshooting access point placement issues and suspects that poor placement is causing connectivity
issues When running the show client detail command, the engineer notices this output Which option indicates
poor access point placement?
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 300-370 exam question - q19

A. excessive number of bytes sent compared to bytes received
B. high signal-to-noise ratio
C. excessive number of data retries
D. low ratio signal strength indicator
E. duplicate received packets
F. poor statistics for the last 90 seconds
Correct Answer: CD


QUESTION 20
Which three steps would a network engineer use to troubleshoot an AP join problem? (Choose three.)
A. Validate the STP configuration. 
B. Verify the ping AP from the controller.
C. Verify the ping AP from the client.
D. Verify that the AP is getting an address from the DHCP server.
E. I Validate the SNMP configuration.
F. Verify the authentication configuration parameters.
Correct Answer: ABF

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Latest effective Cisco 300-360 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer has determined that Cisco 7925 phones are roaming between 2.4 6Hz and 5 6Hz
radios on the same access points, which results in poor audio performance Which action must the engineer take to
mitigate this issue?
A. Enable TPCv2 to normalize the RF environment.
B. Configure EDCA parameters for Voice Optimized.
C. Configure the Cisco 7925 phone to only use 5 6Hz.
D. Enable Band Select on the WLAN
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 2
A Cisco 7925 phone at a client\\’s location is not registering with CUCM. The engineer analyzes a packet capture, sees
that the phone receives an IP, and downloads the proper configuration file from TFTP successfully. What type of
messages should the phone be sending at this point?
A. H.245
B. H.323
C. MCGP
D. SCCP
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 3
Which two options describe best practices that must be completed after a wireless installation is finished? (Choose
two.)
A. Make sure that there are no spaces between the devices on the rack that the Wireless Lan Controller isinstalled.
B. Consult with the customer to ensure that the IT staff has a complete set of design and installationdocuments.
C. Make sure the customer is aware that they should consider purchasing a support contract immediately afterthe
installation is complete.
D. Spend time with the customer to show them the controller GUI and inform them how they can reach theCisco TAC if
they have any problems.
E. Test all the customer\\’s wireless devices and applications to ensure they are working properly.
Correct Answer: BE


QUESTION 4
A customer is preparing to deploy a wireless network in a stadium and is identifying coverage area requirement for the
patrons in suite areas. Which two attributes are relevant to determining these coverage requirements? (Choose two.)
A. hours d operon
B. encryption type
C. authentication type
D. number of uses
E. device types
Correct Answer: CE


QUESTION 5
An engineer is assigned to assist a customer by estimating the number of access points needed to provide voice-grade
wireless coverage in a carpeted office space. How many access points should be estimated to cover this space of
roughly 38,000 square feet?
A. 17
B. 10
C. 6
D. 13
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 6
A customer has restricted the AP and antenna combinations for a design to be limited to one model integrated antenna
AP for carpeted spaces and one model external antenna AP, with high gain antennas for industrial, maintenance, or
storage areas. When moving between a carpeted area to an industrial area, the engineer forgets to change survey
devices and surveys several APs. Which option is the best to reduce the negative impact of the design?
A. Deploy the specified access points per area type.
B. Resurvey and adjust the design.
C. Increase the Tx power on incorrectly surveyed access points.
D. Deploy unsurveyed access points to the design.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 7
An engineer is preparing for an active site survey of a hospital and is informed that he or she should not enter any active
surgery suites. Which option describes how the engineer should address this restriction?
A. Conduct a passive wireless survey in the restricted areas.
B. Use the predictive AP placement tool on the wireless controller
C. Skip the area and estimate where to place the access points.
D. Arrange to perform survey activities after hours.
Correct Answer: A
Passive Survey
Passive surveys are surveys that are performed with a listen-only mode. The survey client never associates to the
access point (AP). Such surveys can be helpful when you look for rogue devices or you want a good gauge of downlink
RF
coverage from the infrastructure devices.
These can be accomplished with a passive survey:


QUESTION 8
An engineer is implementing Q0S for a new wireless voice network. Which two considerations should be identified first?
(Choose two.)
A. QoS marking
B. policing
C. QoS requirements
D. data traffic usage
E. traffic classification
Correct Answer: CE


