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QUESTION 1
You have a hybrid Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant.
You configure a Windows Autopilot deployment profile as shown in the following exhibit.[2021.1] lead4pass md-100 exam questions q1

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information
presented in the graphic. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:
Correct Answer:

[2021.1] lead4pass md-100 exam questions q1-1

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/intune/enrollment-autopilot

 

QUESTION 2
You need to prepare for the deployment of the Phoenix office computers. What should you do first?
A. Extract the hardware ID information of each computer to a CSV file and upload the file from the Devices settings in
Microsoft Store for Business.
B. Generalize the computers and configure the Mobility (MDM and MAM) settings from the Azure Active Directory blade
in the Azure portal.
C. Generalize the computers and configure the Device settings from the Azure Active Directory blade in the Azure
portal.
D. Extract the hardware ID information of each computer to an XLSX file and upload the file from the Devices settings in
Microsoft Store for Business.
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-store/add-profile-to-devices#manage-autopilot-deploymentprofiles

 

QUESTION 3
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription.
A remote user purchases a laptop from a retail store. The laptop is intended for company use and has Windows 10 Pro
edition installed.
You need to configure the laptop to meet the following requirements:
Modify the layout of the Start menu
Upgrade Windows 10 to Windows 10 Enterprise Join the laptop to a Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) domain named contoso.com What should you do?
A. Create a custom Windows image (.wim) file that contains an image of Windows 10 Enterprise and upload the file to a
Microsoft
B. Create a provisioning package (.ppkg) file and email the file to the user
C. Create a Windows To Go workspace and ship the workspace to the user
D. Create a Sysprep Unattend (.xml) file and email the file to the user
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/configuration/provisioning-packages/provisioning-packages

 

QUESTION 4
Your network contains an Active Directory domain that is synced to Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD). The
domain contains computers that run Windows 10. The computers are enrolled in Microsoft Intune and Windows
Analytics.
Your company protects documents by using Windows Information Protection (WIP).
You need to identify non-approved apps that attempt to open corporate documents.
What should you use?
A. the Device Health solution in Windows Analytics
B. Microsoft Cloud App Security
C. Intune Data Warehouse
D. the App protection status report in Intune
Correct Answer: D
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/security/information-protection/windows-informationprotection/wip-learning

 

QUESTION 5
Your company has a main office and six branch offices. The branch offices connect to the main office by using a WAN
link. All offices have a local Internet connection and a Hyper-V host cluster.
The company has a Microsoft System Center Configuration Manager deployment. The main office is the primary site.
Each branch has a distribution point. All computers that run Windows 10 are managed by using both Configurations
Manager and Microsoft Intune.
You plan to deploy the latest build of Microsoft Office 365 ProPlus to all the computers.
You need to minimize the amount of network traffic on the company\\’s Internet links for the planned deployment. What
should you include it in the deployment plan?
A. From Intune, configure app assignments for the Office 365 ProPlus suite. In each office, copy the Office 365
distribution files to a Microsoft Deployment Toolkit (MDT) deployment share.
B. From Intune, configure app assignments for the Office 365 ProPlus suite. In each office, copy the Office 365
distribution files to a Configuration Manager distribution point.
C. From Configuration Manager, create an application deployment. Copy the Office 365 distribution files to a
Configuration Manager cloud distribution point.
D. From Configuration Manager, create an application deployment. In each office, copy the Office 365 distribution files
to a Configuration Manager distribution point.
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/deployoffice/deploy-office-365-proplus-with-system-center-configurationmanager-2012r2#distribute-the-office-365-proplus-application-to-distribution-points-in-configuration-manager

 

QUESTION 6
You have computers that run Windows 10 and are configured by using Windows AutoPilot.
A user performs the following tasks on a computer named Computer1:
Creates a VPN connection to the corporate network
Installs a Microsoft Store app named App1
Connects to a Wi-Fi network
You perform a Windows AutoPilot Reset on Computer1.
What will be the state of the computer when the user signs in? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer
area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:[2021.1] lead4pass md-100 exam questions q6

Correct Answer:

[2021.1] lead4pass md-100 exam questions q6-1

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/deployment/windows-autopilot/windows-autopilot-reset

 

QUESTION 7
Your company has a Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant. All users in the company are licensed for
Microsoft Intune.
You need to ensure that the users enroll their iOS device in Intune.
What should you configure first?
A. A Device Enrollment Program (DEP) token.
B. An Intune device configuration profile.
C. A Device enrollment manager (DEM) account.
D. An Apple MDM Push certificate.
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/intune/device-enrollment-program-enroll-ios

 

QUESTION 8
Your company uses Microsoft Intune to manage Windows 10, Android, and iOS devices.
Several users purchase new iPads and Android devices.
You need to tell the users how to enroll their device in Intune.
What should you instruct the users to use for each device? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer
area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:[2021.1] lead4pass md-100 exam questions q8

Correct Answer:

[2021.1] lead4pass md-100 exam questions q8-1

The Intune Company Portal app is used to enroll Android, iOS, macOS, and Windows devices.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/intune-user-help/enroll-device-android-company-portal
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/intune-user-help/enroll-your-device-in-intune-ios https://docs.microsoft.com/enus/intune-user-help/enroll-your-device-in-intune-macos-cp

 

QUESTION 9
You have 100 computers that run Windows 8.1.
You plan to deploy Windows 10 to the computers by performing a wipe and load installation.
You need to recommend a method to retain user settings and user data.
Which three actions should you recommend be performed in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from
the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:[2021.1] lead4pass md-100 exam questions q9

Correct Answer:

[2021.1] lead4pass md-100 exam questions q9-1

 

QUESTION 10
Your company uses Windows Update for Business.
The research department has several computers that have specialized hardware and software installed.
You need to prevent the video drivers from being updated automatically by using Windows Update.
Solution: From the Device Installation settings in a Group Policy object (GPO), you enable Specify search order for
device driver source locations, and then you select Do not search Windows Update.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
References: https://www.stigviewer.com/stig/microsoft_windows_server_2012_member_server/2013-07-25/finding/WN12-CC-000024


QUESTION 11
What should you configure to meet the technical requirements for the Azure AD-joined computers?
A. Windows Hello for Business from the Microsoft Intune blade in the Azure portal.
B. Accounts options in an endpoint protection profile.
C. The Password Policy settings in a Group Policy object (GPO).
D. A password policy from the Microsoft Office 365 portal.
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/security/identity-protection/hello-for-business/hello-manage-inorganization

 

QUESTION 12
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com that syncs to Azure Active Directory (Azure
AD).
Existing on-premises computers are managed by using Microsoft System Center Configuration Manager (Current
Branch). You configure contoso.com for co-management.
You deploy 100 new devices that run Windows 10. The devices are joined to Azure AD and enrolled in Microsoft
Intune.
You need to ensure that the devices are co-managed.
What should you create in Intune first?
A. a conditional access policy
B. a device compliance policy
C. an app for the Configuration Manager client
D. a device configuration profile
E. an app configuration policy
Correct Answer: C
For new internet-based devices, you need to create an app in Intune. Deploy this app to Windows 10 devices that
aren\\’t already Configuration Manager clients. This scenario is when you have new Windows 10 devices that join Azure
AD and automatically enroll in Intune. You install the Configuration Manager client to reach a co-management state.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/configmgr/comanage/how-to-prepare-win10

 

QUESTION 13
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription. All devices run Windows 10.
You need to prevent users from enrolling the devices in the Windows Insider Program.
What should you configure from Microsoft 365 Device Management? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. a Windows 10 security baseline
B. an app configuration policy
C. a custom device configuration profile
D. a Windows 10 update ring
E. a device restrictions device configuration profile
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
You need to meet the technical requirements for the San Diego office computers. Which Windows 10 deployment method should you use?
A. wipe and load refresh
B. in-place upgrade
C. provisioning packages
D. Windows Autopilot
Correct Answer: D
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/deployment/windows-autopilot/windows-autopilot

 

QUESTION 2
You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10. Computer1 is in a workgroup. Computer1 contains the
folders are shown in the following table.[2021.1] lead4pass md-100 exam questions q2

User1 encrypts a file named File1.txt that is in a folder named C:\Folder1.
What is the effect of the configuration? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

[2021.1] lead4pass md-100 exam questions q2-1

References: https://support.microsoft.com/en-za/help/310316/how-permissions-are-handled-when-you-copy-and-movefiles-and-folders

 

QUESTION 3
You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10.
From Event Viewer on Computer1, you have a task named Action1 that is attached to the following event:
Log: System Source: Kernel-General Event ID: 16
You need to modify the settings of Action1. What should you use?
A. the Settings app
B. Task Scheduler
C. Event Viewer
D. System Configuration
Correct Answer: C
An Event Viewer task is created and modified in the Event Viewer.
References: https://www.techrepublic.com/article/how-to-use-custom-views-in-windows-10s-event-viewer/

 

QUESTION 4
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear on the review screen.
You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10.
You test Windows updates on Computer1 before you make the updates available to other users at your company.
You install a quality update that conflicts with a customer device driver.
You need to remove the update from Computer1.
Solution: From System Restore, you revert the system state to a restore point that was created before the update was
installed.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
References: https://support.microsoft.com/en-us/help/934307/description-of-the-windows-update-standalone-installer-inwindows

 

QUESTION 5
HOTSPOT
You have two computers named Computer1 and Computer2 that run Windows 10. The computers are in a workgroup.
You perform the following configurations on Computer1:
1.
Create a user named User1.
2.
Add User1 to the Remote Desktop Users group.
You perform the following configurations on Computer2:
1.
Create a user named User1 and specify the same user password as the one set on Computer1.
2.
Create a share named Share2 and grant User1 Full control access to Share2.
3.
Enable Remote Desktop.
What are the effects of the configurations? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:[2021.1] lead4pass md-100 exam questions q5

 

QUESTION 6
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains named Computer1 that
runs Windows 10.
On Computer1, you create an NTFS folder and assign Full Control permissions to Everyone.
You share the folder as Share1 and assign the permissions shown in the following table.[2021.1] lead4pass md-100 exam questions q6

When accessing Share1, which two actions can be performed by User1 but not by User2? Each correct answer
presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Delete a file created by another user.
B. Set the permissions for a file.
C. Rename a file created by another user.
D. Take ownership of the file.
E. Copy a file created by another user to a subfolder.
Correct Answer: BD
References: https://www.varonis.com/blog/ntfs-permissions-vs-share/

 

QUESTION 7
HOTSPOT
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two computers named
Computer1 and Computer2 run Windows 10 and are joined to the domain.
On Computer1, you create an event subscription named Subscription1 for Computer2 as shown in the Subscription1
exhibit. (Click the Subcription1 tab.)[2021.1] lead4pass md-100 exam questions q7

Subscription1 is configured to use forwarded events as the destination log.
On Computer1, you create a custom view named View1 as shown in the View1 exhibit. (Click the View1 tab.)

[2021.1] lead4pass md-100 exam questions q7-1

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

[2021.1] lead4pass md-100 exam questions q7-2

 

QUESTION 8
Your network contains an Active Directory domain. The domain contains 10 computers that run Windows 10. Users in
the finance department use computers.
You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10.
From Computer1, you plan to run a script that executes Windows PowerShell commands on the finance department
computers.
You need to ensure that you can run the PowerShell commands on the finance department from Computer1.
What should you do with the finance department computers?
A. From the local Group Policy, enable the Allow Remote Shell Access setting.
B. From the local Group Policy, enable the Turn on Script Execution setting.
C. From the Windows PowerShell, run the Enable-MMAgent cmdlet.
D. From the Windows PowerShell, run the Enable-PSRemoting cmdlet.
Correct Answer: D
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/microsoft.powershell.core/enablepsremoting?view=powershell-6

 

QUESTION 9
You need to meet the quality update requirement for the computer. For how long should you defer the updates?
A. 14 days
B. 10 years
C. 5 years
D. 180 days
E. 30 days
Correct Answer: B
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/deployment/update/waas-overview

 

QUESTION 10
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains the users shown in the
following table.[2021.1] lead4pass md-100 exam questions q10

You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10 and is in a workgroup.
A local standard user on Computer1 named User1 joins the computer to the domain and uses the credentials of User2
when prompted.
You need to ensure that you can rename Computer1 as Computer33.
Solution: You use the credentials of User4 on Computer1.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Renaming a domain-joined computer will also rename the computer account in the domain. To do this, you need
domain administrator privileges.
User4 is a server operator, not an administrator. Members of the Server Operators group can sign in to a server
interactively, create and delete network shared resources, start and stop services, back up and restore files, format the
hard disk
drive of the computer, and shut down the computer.
Use User3\\’s credentials instead.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/security/identity-protection/access-control/active-directory-securitygroups#bkmk-domainadmins

 

QUESTION 11
HOTSPOT
You need to reduce the amount of time it takes to restart Application1 when the application crashes.
What should you include in the solution? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:[2021.1] lead4pass md-100 exam questions q11

Correct Answer:

[2021.1] lead4pass md-100 exam questions q11-1

Reference: https://www.howto-connect.com/how-to-attach-a-task-to-this-event-in-event-viewer-in-windows-10/