QUESTION 9
A customer has deployed an N+N redundant wireless infrastructure. In this deployment, the access points have been
salt and peppered between controllers. What configuration would be necessary to cut down on the use of mobility
tunnels for voice clients?
A. mobility anchor
B. KIS based CAC
C. media session snooping
D. re-anchor roamed voice clients
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 10
An engineer is determining powering requirements for a P2P wireless link using Cisco Aironet 1572EC access points.
Which power method is valid for the access point?
A. 802.3af Power over Ethernet
B. Power over Cable
C. Cisco Inline Power
D. 802.3at Power over Ethernet
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 11
An engineer receives a digital image scanned from the floor plans of a facility to be surveyed for wireless survey and
imported it into Air Magnet Pro. However, the document contains no scale. Which action can the engineer take to most
accurately calibrate the size of the floor plan in Air Magnet?
A. Mark the length of a hallway, then count the ceiling tiles, multiply that number by 2 and enter that value.
B. Zoom in and mark across a hallway, then count the floor tiles across that hallway and enter that value.
C. Zoom in and mark a doorway, then size it at 3 feet because most doorways are 36 inches.
D. Mark the entire longest dimension of the floorplan, then use Google Earth to measure the correspondingoutside
dimension and enter that value.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 12
A wireless engineer is hired to troubleshoot wireless network issues and discovers that the customer is using 802 11 ac
access points with 80 MHz-wide channels in a high-density environment. Which solution addresses these issues?
A. Disable RRM on the WLC.
B. Disable TPC on the WLC
C. Decrease the channel width.
D. Increase the minimum data rate supported
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 13
When conducting a wireless survey at a customer facility, signal attenuation in an area that is surrounded by thick glass
walls is noted as 2dB. When configuring Cisco Prime Infrastructure, which obstacle should be placed in a map editor to
represent the impact the glass wall will have on the RF signal in the facility?
A. heavy door
B. thick wall
C. glass
D. light wall
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 14
IEEE 802.llk-2008 is an amendment to IEEE 80211-2007 standard for radio resource management. A wireless engineer
is designing a wireless network to support real time applications over wireless. Which IEEE protocol must the engineer
enable on the WLC so that neighbor list radio management packets are sent to the wireless devices?
A. 802.1 1r
B. 802.1 1w
C. 802.1 1i
D. 802.1 1k
Correct Answer: D
You can optimize roaming for non-802.11k clients by generating a prediction neighbor list for each client without sending
an 802.11k neighbor list request. When prediction based roaming enables a WLAN, after each successful client
association/re-association, the same neighbor list optimization applies on the non- 802.11k client to generate and store
the neighbor list in the mobile station software data structure. Clients at different locations have different lists because
the client probes are seen with different RSSI values by the different neighbors as the clients usually probe before any
association or re-association. This list is created with the most updated probe data and predicts the next AP that the
client is likely to roam to. https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/8-1/Enterprise-Mobility-8-1-Design-
Guide/Enter prise_Mobility_8-1_Deployment_Guide/Chapter-11.html


QUESTION 15
An engineer is assigned to replace an older data-grade autonomous wireless network with a Cisco controllerbased
wireless network to meet Voice over WLAN needs. The customer also wants all existing cable infrastructure to be
reused and
no new cable be specified.
How should the engineer respond to the customer\\’s requirements?
A. Implement the wireless network with the restraints and decrease the TPC neighbor threshold to increase Txpower to
provide overlapping cell coverage at sufficient SNR to provide for Voice over WLAN service.
B. Implement the wireless network with the restraints and utilize high-gain antenna to provide overlapping cellcoverage
at sufficient SNR to provide for Voice over WLAN service.
C. Inform the customer that the network will not likely function as desired and a post install survey with thepossibility of
some new cable would be recommended.
D. Inform the customer that it is not possible to provide coverage and quality for Voice over WLAN usingexisting AP
locations and an entire overbuild will be necessary.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 16
When designing a WLAN, AP placement is important. Which option describes how to rank the density of APs needed to
support location services versus data and voice services?
A. Data services have the lowest density of APs compared to location services, which has the highest density.
B. Data services have a lower density of APs compared to location services, but more than voice.
C. Voice services have the highest density of APs over location and data services.
D. Voice and data services require a higher density of APs than location services.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 17
You have a customer that is building a new campus of four 3-story buildings that you have just completed the site
survey for. The customer is interested in the mount of rack space they will need to allocate in either the building MDF or
in the
data center for controllers. Each building is going to require 75 APs to support voice and data.
How should the controllers be deployed to provide the least number of controllers, the highest redundancy, and the
easiest management?
A. Use the centralized deployment method in the data center with the N + N redundancy method.
B. Use the centralized deployment method in the data center with the N + 1 redundancy method
C. Use the centralized deployment method in the data center with the 1 + 1 redundancy method and clientSSO.
D. Use the distributed deployment method in each building MDF with the N + 1 redundancy method.
E. Use the distributed deployment method in each building MDF with the N + N + 1 redundancy method.
F. Use the distributed deployment method in each building MDF with the N + N redundancy method.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 18
An engineer is performing a predictive wireless design for a Parts Distribution Center, which requires data and location
services. Which three requirements are inputs to the design? (Choose three.)
A. access points with directional antennas
B. continuous -67 dBm coverage from one access point
C. overlapping -75 dBm coverage from three access points
D. overlapping -67 dBm coverage from two access points
E. access points in IPS mode
F. continuous -72 dBm coverage from one access point
G. access points in corners and along perimeters
Correct Answer: BCG


QUESTION 19
A customer is deploying a mesh outdoor wireless network based on FCC standards where spectrum analysis shows
significant radar energy propagating throughout the coverage area from a local weather station. Which channel must be
excluded from the access points RRM calculation to avoid network disruption due to weather radar activity?
A. 132
B. 44
C. 11
D. 36
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 20
Which infrastructure issue needs to be verified and potentially resolved before deploying a centralized 802.11n WLAN?
A. That all the access layer switches that the 802.11n APs will connect to support 802.3af power.
B. That all the access layer switches that the 802.11n APs will connect to contain 10/100/1000 Ethernet ports.
C. The location of application and authentication servers.
D. The proposed location for the WDS server.
E. The proposed location for the WCS.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 21
A customer has determined that a cable run for a low-throughput RF design is not economically feasible to install. Which
two access point modes can alleviate these customer concerns? (Choose two.)
A. bridge
B. sniffer
C. Flex+Bridge
D. FlexConnect
E. local
Correct Answer: BC