QUESTION 12
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear on the review screen.
A user named User1 has a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10. Computer1 is joined to an Azure Active
Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.com. User1 joins Computer1 to contoso.com by using
[email protected]
Computer1 contains a folder named Folder1. Folder1 is in drive C and is shared as Share1. Share1 has the permission
shown in the following table.[2021.1] lead4pass md-100 exam questions q12

A user named User2 has a computer named Computer2 that runs Windows 10. User2 joins Computer2 to contoso.com
by using [email protected]
User2 attempts to access Share1 and receives the following error message: “The username or password is incorrect.”
You need to ensure that User2 can connect to Share1.
Solution: In Azure AD, you create a group named Group1 that contains User1 and User2. You grant Group1 Modify
access to Folder1.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/previous-versions/windows/it-pro/windowsserver-2008-R2-and-2008/cc754178(v%3dws.10)

 

QUESTION 13
You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10.
On Computer1, you create the local users shown in the following table.[2021.1] lead4pass md-100 exam questions q13

Which three user profiles will persist after each user signs out? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. User1
B. User2
C. User3
D. User4
E. User5
Correct Answer: ADE

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QUESTION 1
A company runs an application in a branch office within a small data closet with no virtualized compute resources. The
application data is stored on an NFS volume. Compliance standards require a daily offsite backup of the NFS volume.
Which solution meet these requirements?
A. Install an AWS Storage Gateway file gateway on-premises to replicate the data to Amazon S3.
B. Install an AWS Storage Gateway file gateway hardware appliance on-premises to replicate the data to Amazon S3.
C. Install an AWS Storage Gateway volume gateway with stored volumes on-premises to replicate the data to Amazon
S3.
D. Install an AWS Storage Gateway volume gateway with cached volumes on-premises to replicate the data to Amazon
S3.
Correct Answer: A
AWS Storage Gateway Hardware Appliance
Hardware Appliance
Storage Gateway is available as a hardware appliance, adding to the existing support for VMware ESXi, Microsoft
Hyper-V, and Amazon EC2. This means that you can now make use of Storage Gateway in situations where you do not
have a virtualized environment, server-class hardware or IT staff with the specialized skills that are needed to manage
them. You can order appliances from Amazon.com for delivery to branch offices, warehouses, and “outpost” offices
that lack dedicated IT resources. Setup (as you will see in a minute) is quick and easy, and gives you access to three
storage solutions:
File Gateway – A file interface to Amazon S3, accessible via NFS or SMB. The files are stored as S3 objects, allowing
you to make use of specialized S3 features such as lifecycle management and cross-region replication. You can trigger
AWS Lambda functions, run Amazon Athena queries, and use Amazon Macie to discover and classify sensitive data.
Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/blogs/aws/new-aws-storage-gateway-hardware-appliance/
https://aws.amazon.com/storagegateway/file/

QUESTION 2
A solutions architect is implementing a document review application using an Amazon S3 bucket for storage The solution must prevent accidental deletion of the documents and ensure that all versions of the documents are available
Users must be able to download, modify, and upload documents Which combination of actions should be taken to meet
these requirements\\’? (Select TWO )
A. Enable a read-only bucket ACL
B. Enable versioning on the bucket
C. Attach a 1 AM policy to the bucket
D. Enable MFA Delete on the bucket
E. Encrypt the bucket using AWS KMS
Correct Answer: BD
Object Versioning
Use Amazon S3 Versioning to keep multiple versions of an object in one bucket. For example, you could store myimage.jpg (version 111111) and my-image.jpg (version 222222) in a single bucket. S3 Versioning protects you from the
consequences of unintended overwrite and deletions. You can also use it to archive objects so that you have access to
previous versions.
To customize your data retention approach and control storage costs, use object versioning with Object lifecycle
management. For information about creating S3 Lifecycle policies using the AWS Management Console, see How Do I
Create a Lifecycle Policy for an S3 Bucket? in the Amazon Simple Storage Service Console User Guide.
If you have an object expiration lifecycle policy in your non-versioned bucket and you want to maintain the same
permanent delete behavior when you enable versioning, you must add a noncurrent expiration policy. The noncurrent
expiration lifecycle policy will manage the deletes of the noncurrent object versions in the version-enabled bucket. (A
version-enabled bucket maintains one current and zero or more noncurrent object versions.)
You must explicitly enable S3 Versioning on your bucket. By default, S3 Versioning is disabled. Regardless of whether
you have enabled Versioning, each object in your bucket has a version ID. If you have not enabled Versioning, Amazon
S3 sets the value of the version ID to null. If S3 Versioning is enabled, Amazon S3 assigns a version ID value for the
object. This value distinguishes it from other versions of the same key.
Enabling and suspending versioning is done at the bucket level. When you enable versioning on an existing bucket,
objects that are already stored in the bucket are unchanged. The version IDs (null), contents, and permissions remain
the same. After you enable S3 Versioning for a bucket, each object that is added to the bucket gets a version ID, which
distinguishes it from other versions of the same key.
Only Amazon S3 generates version IDs, and they can\\’t be edited. Version IDs are Unicode, UTF-8 encoded, URLready, opaque strings that are no more than 1,024 bytes long. The following is an example: 3/L4kqtJlcpXroDTDmJ
+rmSpXd3dIbrHY+MTRCxf3vjVBH40Nr8X8gdRQBpUMLUo.
Using MFA delete
If a bucket\\’s versioning configuration is MFA Delete–enabled, the bucket owner must include the x-amz-MFA request
header in requests to permanently delete an object version or change the versioning state of the bucket. Requests that
include x-amz-MFA must use HTTPS. The header\\’s value is the concatenation of your authentication device\\’s serial
number, space, and the authentication code displayed on it. If you do not include this request header, the request
fails.
Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/s3/features/
https://docs.aws.amazon.com/AmazonS3/latest/dev/ObjectVersioning.html
https://docs.aws.amazon.com/AmazonS3/latest/dev/UsingMFADelete.html

QUESTION 3
A company is looking for a solution that can store video archives in AWS from old news footage. The company needs to
minimize costs and will rarely need to restore these files. When the files are needed, they must be available in a
maximum of five minutes.
What is the MOST cost-effective solution?
A. Store the video archives in Amazon S3 Glacier and use Expedited retrievals.
B. Store the video archives in Amazon S3 Glacier and use Standard retrievals.
C. Store the video archives in Amazon S3 Standard-Infrequent Access (S3 Standard-IA).
D. Store the video archives in Amazon S3 One Zone-Infrequent Access (S3 One Zone-IA).
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
An application requires a development environment (DEV) and the production environment (PROD) for several years. The
DEV instances will run for 10 hours each day during normal business hours, while the PROD instances will run 24 hours
each day. A solutions architect needs to determine a compute instance purchase strategy to minimize costs.
Which solution is the MOST cost-effective?
A. DEV with Spot Instances and PROD with On-Demand Instances
B. DEV with On-Demand Instances and PROD with Spot Instances
C. DEV with Scheduled Reserved Instances and PROD with Reserved Instances
D. DEV with On-Demand Instances and PROD with Scheduled Reserved Instances
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
A company runs a web service on Amazon EC2 instances behind an Application Load Balancer The instances run in an
Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling group across two Availability Zones The company needs a minimum of four instances at all
limes to meet the required service level agreement (SLA) while keeping costs low.
If an Availability Zone fails, how can the company remain compliant with the SLA?
A. Add a target tracking scaling policy with a short cooldown period
B. Change the Auto Scaling group launch configuration to use a larger instance type
C. Change the Auto Scaling group to use six servers across three Availability Zones
D. Change the Auto Scaling group to use eight servers across two Availability Zones
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
A company has a two-tier application architecture that runs in public and private subnets Amazon EC2 instances
running the web application is in the public subnet and a database runs on the private subnet The web application
instances
and the database is running in a single Availability Zone (AZ).
Which combination of steps should a solutions architect take to provide high availability for this architecture? (Select
TWO.)
A. Create new public and private subnets in the same AZ for high availability
B. Create an Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling group and Application Load Balancer spanning multiple AZs
C. Add the existing web application instances to an Auto Scaling group behind an Application Load Balancer
D. Create new public and private subnets in a new AZ Create a database using Amazon EC2 in one AZ
E. Create new public and private subnets in the same VPC each in a new AZ Migrate the database to an Amazon RDS
multi-AZ deployment
Correct Answer: BE
You can take advantage of the safety and reliability of geographic redundancy by spanning your Auto Scaling group
across multiple Availability Zones within a Region and then attaching a load balancer to distribute incoming traffic
across
those zones. Incoming traffic is distributed equally across all Availability Zones enabled for your load balancer.
Note.
An Auto Scaling group can contain Amazon EC2 instances from multiple Availability Zones within the same region.
However, an Auto Scaling group can\\’t contain instances from multiple Regions. When one Availability Zone becomes
unhealthy or unavailable, Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling launches new instances in an unaffected zone. When the
unhealthy Availability Zone returns to a healthy state, Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling automatically redistributes the
application
instances evenly across all of the zones for your Auto Scaling group. Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling does this by attempting
to launch new instances in the Availability Zone with the fewest instances. If the attempt fails, however, Amazon EC2
Auto Scaling attempts to launch in other Availability Zones until it succeeds. You can expand the availability of your
scaled and load-balanced application by adding an Availability Zone to your Auto Scaling group and then enabling that
zone
for your load balancer. After you\\’ve enabled the new Availability Zone, the load balancer begins to route traffic equally
among all the enabled zones.
High Availability (Multi-AZ) for Amazon RDS
Amazon RDS provides high availability and failover support for DB instances using Multi-AZ deployments. Amazon RDS
uses several different technologies to provide failover support. Multi-AZ deployments for MariaDB, MySQL, Oracle, and
PostgreSQL DB instances use Amazon\\’s failover technology. SQL Server DB instances use SQL Server Database
Mirroring (DBM) or Always On Availability Groups (AGs). In a Multi-AZ deployment, Amazon RDS automatically
provisions
and maintains a synchronous standby replica in a different Availability Zone. The primary DB instance is synchronously
replicated across Availability Zones to a standby replica to provide data redundancy, eliminate I/O freezes, and
minimize
latency spikes during system backups. Running a DB instance with high availability can enhance availability during
planned system maintenance, and help protect your databases against DB instance failure and Availability Zone
disruption.
For more information on Availability Zones, see Regions, Availability Zones, and Local Zoneslead4pass saa-c02 practice test q6

https://docs.aws.amazon.com/autoscaling/ec2/userguide/as-add-availability-zone.html
https://docs.aws.amazon.com/AmazonRDS/latest/UserGuide/Concepts.MultiAZ.html

QUESTION 7
A solutions architect is designing a multi-region disaster recovery solution for an application that will provide public API
access. The application will use Amazon EC2 instances with a user-data script to load application code and an Amazon
RDS for MySQL database The Recovery Time Objective (RTO) is 3 hours and the Recovery Point Objective (RPO) is
24 hours. Which architecture would meet these requirements at the LOWEST cost?
A. Use an Application Load Balancer for Region failover Deploy new EC2 instances with the user data script Deploy
separate RDS instances in each Region
B. Use Amazon Route 53 for Region failover Deploy new EC2 instances with the user data script Create a read replica
of the RDS instance in a backup Region
C. Use Amazon API Gateway for the public APIs and Region failover Deploy new EC2 instances with the user data
script Create a MySQL read replica of the RDS instance in a backup Region
D. Use Amazon Route 53 for Region failover Deploy new EC2 instances with the user data scnpt for APIs and create a
snapshot of the RDS instance daily for a backup Replicate the snapshot to a backup Region
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
A recent analysis of a company\\’s IT expenses highlights the need to reduce backup costs. The company\\’s chief
information officer wants to simplify the on-premises backup infrastructure and reduce costs by eliminating the use of
physical backup tapes. The company must preserve the existing investment in the on-premises backup applications and
workflows.
What should a solutions architect recommend?
A. Set up AWS Storage Gateway to connect with the backup applications using the NFS interface.
B. Set up an Amazon EFS file system that connects with the backup applications using the NFS interface
C. Set up an Amazon EFS file system that connects with the backup applications using the iSCSI interface
D. Set up AWS Storage Gateway to connect with the backup applications using the iSCSI-virtual tape library (VTL)
interface.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
A company hosts its core network services, including directory services and DNS, in its promises data center. The
data center is connected to the AWS Cloud using AWS Direct Connect (DX). Additional AWS accounts are planned that
will require quick, cost-effective, and consistent access to these network services.
What should a solutions architect implement to meet these requirements with the LEAST amount of operational
overhead?
A. Create a DX connection in each new account. Route the network traffic to the on-premises servers.
B. Configure VPC endpoints in the DX VPC for all required services. Route the network traffic to the on-premises
servers.
C. Create a VPN connection between each new account and the DX VPC. Route the network traffic to the on-premises
servers.
D. Configure AWS Transit Gateway between the accounts. Assigns DX to the transit gateway and route network traffic
to the on-premises servers.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
A web application runs on Amazon EC2 instances behind an Application Load Balancer. The application allows users to
create custom reports of historical weather data. Generating a report can take up to 5 minutes. These long-running
requests use many of the available incoming connections, making the system unresponsive to other users.
How can a solutions architect make the system more responsive?
A. Use Amazon SQS with AWS Lambda to generate reports.
B. Increase the idle timeout on the Application Load Balancer to 5 minutes.
C. Update the client-side application code to increase its request timeout to 5 minutes.
D. Publish the reports to Amazon S3 and use Amazon CloudFront for downloading to the user.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
A solutions architect is designing a solution to access a catalog of images and provide users with the ability to submit
requests to customize images Image customization parameters will be in any request sent to an AWS API Gateway API
The customized image will be generated on demand, and users will receive a link they can click to view or download
their customized image The solution must be highly available for viewing and customizing images What is the MOST
cost-effective solution to meet these requirements?
A. Use Amazon EC2 instances to manipulate the original image into the requested customization Store the original and
manipulated images in Amazon S3 Configure an Elastic Load Balancer in front of the EC2 instances
B. Use AWS Lambda to manipulate the original image to the requested customization Store the original and
manipulated images in Amazon S3 Configure an Amazon CloudFront distribution with the S3 bucket as the origin
C. Use AWS Lambda to manipulate the original image to the requested customization Store the
D. Use Amazon EC2 instances to manipulate the original image into the requested customization Store the original
images in Amazon S3 and the manipulated images in Amazon DynamoDB Configure an Amazon CloudFront
distribution with the S3 bucket as the origin
Correct Answer: B
AWS Lambda is a compute service that lets you run code without provisioning or managing servers. AWS Lambda
executes your code only when needed and scales automatically, from a few requests per day to thousands per second.
You pay only for the compute time you consume – there is no charge when your code is not running. With AWS
Lambda, you can run code for virtually any type of application or backend service – all with zero administration. AWS
Lambda runs your code on a high-availability compute infrastructure and performs all of the administration of the
compute resources, including server and operating system maintenance, capacity provisioning and automatic scaling,
code monitoring, and logging. All you need to do is supply your code in one of the languages that AWS Lambda
supports.
Storing your static content with S3 provides a lot of advantages. But to help optimize your application\\’s performance
and security while effectively managing cost, we recommend that you also set up Amazon CloudFront to work with your
S3 bucket to serve and protect the content. CloudFront is a content delivery network (CDN) service that delivers static
and dynamic web content, video streams, and APIs around the world, securely and at scale. By design, delivering data
out of CloudFront can be more cost-effective than delivering it from S3 directly to your users.
CloudFront serves content through a worldwide network of data centers called Edge Locations. Using edge servers to
cache and serve content improves performance by providing content closer to where viewers are located. CloudFront
has edge servers in locations all around the world.
Reference: https://docs.aws.amazon.com/lambda/latest/dg/welcome.html https://aws.amazon.com/blogs/networkingand-content-delivery/amazon-s3-amazon-cloudfront-a-match-made-in-the-cloud/