QUESTION 22
When implementing video teleconferencing over a wireless network, which three attributes should be considered when
cell planning? (Choose three.)
A. latency
B. jitter
C. throughput
D. packet loss
E. client association
F. number of users on the network
Correct Answer: ABD


QUESTION 23
An engineer is tuning RRM parameters to improve client connectivity. Which channel band results in the best 802.11n
client compatibility?
A. UNII-2
B. UNII-2e
C. UNII-3
D. UNII
E. UNII-1
Correct Answer: E


QUESTION 24
An engineer has performed a post-deployment site survey and noticed that access points were installed in suboptimal
locations due to physical restrictions and obstacles. Which action must the engineer take to resolve this deployment
issue?
A. Set DCA Channel Assignment Method to freeze.
B. Set all Auto RE parameters to factory default
C. Set TPC maximum and minimum power levels.
D. Set static channels on all AP radios.
Correct Answer: C
Suspect poor coverage/not enough AP density — If AP transmit power is already at the maximum, you can enable the
lower data rates to allow clients to connect from farther away. This has a negative impact on performance, but it can
help the customer understand that additional APs might be necessary. https://
www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless/5500-series-wireless-controllers/116057-site-survey -guidelines-
wlan-00.html


QUESTION 25
An access point will be partially exposed to the outdoor environment in a loading dock of a factory. How should this
access point be deployed in a cost-effective manner?
A. indoor AP with an external leaky coaxial cable
B. outdoor mesh AP utilizing the 5-GHz band
C. outdoor bridge AP pointing its antenna toward the factory
D. indoor-based AP inside a NEMA-rated enclosure
Correct Answer: B
Because mesh radio waves have very high frequency in the 5-GHz band, the radio wavelength is small; therefore, the
radio waves do not travel as far as radio waves on lower frequencies, given the same amount of power. This higher
frequency range makes the mesh ideal for unlicensed use because the radio waves do not travel far unless a high-gain
antenna is used to tightly focus the radio waves in a given direction. https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/
technology/mesh/7-0MR1/design/guide/MeshAP_70MR1 .html#wp1849065


QUESTION 26
Which two factors influence the density of APs in a data-only WLAN environment? (Choose two.)
A. Channel reuse and WLAN bandwidth
B. The type of controller chosen.
C. The defined coverage area and customer needs.
D. The number of clients that will roam through the facility.
E. The number of APs dedicated to voice services.
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 27
A customer has determined that aesthetics is a primary concern for their upcoming guest deployment. Which design
consideration can be leveraged to address this concern?
A. Paint the access point to cover the LED from being noticeable
B. Use enclosures to hide the wireless infrastructure in the surrounding environment
C. Deploy environmentally friendly cabling components to blend into the environment.
D. Use AIR-AP-BRACKET-1 to allow for greater mounting locations
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 28
An engineer is deploying an outdoor Mesh network. Which four major factors should be considered? (Choose four.)
A. power
B. buildings
C. traffic lights
D. satellite dishes
E. line of sight
F. network connectivity
G. power lines
H. mounting
Correct Answer: AEFH


QUESTION 29
You are planning the coverage for wireless VoIP by using Ekahau. Which signal strength does Ekahau recommend
using for VoIP?
A. -84 dBm
B. -76 dBm
C. -67 dBm
D. -53 dBm
Correct Answer: C
Each vendor has their own recommended signal strength for a given data rate or application. For instance, one vendor
may recommend designing their VoIP solution at -67 dBm (perhaps the most widely-used value for VoIP deployment if I
had to choose one), while another may say -70 dBm. In most cases the values will differ only by a couple dB.
https://www.ekahau.com/blog/2015/01/13/ekahau-site-survey-heatmap-visualizations-part-2-signal-stren gth/


QUESTION 30
Which two factors influence the density of APs in a data-only WLAN environment? (Choose two.)
A. the number of clients that will roam through the facility
B. the type of controller chosen
C. the defined coverage area and customer needs
D. the number of APs dedicated to voice services
E. channel reuse and WLAN bandwidth
Correct Answer: CE

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QUESTION 1
You manage two solutions in separate Azure subscriptions.
You need to ensure that the two solutions can communicate on a private network.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order
Select and Place:
70-533 dumps
Correct Answer:
70-533 dumps
Explanation:
Configure a VNet to VNet connection
There are 5 sections to plan and configure. Configure each section in the order listed below:
Note: In this procedure, we’ll walk you through connecting two virtual networks, VNet1 and VNet2. You’ll need to be comfortable with networking in order to substitute the IP address ranges that are compatible with your network design requirements. From an Azure virtual network, connecting to another Azure virtual network is the same as connecting to an on premises network via Site-to-site (S2S) VPN.
This procedure primarily uses the Management Portal, however, you must use Microsoft Azure PowerShell cmdlets to connect the VPN gateways.