QUESTION 12
A company must migrate 20 TB of data from a data center to the AWS Cloud within 30 days. The company\\’s network
bandwidth is limited to 15 Mbps and cannot exceed 70% utilization. What should a solutions architect do to meet these
requirements?
A. Use AWS Snowball.
B. Use AWS DataSync.
C. Use a secure VPN connection.
D. Use Amazon S3 Transfer Acceleration.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
A company hosts an application used to upload files to an Amazon S3 bucket Once uploaded, the files are processed to
extract metadata, which takes less than 5 seconds. The volume and frequency of the uploads vanes from a few files
each hour to hundreds of concurrent uploads. The company has asked a solutions architect to design a cost-effective
architecture that will meet these requirements.
What should the solutions architect recommend?
A. Configure AWS CloudTrail trails to log S3 API calls Use AWS AppSync to process the files
B. Configure an object-created event notification within the S3 bucket to invoke an AWS Lambda function to process the
files.
C. Configure Amazon Kinesis Data Streams to process and send data to Amazon S3 Invoke an AWS Lambda function
to process the files
D. Configure an Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS) topic to process the files uploaded to Amazon S3.
Invoke an AWS Lambda function to process the files.
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
IT leadership wants Jo transition a company\\’s existing machine learning data storage environment to AWS as a
temporary ad hoc solution The company currently uses a custom software process that heavily leverages SOL as a
query language and exclusively stores generated csv documents for machine learning
The ideal state for the company would be a solution that allows it to continue to use the current workforce of SQL
experts The solution must also support the storage of csv and JSON files, and be able to query over semi-structured
data The following are high priorities for the company:
1.
Solution simplicity
2.
Fast development time
3.
Low cost
4.
High flexibility
What technologies meet the company\\’s requirements?
A. Amazon S3 and Amazon Athena
B. Amazon Redshift and AWS Glue
C. Amazon DynamoDB and DynamoDB Accelerator (DAX)
D. Amazon RDS and Amazon ES
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 2
While reviewing the histogram for residuals on regression evaluation data a Machine Learning Specialist notices that the
residuals do not form a zero-centered bell shape as shown What does this mean?
A. The model might have prediction errors over a range of target values.
B. The dataset cannot be accurately represented using the regression model
C. There are too many variables in the model
D. The model is predicting its target values perfectly.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 3
An office security agency conducted a successful pilot using 100 cameras installed at key locations within the main
office. Images from the cameras were uploaded to Amazon S3 and tagged using Amazon Rekognition, and the results
were stored in Amazon ES. The agency is now looking to expand the pilot into a full production system using thousands
of video cameras in its office locations globally. The goal is to identify activities performed by non-employees in real
time.
Which solution should the agency consider?
A. Use a proxy server at each local office and for each camera, and stream the RTSP feed to a unique Amazon Kinesis
Video Streams video stream. On each stream, use Amazon Rekognition Video and create a stream processor to detect
faces from a collection of known employees, and alert when non-employees are detected.
B. Use a proxy server at each local office and for each camera, and stream the RTSP feed to a unique Amazon Kinesis
Video Streams video stream. On each stream, use Amazon Rekognition Image to detect faces from a collection of
known employees and alert when non-employees are detected.
C. Install AWS DeepLens cameras and use the DeepLens_Kinesis_Video module to stream video to Amazon Kinesis
Video Streams for each camera. On each stream, use Amazon Rekognition Video and create a stream processor to
detect faces from a collection on each stream, and alert when nonemployees are detected.
D. Install AWS DeepLens cameras and use the DeepLens_Kinesis_Video module to stream video to Amazon Kinesis
Video Streams for each camera. On each stream, run an AWS Lambda function to capture image fragments and then
call Amazon Rekognition Image to detect faces from a collection of known employees, and alert when non-employees
are detected.
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/blogs/machine-learning/video-analytics-in-the-cloud-and-at-the-edge-with-awsdeeplens-and-kinesis-video-streams/

 

QUESTION 4
A Machine Learning Specialist is building a model that will perform time series forecasting using Amazon SageMaker.
The Specialist has finished training the model and is now planning to perform load testing on the endpoint so they can
configure Auto Scaling for the model variant.
Which approach will allow the Specialist to review the latency, memory utilization, and CPU utilization during the load
test?
A. Review SageMaker logs that have been written to Amazon S3 by leveraging Amazon Athena and Amazon
OuickSight to visualize logs as they are being produced
B. Generate an Amazon CloudWatch dashboard to create a single view for the latency, memory utilization, and CPU
utilization metrics that are outputted by Amazon SageMaker
C. Build custom Amazon CloudWatch Logs and then leverage Amazon ES and Kibana to query and visualize the data
as it is generated by Amazon SageMaker
D. Send Amazon CloudWatch Logs that were generated by Amazon SageMaker lo Amazon ES and use Kibana to
query and visualize the log data.
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://docs.aws.amazon.com/sagemaker/latest/dg/monitoring-cloudwatch.html

 

QUESTION 5
A Machine Learning Specialist is working with a large cybersecurity company that manages security events in real-time
for companies around the world The cybersecurity company wants to design a solution that will allow it to use machine
learning to score malicious events as anomalies on the data as it is being ingested The company also wants to be able to
save the results in its data lake for later processing and analysis
What is the MOST efficient way to accomplish these tasks\\’?
A. Ingest the data using Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose and use Amazon Kinesis Data Analytics Random Cut, Forest
(RCF) for anomaly detection Then use Kinesis Data Firehose to stream the results to Amazon S3
B. Ingest the data into Apache Spark Streaming using Amazon EMR. and use Spark MLlib with k-means to perform
anomaly detection Then store the results in an Apache Hadoop Distributed File System (HDFS) using Amazon EMR
with a replication factor of three as the data lake
C. Ingest the data and store it in Amazon S3 Use AWS Batch along with the AWS Deep Learning AMIs to train a kmeans model using TensorFlow on the data in Amazon S3.
D. Ingest the data and store it in Amazon S3. Have an AWS Glue job that is triggered on demand transform the new
data Then use the built-in Random Cut Forest (RCF) model within Amazon SageMaker to detect anomalies in the data
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 6
A Machine Learning Specialist at a company sensitive to security is preparing a dataset for model training. The dataset
is stored in Amazon S3 and contains Personally Identifiable Information (Pll). The dataset:
1.
Must be accessible from a VPC only.
2.
Must not traverse the public internet. How can these requirements be satisfied?
A. Create a VPC endpoint and apply a bucket access policy that restricts access to the given VPC endpoint and the
VPC.
B. Create a VPC endpoint and apply a bucket access policy that allows access from the given VPC endpoint and an
Amazon EC2 instance.
C. Create a VPC endpoint and use Network Access Control Lists (NACLs) to allow traffic between only the given VPC
endpoint and an Amazon EC2 instance.
D. Create a VPC endpoint and use security groups to restrict access to the given VPC endpoint and an Amazon EC2
instance.
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://docs.aws.amazon.com/AmazonS3/latest/dev/example-bucket-policies-vpc-endpoint.html

 

QUESTION 7
A Machine Learning Specialist needs to create a data repository to hold a large amount of time-based training data for a
new model. In the source system, new files are added every hour Throughout a single 24-hour period, the volume of
hourly updates will change significantly. The Specialist always wants to train on the last 24 hours of the data
Which type of data repository is the MOST cost-effective solution?
A. An Amazon EBS-backed Amazon EC2 instance with hourly directories
B. An Amazon RDS database with hourly table partitions
C. An Amazon S3 data lake with hourly object prefixes
D. An Amazon EMR cluster with hourly hive partitions on Amazon EBS volumes
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 8
A manufacturer of car engines collects data from cars as they are being driven The data collected includes a timestamp,
engine temperature, rotations per minute (RPM), and other sensor readings The company wants to predict when an engine is going to have a problem so it can notify drivers in advance to get engine maintenance The engine data is
loaded into a data lake for training
Which is the MOST suitable predictive model that can be deployed into production\\’?
A. Add labels over time to indicate which engine faults occur at what time in the future to turn this into a supervised
learning problem Use a recurrent neural network (RNN) to train the model to recognize when an engine might need
maintenance for a certain fault.
B. This data requires an unsupervised learning algorithm Use Amazon SageMaker k-means to cluster the data
C. Add labels over time to indicate which engine faults occur at what time in the future to turn this into a supervised
learning problem Use a convolutional neural network (CNN) to train the model to recognize when an engine might need
maintenance for a certain fault.
D. This data is already formulated as a time series Use Amazon SageMaker seq2seq to model the time series.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 9
A Machine Learning Specialist is packaging a custom ResNet model into a Docker container so the company can
leverage Amazon SageMaker for training The Specialist is using Amazon EC2 P3 instances to train the model and
needs to properly configure the Docker container to leverage the NVIDIA GPUs
What does the Specialist need to do1?
A. Bundle the NVIDIA drivers with the Docker image
B. Build the Docker container to be NVIDIA-Docker compatible
C. Organize the Docker container\\’s file structure to execute on GPU instances.
D. Set the GPU flag in the Amazon SageMaker Create TrainingJob request body
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 10
A manufacturing company asks its Machine Learning Specialist to develop a model that classifies defective parts into
one of eight defect types. The company has provided roughly 100000 images per defect type for training During the injial training of the image classification model the Specialist notices that the validation accuracy is 80%, while the
training accuracy is 90% It is known that human-level performance for this type of image classification is around 90%
What should the Specialist consider to fix this issue1?
A. A longer training time
B. Making the network larger
C. Using a different optimizer
D. Using some form of regularization
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 11
A Machine Learning Specialist must build out a process to query a dataset on Amazon S3 using Amazon Athena The dataset contains more than 800.000 records stored as plaintext CSV files Each record contains 200 columns and is
approximately 1 5 MB in size Most queries will span 5 to 10 columns only
How should the Machine Learning Specialist transform the dataset to minimize query runtime?
A. Convert the records to Apache Parquet format
B. Convert the records to JSON format
C. Convert the records to GZIP CSV format
D. Convert the records to XML format
Correct Answer: A
Using compressions will reduce the amount of data scanned by Amazon Athena, and also reduce your S3 bucket
storage. It\\’s a Win-Win for your AWS bill. Supported formats: GZIP, LZO, SNAPPY (Parquet), and ZLIB. Reference:
https://www.cloudforecast.io/blog/using-parquet-on-athena-to-save-money-on-aws/