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Your company has a main office and several branch offices.
You create an Azure subscription and you deploy several virtual machines. The virtual machines are located in multiple subnets.
You need to provide remote access to the virtual machines to five users in each office by using a VPN connection. The remote access connections will not require a VPN device nor a public-facing IP address in order to work.
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You manage an Azure virtual network environment for a company that has an office in Boston. The company plans to open a new office location in Paris.
You must replicate the Boston virtual network environment in Paris.
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Select and Place:
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HOTSPOT
You manage a web application named Contoso that is accessible from the URL http://www.contoso.com.
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You are the Azure administrator for Contoso Ltd. You plan to use SharePoint Online to facilitate collaboration with a partner company named Fabrikam, Inc.
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You are the administrator for your company’s Azure environment.
A developer creates an application that needs to access resources in external systems.
The application will be deployed in the domain.
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NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
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QUESTION 7
DRAG DROP
You plan to deploy a cloud service named contosoapp. The service includes a web role named contosowebrole. The web role has an endpoint named restrictedEndpoint.
You need to allow access to restricted Endpoint only from your office machine using the IP address 145.34.67.82.
Which values should you use within the service configuration file? To answer, drag the appropriate value to the correct location in the service configuration file. Each value may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
70-533 dumps
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
* Rule with lower order are applied first.
* We can selectively permit or deny network traffic (in the management portal or from PowerShell) for a virtual machine input endpoint by creating rules that specify “permit” or “deny”. By default, when an endpoint is created, all traffic is permitted to the endpoint. So for that reason, it’s important to understand how to create permit/deny rules and place them in the proper order of precedence to gain granular control over the network traffic that you choose to allow to reach the virtual machine endpoint. Note that at the instant you add one or more “permit” ranges, you are denying all other ranges by default. Moving forward from the first permit range, only packets from the permitted IP range will be able to communicate with the virtual machine endpoint.

QUESTION 8
You are managing an Azure SQL Database.
You need to export the database to a BACPAC file and verify that the export completes successfully.
Which four Azure PowerShell cmdlets or scripts should you run in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate cmdlets or scripts from the list of cmdlets to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 9
HOTSPOT
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Correct Answer:
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You manage an Azure environment that has 12 virtual machines (VMs). A set of VMs run a Web App that uses ASP.NET.
The developer of the application must have access to ASP.NET metrics and Internet Information Services (IIS) logs from the VMs.
You need to ensure that the metrics and logs are saved and provide the developer access to the data.
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QUESTION 1
Drag Drop
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 2
Drag Drop
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QUESTION 3
Drag and Drop
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QUESTION 4
Drag and Drop
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Correct Answer:
300-115 dumps
QUESTION 5
Drag and Drop
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Drag and Drop
Drag the attributes on the left to the types of VLAN designs that they describe on the right.
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QUESTION 7
Drag and Drop
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QUESTION 8
Drag and Drop
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 9
Drag and Drop
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Correct Answer:

QUESTION 10
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QUESTION 11
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PortFast / BPDU Guard / BPDU Filter.
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PVST+ / Rapid PVST+ / MSTP
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STP Timers
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QUESTION 1
An engineer wants to improve web traffic performance by proxy caching. Which technology provides this improvement?
A. Firepower
B. FireSIGT
C. WSA
D. ASA
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which cloud-based malware detection engine uses machine-learning detection techniques in the Cisco Advanced Malware Protection cloud?
A. third-party detections
B. Spero
C. Ethos
D. Memcache
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
which two options are the basic parts of a Snort rule? (Choose two)
A. rule policy
B. rule header
C. Rule assignment and ports
D. rule options
E. Rule footer
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 4
Which three statements about Cisco CWS are true’? (Choose three )
A. It provides protection against zero-day threats.
B. Cisco SIO provides it with threat updates in near real time.
C. It supports granular application policies.
D. Its Roaming User Protection feature protects the VPN from malware and data breaches.
E. It supports local content caching.
F. Its Cognitive Threat Analytics feature uses cloud-based analysis and detection to block threats outside the network.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 5
When creating an SSL policy on Cisco FirePOWER, which three options do you have
A. do not decrypt
B. trust
C. allow
D. block with reset
E. block
F. encrypt
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 6
With Cisco FirePOWER Threat Defense software, which interface mode do you configure to passively receive traffic that passes the appliance?
A. transparent
B. routed
C. passive
D. inline set
E. inline tap
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which two statement about Cisco Firepower file and intrusion inspection under control policies are true? 300-210 dumps (Choose two.)
A. File inspection occurs before intrusion prevention.
B. Intrusion Inspection occurs after traffic is blocked by file type.
C. File and intrusion drop the same packet.
D. Blocking by file type takes precedence over malware inspection and blocking
E. File inspection occurs after file discovery
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 8
Which Cisco FirePOWER setting is used to reduce the number of events received in a period of time and avoid being overwhelmed?
A. thresholding
B. rate-limiting
C. limiting
D. correlation
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which Cisco Web Security Appliance feature enables the appliance to block suspicious traffic on all of its ports and IP addresses?
A. explicit forward mode
B. Layer 4 Traffic Monitor
C. transparent mode
D. Secure Web Proxy
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
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300-210 dumps
What is the maximum message size that the Cisco Email Security Appliance will accept from the violet.public domain?
A. 1 KB
B. 100 KB
C. 1 MB
D. 10 MB
E. 100 MB
F. Unlimited
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Which option is a benefit of Cisco Email Security virtual appliance over the Cisco ESA appliance?
A. global threat intelligence updates from Talos
B. reduced space and power requirements
C. outbound message protection
D. automated administration
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
An engineer must architect an AMP private cloud deployment. What is the benefit of running in air-gaped mode?
A. Internet connection is not required for disposition.
B. Database sync time is reduced.
C. Disposition queries are done on AMP appliances.
D. A dedicated server is needed to run amp-sync.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Which Cisco ESA predefined sender group uses parameter-matching to reject senders?
A. WHITELIST
B. BLACKLIST
C. UNKNOWNLIST
D. SUSPECTLIST
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
A network engineer wants to deploy a virtual cisco ESA and wants protection against email-based threats, email encryption, and clustering. Which software license bundle must the network engineer purchase to access these components?
A. cisco email security Premium
B. cisco email security Hybrid Essential
C. cisco email security advansed
D. cisco email security Gateway
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
Which type of server is required to communicate with a third-party DLP solution?
A. an ICAP-capable proxy server
B. a PKI certificate server
C. an HTTP server
D. an HTTPS server
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
Which Cisco technology is a customizable web-based alerting service designed to report threats and vulnerabilities?
A. Cisco Security Intelligence Operations
B. Cisco Security IntelliShield Alert Manager Service
C. Cisco Security Optimization Service
D. Cisco Software Application Support Service
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
300-210 dumps
300-210 dumps
Which three statements about the Cisco IPS appliance configurations are true? (Choose three.)
A. The maximum number of denied attackers is set to 10000.
B. The block action duraton is set to 3600 seconds.
C. The Meta Event Generator is globally enabled.
D. Events Summarization is globally disabled.
E. Threat Rating Adjustment is globally disabled.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 18
What is the correct deployment for an IPS appliance in a network where traffic identified as threat traffic should be blocked and all traffic is blocked if the IPS fails? 300-210 dumps
A. Inline; fail open
B. Inline; fail closed
C. Promiscuous; fail open
D. Promiscuous; fail closed
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
300-210 dumps
300-210 dumps
300-210 dumps
Which signature definition is virtual sensor 0 assigned to use?
A. rules0
B. vs0
C. sig0
D. ad0
E. ad1
F. sigl
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
Which port is used for CLI Secure shell access?
A. Port 23
B. Port 25
C. Port 22
D. Port 443
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 21
An ASA with an IPS module must be configured to drop traffic matching IPS signatures and block all traffic if the module fails. Which describes the correct configuration?
A. Inline Mode, Permit Traffic
B. Inline Mode, Close Traffic
C. Promiscuous Mode, Permit Traffic
D. Promiscuous Mode, Close Traffic
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 22
Which Cisco monitoring solution displays information and important statistics for the security devices in a network?
A. Cisco Prime LAN Management
B. Cisco ASDM Version 5.2
C. Cisco Threat Defense Solution
D. Syslog Server
E. TACACS+
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 23
Which three options are valid event actions for a Cisco IPS? (Choose three.)
A. deny-packet-inline
B. deny-attack-reset
C. produce-verbose-alert
D. log-attacker-packets
E. deny-packet-internal
F. request-block-drop-connection
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 24
During initial configuration, the Cisco ASA can be configured to drop all traffic if the ASA CX SSP fails by using which command in a policy-map?
A. cxsc fail
B. cxsc fail-close
C. cxsc fail-open
D. cxssp fail-close
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 25
Which set of commands changes the FTP client timeout when the sensor is communicating with an FTP server?
A. sensor# configure terminal
sensor(config)# service sensor
sensor(config-hos)# network-settings
sensor(config-hos-net)# ftp-timeout 500
B. sensor# configure terminal
sensor(config)# service host sensor(config-hos)# network-settings parameter ftp sensor(config-hos- net)# ftp-timeout 500
C. sensor# configure terminal
sensor(config)# service host
sensor(config-hos)# network-settings
sensor(config-hos-net)# ftp-timeout 500
D. sensor# configure terminal
sensor(config)# service network
sensor(config-hos)# network-settings
sensor(config-hos-net)# ftp-timeout 500
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 26
300-210 dumps
300-210 dumps
300-210 dumps
What is the status of OS Identification?
A. It is only enabled to identify “Cisco IOS” OS using statically mapped OS fingerprinting
B. OS mapping information will not be used for Risk Rating calculations.
C. It is configured to enable OS mapping and ARR only for the 10.0.0.0/24 network.
D. It is enabled for passive OS fingerprinting for all networks.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 27
Which three zones are used for anomaly detection? (Choose three.)
A. Internal zone
B. External zone
C. Illegal zone
D. Inside zone
E. Outside zone
F. DMZ zone
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 28
300-210 dumps What are the initial actions that can be performed on an incoming SMTP session by the workqueue of a Cisco Email Security Appliance?
A. Accept, Reject, Relay, TCPRefuse
B. LDAP Verification, Envelope Sender Verification, Bounce Verification, Alias Table Verification
C. Recipient Access Table Verification, Host DNS Verification, Masquerading, Spam Payload Check
D. SMTP Authentication, SBRS Verification, Sendergroup matching, DNS host verification
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
Which signature engine is responsible for ICMP inspection on Cisco IPS?
A. AIC Engine
B. Fixed Engine
C. Service Engine
D. Atomic IP Engine
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 30
Refer to the exhibit.
300-210 dumps
What are two facts about the interface that you can determine from the given output? (Choose two.)
A. A Cisco Flexible NetFlow monitor is attached to the interface.
B. A quality of service policy is attached to the interface.
C. Cisco Application Visibility and Control limits throughput on the interface.
D. Feature activation array is active on the interface.
Correct Answer: AB

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Useful IBM certifications II 000-741 Dumps Exam Practice Questions And Answers (1-20)

QUESTION 1
A customer has a mixed iSeries, pSeries, Sun and Windows server environment: Three Exchange servers each with 1.8TB database Five iSeries Domino servers each with 1TB database 10TB Sun/SAP cluster 20TB of pSeries requirement Annual growth rate of 12TB per year Which solution provides them the most cost effective solution for three years?
A.A DS4500 with 300GB drives
B.A DS6800 with 300GB drives
C.A DS8100 with 300GB drives
D.An SVC with DS4100 with 250GB drives, and a DS6800 with 300GB drives
Correct Answers: C

QUESTION 2
A customer is about to install ten Microsoft Windows servers, three Sun servers, and five AIX servers, all with Fibre Channel interfaces. A reliability requirement is to have two Fibre Channel interfaces in each of the servers. Which of the following is required?
A.IBM Subsystem Device Driver
B.IBM TotalStorage SAN File System
C.IBM TotalStorage Productivity Center for Data
D.IBM TotalStorage Productivity Center for Disk
Correct Answers: A

QUESTION 3
A customer has a rapidly expanding data warehouse application installed on an MVS-attached EMC storage system. They are running out of capacity and encountering performance degradation. Before proposing that they migrate to an IBM TotalStorage DS8000 model, which report should be used to identify potential performance bottlenecks?
A.ACS
B.RMF
C.DFSMS
D.VTSSTATS
Correct Answers: B

QUESTION 4
A customer with a large number of UNIX servers has an IBM TotalStorage Enterprise Storage Server Model 800 for a 90-day trial. The ESS delivers excellent performance for most of the customer’s tests, but does not meet the customer’s expectations for a critical benchmark that heavily loads a few key volumes on one array. Which of the following changes should the storage specialist suggest to improve performance for this critical benchmark?
A.Add Parallel Access Volumes
B.Add Arrays Across Loops
C.Turn off RAID-5 sparing
D.Turn off cache and NVS
Correct Answers: B

QUESTION 5
A customer’s IT department now mandates a fast backup and restoration process be in place before an application is deployed. What would be the simplest and most effective option to satisfy this mandatory requirement?
A.Deploy PPRC
B.Implement FlashCopy
C.Install 10TB of additional disk space
D.Consolidate all server disk space with RAID-5
Correct Answers: B

QUESTION 6
A customer has an IBM TotalStorage DS6800 and an IBM TotalStorage DS8100 at their computing center. They want to install a disaster recovery site 600 kilometers from their center using a DS8300. 000-741 dumps Which of the following IBM Resiliency Family solution offerings should be implemented?
A.Metro Mirror
B.Global Copy
C.Global Mirror
D.FlashCopy
Correct Answers: C

QUESTION 7
What is the minimum number of FCP/FICON host adapters required for a IBM TotalStorage DS8000 high availability configuration?
A.2
B.4
C.8
D.16
Correct Answers: A

QUESTION 8
A customer has an installed IBM TotalStorage Enterprise Storage Server (ESS) Model 800 with 20TB of storage, 32GB cache and ESCON channels. The customer is beginning to experience throughput performance issues and has no additional ESCON channel expansion ability. To best address these performance considerations, which of the following steps should be suggested?
A.Add a second ESS to allow additional ESCON connections.
B.Convert the installed ESS from ESCON to FICON connections.
C.Increase the cache on the ESS from 32GB to 48GB.
D.Add additional eight-packs to provide more disk arms and increase performance.
Correct Answers: B

QUESTION 9
An IBM Business Partner is analyzing customer requirements for a disk subsystem. To determine that the IBM TotalStorage DS8000 can operate in the customer’s current host environment, what is the best source of information for the storage specialist to use?
A.PartnerInfo
B.PartnerLine
C.Offline Configuration Tool
D.The IBM TotalStorage Web Site
Correct Answers: D

QUESTION 10
A long-term IBM disk customer would like to compare the DS8000 product family to the Hitachi Data Systems TagmaStore. Which IBM storage products compare most favorably?
A.DS8300 and SAN Volume Controller
B.DS8000 and Tivoli Storage Manager
C.DS8000 and IBM TotalStorage 3584 Tape Library
D.DS8100 and IBM TotalStorage Productivity Center for Disk
Correct Answers: A

QUESTION 11
A customer recently implemented a data warehousing application. What disk subsystem attribute is most important for this type of application?
A.Read performance and scalability
B.Large cache capability
C.Remote copy function
D.Block and file input/output capability
Correct Answers: A

QUESTION 12
A storage specialist is proposing an IBM TotalStorage DS6800 to replace a five-year old disk system. Which of the following would provide an effective cost justification for migration to DS6800?
A.Centralized management
B.Multi-platform attach capability
C.Four year warranty
D.FlashCopy feature
Correct Answers: C

QUESTION 13
A customer has an existing IBM TotalStorage DS8100 Storage Server with 12 Megapacks of 73GB disks and 16 ESCON Adapters. How many additional FICON adapters and Megapacks can be installed in the expansion frame?
A.0 adapters and 12 Megapacks
B.4 adapters and 16 Megapacks
C.8 adapters and 4 Megapacks
D.16 adapters and 8 Megapacks
Correct Answers: A

QUESTION 14
A customer’s database application failed during a recent maintenance window. When the IBM TotalStorage DS6800 controller automatically rebooted, the database became inconsistent and failed. After the database was made consistent, the customer asked the storage specialist to recommend a method to test path failover on a test server. Which of the following would be the first step of the implementation plan?
A.Install Redundant Dual Active Controllers (RDAC)
B.Install Subsystem Device Driver (SDD)
C.Unblock the switch port
D.Monitor the database application
Correct Answers: B