QUESTION 12
A Machine Learning Specialist was given a dataset consisting of unlabeled data The Specialist must create a model that
can help the team classify the data into different buckets What model should be used to complete this work?
A. K-means clustering
B. Random Cut Forest (RCF)
C. XGBoost
D. BlazingText
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13
A Machine Learning Specialist needs to be able to ingest streaming data and store it in Apache Parquet files for
exploration and analysis. Which of the following services would both ingest and store this data in the correct format?
A. AWS DMS
B. Amazon Kinesis Data Streams
C. Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose
D. Amazon Kinesis Data Analytics
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
Once the migration completes, to which size should you set the ExpressRoute circuit to the New York office to meet the
business goals and technical requirements?
A. 500 Mbps
B. 1,000 Mbps
C. 2,000 Mbps
D. 5,000 Mbps
Correct Answer: C
ExpressRoute circuits are configured to allow you to burst up to two times the bandwidth limit you procured for no
additional cost.
Scenario: It is estimated that during the migration, the bandwidth required between Azure and the New York office will
be 1 Gbps. After the migration, a traffic burst of up to 3 Gbps will occur.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/expressroute/expressroute-faqs

QUESTION 2
HOTSPOT
You have an on-premises SAP environment. Application servers run on SUSE Linux Enterprise Server (SLES) servers.
Databases run on SLES servers that have Oracle installed.
You need to recommend a solution to migrate the environment to Azure. The solution must use currently deployed
technologies whenever possible and support high availability.
What should you include in the recommendation? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

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QUESTION 3
You plan to deploy an SAP environment on Azure.
During a bandwidth assessment, you identify that connectivity between Azure and an on-premises data center requires
up to 5 Gbps.
You need to identify which connectivity method you must implement to meet the bandwidth requirement. The solution
must minimize costs.
Which connectivity method should you identify?
A. an ExpressRoute connection
B. an Azure site-to-site VPN that is route-based
C. an Azure site-to-site VPN that is policy-based
D. Global VNet peering
Correct Answer: B
Azure site-to-site VPN is cheaper. Incorrect Answers:
A: ExpressRoute could be quite expensive.
C: Policy-based gateways use static routing and only work with site-to-site connections.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/architecture/reference-architectures/hybrid-networking/vpn

QUESTION 4
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear on the review screen.
You deploy SAP HANA on Azure (Large Instances).
You need to back up the SAP HANA database to Azure.
Solution: You configure DB13 to back up directly to a local disk.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
You need to back up the SAP HANA database to Azure, not to a local disk.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/backup/sap-hana-db-about https://docs.microsoft.com/enus/azure/backup/backup-azure-sap-hana-database#configure-backup

QUESTION 5
You plan to deploy an SAP environment on Azure.
You plan to store all SAP connection strings securely in Azure Key Vault without storing credentials on the Azure virtual
machines that host SAP.
What should you configure to allow the virtual machines to access the key vault?
A. Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) Privileged Identity Manager (PIM)
B. role-based access control (RBAC)
C. a Managed Service Identity (MSI)
D. the Custom Script Extension

Correct Answer: C
To reference a credential stored in Azure Key Vault, you need to:
1.
Retrieve data factory managed identity
2.
Grant the managed identity access to your Azure Key Vault
3.
Create a linked service pointing to your Azure Key Vault.
4.
Create a datastore linked service, inside which reference the corresponding secret stored in the key vault.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/bs-latn-ba/azure/data-factory/store-credentials-in-key-vault

QUESTION 6
HOTSPOT
You have an Azure Availability Set that is configured as shown in the following exhibit.

lead4pass az-120 exam questions q6

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information
presented in the graphic.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass az-120 exam questions q6-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass az-120 exam questions q6-2

Box 1: the same fault domain
Fault domains define the group of virtual machines that share a common power source and network switch. If a storage
fault domain fails due to hardware or software failure, only the VM instance with disks on the storage fault domain fails.
Box 2: managed disks
Managed disks provide better reliability for Availability Sets by ensuring that the disks of VMs in an Availability Set are
sufficiently isolated from each other to avoid single points of failure. It does this by automatically placing the disks in different storage fault domains (storage clusters) and aligning them with the VM fault domain.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-machines/windows/manage-availability

QUESTION 7
You have an SAP environment on Azure that uses multiple subscriptions.
To meet GDPR requirements, you need to ensure that virtual machines are deployed only to West Europe and
North Europe Azure regions.
Which Azure components should you use?
A. Azure resource locks and the Compliance admin center
B. Azure resource groups and role-based access control (RBAC)
C. Azure management groups and Azure Policy
D. Azure Security Center and Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) groups
Correct Answer: C
Azure Policy enables you to set policies to conform to the GDPR. Azure Policy is generally available today at no
the additional cost to Azure customers. You can use Azure Policy to define and enforce policies that help your cloud environment becomes compliant with internal policies as well as external regulations.
Azure Policy is deeply integrated into the Azure Resource Manager and applies across all resources in Azure. Individual
policies can be grouped into initiatives to quickly implement multiple rules. You can also use Azure Policy in a wide
range of compliance scenarios, such as ensuring that your data is encrypted or remains in a specific region as part of
GDPR compliance. Microsoft is the only hyper-scale cloud provider to offer this level of policy integration built into the
platform for no additional charge.
References: https://azure.microsoft.com/de-de/blog/new-capabilities-to-enable-robust-gdpr-compliance/

QUESTION 8
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear on the review screen.
You plan to migrate an SAP HANA instance to Azure.
You need to gather CPU metrics from the last 24 hours from the instance.
Solution: You use the DBA Cockpit from SAP GUI. 

Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
The SAP HANA cockpit provides a single point of access to a range of SAP HANA administration and monitoring tasks.
It is used to monitor and ensure the overall health of the system.
The HANA Monitoring dashboard also visualizes key HANA Metrics of the SAP HANA system.
References:
https://developers.sap.com/tutorials/dt-monitoring-hana-part1.html
https://help.sap.com/viewer/afa922439b204e9caf22c78b6b69e4f2/2.10.0.0/en-US
https://www.hanatutorials.com/p/hana-monitoring-dashboard.html

QUESTION 9
HOTSPOT
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass az-120 exam questions q9

Correct Answer:

lead4pass az-120 exam questions q9-1

Box 1: No
Box 2: Yes The minimum SAP HANA certified conditions for the different storage types are: Azure Premium SSD –
/Hana/log is required to be cached with Azure Write Accelerator. The /Hana/data volume could be placed on Premium
SSD without Azure Write Accelerator or on Ultra disk Box 3: Yes References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-machines/workloads/sap/hana-vm-operations-storage