QUESTION 15
A customer has recently installed an IBM TotalStorage DS8100 in their production environment.
They have 5TB of capacity assigned to an IBM eServer zSeries host and 5TB of capacity assigned to pSeries servers. The customer would like to make point-in-time copies for 2TB of zSeries storage and 2TB of pSeries storage. What is the correct licensing option to recommend?
A.2TB
B.4TB
C.5TB
D.10TB
Correct Answers: D

QUESTION 16
Which of the following is the most important action to ensure customer satisfaction when performing the implementation of an IBM SAN fabric with two IBM TotalStorage DS8300 units?
A.Develop clear objectives that map to expectations.
B.Complete a Solutions Assurance Review.
C.Ensure that power and space are available in the Data Center.
D.Get the customer to sign a completion form.
Correct Answers: A

QUESTION 17
A company acquired two other companies and is consolidating their order entry application systems into an existing common disk storage pool on a single SAN fabric. 000-741 dumps During the consolidation, half of the users of one of the order entry systems could not access their application. The users who had access experienced slow performance. What is the first action the engineer should take to determine the source of the problem?
A.Review SAN configuration, connectivity and zoning.
B.Review application parameters for contention or tuning problems.
C.Use internal disk monitoring tools to determine the problems source.
D.Call the SAN and disk vendors to perform a healthcheck on their hardware.
Correct Answers: A

QUESTION 18
A customer has an IBM Enterprise Storage Server Model 800 with 10 eight-packs formatted as Fixed Block volumes. There is not enough unused space on the RAID ranks to act as FlashCopy targets for the existing LUNs. Which of the following should the storage specialist propose to enable the customer to shorten their backup window?
A.Add FlashCopy Version 1 and use the full copy option
B.Add FlashCopy Version 2 and additional capacity
C.Add FlashCopy Version 1 and use NOCOPY option
D.Add FlashCopy Version 2 and use incremental FlashCopy
Correct Answers: B

QUESTION 19
During a review of environmental requirements before ordering an IBM z890 server and IBM TotalStorage DS8300, the customer states that the available power is 220 volts AC. Which feature should be included with the DS8300 order?
A.Low voltage
B.High Voltage
C.Remote zSeries Power Control
D.Remote force power off switch
Correct Answers: A

QUESTION 20
An IBM TotalStorage DS6800 is being shipped to the customer. Who should set up the logical configuration?
A.The IBM Field Technical Sales Specialist
B.The customer’s system administrator
C.The IBM Support Service Representative
D.The customer’s operations manager
Correct Answers: B

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300-101 dumps

High quality Cisco CCDP 300-101 dumps exam questions and answers (1-20)

QUESTION 1
Which option is one way to mitigate symmetric routing on an active/active firewall setup for TCP-based connections?
A. performing packet captures
B. disabling asr-group commands on interfaces that are likely to receive asymetric traffic
C. replacing them with redundant routers and allowing load balancing
D. disabling stateful TCP checks
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which option is invalid when configuring Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding?
A. allow self ping to router
B. allow default route
C. allow based on ACL match
D. source reachable via both
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which traffic characteristic is the reason that UDP traffic that carries voice and video is assigned to the queue only on a link that is at least 768 kbps?
A. typically is not fragmented
B. typically is fragmented
C. causes windowing
D. causes excessive delays for video traffic
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Refer to the following configuration command.
router(config)# ip nat inside source static tcp 172.16.10.8 8080 172.16.10.8 80
Which statement about the command is true? 300-101 dumps
A. Any packet that is received in the inside interface with a source IP port address of 172.16.10.8:80 is translated to 172.16.10.8:8080.
B. Any packet that is received in the inside interface with a source IP port address of 172.16.10.8:8080 is translated to 172.16.10.8:80.
C. The router accepts only a TCP connection from port 8080 and port 80 on IP address 172.16.10.8
D. Any packet that is received in the inside interface with a source IP address of 172.16.10.8 is redirected to port 8080 or port 80.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
What type of IPv6 packet will indicate traffic from single host and single node?
A. multicast
B. unicast
C. broadcast
D. anycast
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about the command output is true?
300-101 dumps
A. The router exports flow information to 10.10.10.1 on UDP port 5127.
B. The router receives flow information from 10.10.10.2 on UDP port 5127.
C. The router exports flow information to 10.10.10.1 on TCP port 5127.
D. The router receives flow information from 10.10.10.2 on TCP port 5127.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which three IP SLA performance metrics can you use to monitor enterprise-class networks? (Choose three.)
A. Packet loss
B. Delay
C. bandwidth
D. Connectivity
E. Reliability
F. traps
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 8
What is the administrative distance for EBGP?
A. 200
B. 30
C. 70
D. 20
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
A network engineer is configuring the router for NetFlow data exporting. What is required in order for NDE to begin exporting data?
A. Source
B. Flow mask
C. Destination
D. Interface type
E. Traffic type
F. NetFlow version
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
A network administrator creates a static route that points directly to a multi-access interface, instead of the next-hop IP address. 300-101 dumps The administrator notices that Cisco Express Forwarding ARP requests are being sent to all destinations. Which issue might this configuration create?
A. Low bandwidth usage
B. High memory usage
C. Cisco Express Forwarding routing loop
D. High bandwidth usage
E. IP route interference
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.
300-101 dumps
The DHCP client is unable to receive a DHCP address from the DHCP server. Consider the following output:
hostname RouterB
!
interface fastethernet 0/0
ip address 172.31.1.1 255.255.255.0
interface serial 0/0
ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.252
!
ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 10.1.1.2
Which configuration is required on the Router B fastethernet 0/0 port in order to allow the DHCP client to successfully receive an IP address from the DHCP server?
A. RouterB(config-if)# ip helper-address 172.16.1.2
B. RouterB(config-if)# ip helper-address 172.16.1.1
C. RouterB(config-if)# ip helper-address 172.31.1.1
D. RouterB(config-if)# ip helper-address 255.255.255.255
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which is the asymmetric Rotuing?
A. active/active firewall
B. active/passive firwall
C. single path
D. using VRRP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit.
300-101 dumps
Routers R2, R3, R4, and R5 have OSPF enabled. What should be configured on the routers in area 1 to ensure that all default summary routes and redistributed EIGRP routes will be forwarded from R6 to area 1, and only a default route for all other OSPF routes will be forwarded from R5 to area 1.
A. R5(config-router)# area 1 stubR6(config-router)# area 1 stub
B. R5(config-router)# area 1 stub no-summaryR6(config-router)# area 1 stub
C. R5(config-router)# area 1 nssaR6(config-router)# area 1 nssa
D. R5(config-router)# area 1 nssa no-summaryR6(config-router)# area 1 nssa
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Which of the following NSAP addresses is a private, locally administered address?
A. 39.0f01.0002.0000.0c00.1111.00
B. 48.0f01.0002.0000.0c00.1111.00
C. 49.0004.30ac.0000.3090.c7df.00
D. 52.0f01.0002.0000.0c00.1111.00
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
Which two phases of DMVPN allow to spoke sites to create dynamic tunnels to one another? (Choose Two)
A. Phase 1
B. Phase 2
C. Phase 3
D. Phase 4
E. Phase 5
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 16
Which two statements about 6to4 tunneling are accurate? 300-101 dumps (Choose two.)
A. Prepending a reserved IPv6 code to the hexadecimal representation of 192.168.0.1 facilitates 6to4 tunneling.
B. Each 6to4 site receives a /48 prefix in a 6to4 tunnel.
C. 2002::/48 is the address range specifically assigned to 6to4.
D. Prepending 0x2002 with the IPv4 address creates an IPv6 address that is used in 6to4 tunneling.
E. 6to4 is a manual tunnel method.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 17
Which three statements are true when configuring redistribution for OSPF? (Choose three)
A. The default metric is 10.
B. The default metric is 20.
C. The default metric type is 2.
D. The default metric type is 1.
E. Subnets do not redistribute by default.
F. Subnets redistribute by default.
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 18
R3#show run | include defaultip default-network 140.140.0.0 ip default-network 130.130.0.0 R3#show ip route | begin Gateway Gateway of last resort is 0.0.0.0 to network 130.130.0.0 116.0.0.0/8 is variably subnetted, 5 subnets, 3 masks C 116.16.37.0/30 is directly connected, Serial1/0.2 C 116.16.32.0/30 is directly connected, Serial2/0.2 C 116.16.34.0/28 is directly connected, Serial1/0.1 C 116.16.35.0/28 is directly connected, Serial2/0.1 S 116.0.0.0/8 [1/0] via 116.16.34.0
* 140.140.0.0/32 is subnetted, 3 subnets O 140.140.1.1 [110/65] via 116.16.34.4, 00:14:54, Serial1/0.1 O 140.140.3.1 [110/65] via 116.16.34.4, 00:14:54, Serial1/0.1 O 140.140.2.1 [110/65] via 116.16.34.4, 00:14:54, Serial1/0.1
* 130.130.0.0/16 is variably subnetted, 4 subnets, 2 masks D* 130.130.0.0/16 is a summary, 00:30:04, Null0 C 130.130.1.0/24 is directly connected, Ethernet0/0 C 130.130.2.0/24 is directly connected, Ethernet0/1 C 130.130.3.0/24 is directly connected, Ethernet1/0 D 150.150.0.0/16 [90/679936] via 116.16.35.5, 00:02:58, Serial2/0.1 Refer to the exhibit. Why is the 140.140.0.0 network not used as the gateway of last resort even though it is configured first?
A. The last default-network statement will always be preferred.
B. A route to the 140.140.0.0 network does not exist in the routing table.
C. Default-network selection will always prefer the statement with the lowest IP address.
D. A router will load balance across multiple default-networks; repeatedly issuing the show ip route command would show the gateway of last resort changing between the two networks.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
Which two reason for IP SLA tracking failure are likely true (choose two)
A. The source-interface is configured incorrectly
B. The destination must be 172.30.30.2 for icmp-echo
C. A route back to the R1 LAN network is missing in R2
D. The default routehas wrong next hop IP address
E. The threshold value is wrong
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 20
A network engineer receives reports about poor voice quality issues at a remote site. The network engineer does a packet capture and sees out-of-order packets being delivered. Which option can cause the VOIP quality to suffer?
A. traffic over backup redundant links
B. misconfigured voice vlan
C. speed duplex link issues
D. load balancing over redundant links
Correct Answer: D

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