QUESTION 10
You plan to migrate an SAP ERP Central Component (SAP ECC) production system to Azure.
You are reviewing the SAP EarlyWatch Alert report for the system.
You need to recommend sizes for the Azure virtual machines that will host the system.
Which two sections of the report should you review? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Hardware Capacity
B. Patch Levels under SAP Software Configuration
C. Hardware Configuration under Landscape
D. Database and ABAP Load Optimization
E. Data Volume Management
Correct Answer: AD
It is important to note that there are 2 types of data collected for Hardware Capacity.
Performance Data – e.g. CPU and Memory utilization data.
Hardware Capacity data shown in the EWA is measuring CPU and Memory utilization data. This is known as
Performance Data.
Configuration Data – e.g. OS information, CPU type.
It is also collecting system information about the host such as hardware manufacturer, CPU type, etc. This is known as
Configuration Data. Incorrect Answers:
E: Data Volume Management focuses on whether the collection of DVM content for the EarlyWatch Alert report is not
performed, not activated, or not possible because the SAP Solution Manager system does not meet the technical
requirements.
References: https://wiki.scn.sap.com/wiki/display/SM/Hardware+Capacity+Checks+in+EWA

QUESTION 11
HOTSPOT
You are planning the Azure network infrastructure for an SAP environment.
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass az-120 exam questions q11

Correct Answer:

lead4pass az-120 exam questions q11-1

Box 1: Yes
Box 2: No A design that\\’s not supported is the segregation of the SAP application layer and the DBMS layer into
different Azure virtual networks that aren\\’t peered with each other. We recommend that you segregate the SAP
application layer and DBMS layer by using subnets within an Azure virtual network instead of by using different Azure
virtual networks.
Box 3: Yes Be aware that network traffic between two peered Azure virtual networks is subject to transfer costs. Huge
data volume that consists of many terabytes is exchanged between the SAP application layer and the DBMS layer. You
can accumulate substantial costs if the SAP application layer and DBMS layer are segregated between two peered
Azure virtual networks.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-machines/workloads/sap/dbms_guide_general

QUESTION 12
HOTSPOT
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass az-120 exam questions q12

Correct Answer:

lead4pass az-120 exam questions q12-1

Box 1: Yes
The SAP Azure Enhanced Monitoring Extension builds on top of the Azure Diagnostic extension, which stores its data in
an Azure Storage account that you specify.
Box 2: Yes
The Set-AzVMAEMExtension cmdlet updates the configuration of a virtual machine to enable or update the support for
monitoring for SAP systems that are installed on the virtual machine. The cmdlet installs the Azure Enhanced
Monitoring
(AEM) extension that collects the performance data and makes it discoverable for the SAP system.
The -OSType specifies the OS. Either Windows or Linux.
Box 3: Yes
References:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-monitor/platform/diagnostics-extension-overview
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/az.compute/set-azvmaemextension

QUESTION 13
DRAG DROP
You migrate SAP ERP Central Component (SAP ECC) production and non-production landscapes to Azure.
You are licensed for SAP Landscape Management (LaMa).
You need to refresh from the production landscape to the non-production landscape.
Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to
the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

lead4pass az-120 exam questions q13

Correct Answer:

lead4pass az-120 exam questions q13-1

Step 1: From the Azure portal, create a service principal
The Azure connector can use a Service Principal to authorize against Microsoft Azure. Follow these steps to create a
Service Principal for SAP Landscape Management (LaMa).
Step 2: Add permissions to the service principal
The Service Principal does not have permission to access your Azure resources by default. You need to give the
Service Principal permissions to access them.
Step 3: From the Cloud Managers tab in LaMa, add an adapter
Create a new connector in SAP LaMa
Open the SAP LaMa website and navigate to Infrastructure. Go to tab Cloud Managers and click on Add. Select the
Microsoft Azure Cloud Adapter
Step 4: Install and configure LaMA on an SAP NetWeaver instance
Provision a new adaptive SAP system
You can manually deploy a new virtual machine or use one of the Azure templates in the quickstart repository. It
contains templates for SAP NetWeaver ASCS, SAP NetWeaver application servers, and the database. You can also
use these
templates to provision new hosts as part of a system copy/clone etc.
Note: To support customers on their journey into a cloud model (hybrid or entirely public cloud), SAP and Microsoft
partnered to create an adapter that integrates the SAP management capabilities of LaMa with the IaaS advantages of
Microsoft Azure.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-machines/workloads/sap/lama-installation

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Latest updates Microsoft AZ-301 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com that is federated to an Azure Active Directory
(Azure AD) tenant. The on-premises domain contains a VPN server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016.
You have a single on-premises location that uses an address space of 172.16.0.0/16.
You need to implement two-factor authentication for users who establish VPN connections to Server1.
What should you include in the implementation?
A. In Azure AD, create a conditional access policy and a trusted named location
B. Install and configure Azure MFA Server on-premises
C. Configure an Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) server on-premises
D. In Azure AD, configure the authentication methods. From the multi-factor authentication (MFA) service settings,
create a trusted IP range
Correct Answer: B
You need to download, install, and configure the MFA Server.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/authentication/howto-mfaserver-deploy

QUESTION 2
HOTSPOT
You deploy Azure service by using Azure Resources Manager templates. The template reference secrets are stored in
Azure Key Vault.
You need to recommend a solution for accessing the secrets during deployments.
The solution must prevent the users who are performing the deployments from accessing the secrets in the key vault
directly.
What should you include in the recommendation? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass az-301 exam questions q2

Correct Answer:

lead4pass az-301 exam questions q2-1

Box 1: An advanced access policy for the key vaults
Enable template deployment
In the portal, select your Key Vault.
Select Access policies.
Select access policies
Select Click to show advanced access policies.
Show advanced access policies
Select Enable access to Azure Resource Manager for template deployment. Then, select Save.
Box 2: Role-based access control (RBAC)
In large teams, you may have multiple people deploying resources but don\\’t want to give them access to the actual
secrets inside the vault. You can achieve this by creating a custom role that only gives access to the KeyVault for
deployment
purposes. The deployment user cannot read the secrets within.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/bs-latn-ba/azure/managed-applications/key-vault-access
https://azurecto.com/azure-key-vault-custom-role-for-deployment/

QUESTION 3
You are designing a virtual machine that will run Microsoft SQL Server and will contain two data disks. The first data
the disk will store log files, and the second data disk will store data.
Both disks are P40 managed disks.
You need to recommend a caching policy for each disk. The policy must provide the best overall performance for the
virtual machine.
Which caching policy should you recommend for each disk? To answer, drag the appropriate policies to the correct
disks. Each policy may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes
or
scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

lead4pass az-301 exam questions q3

Correct Answer:

lead4pass az-301 exam questions q3-1

QUESTION 4
You have a .NET web service named Service1 that has the following requirements:
1.
Must read and write temporary files to the local file system.
2.
Must write to the Windows Application event log.
You need to recommend a solution to host Service1 in Azure. The solution must meet the following requirements:
1.
Minimize maintenance overhead.
2.
Minimize costs.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. an Azure virtual machine scale set
B. an Azure function
C. an App Service Environment
D. an Azure web app
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5

HOTSPOT
Your company deploys an Azure App Service Web App.
During testing the application fails under load. The application cannot handle more than 100 concurrent user sessions.
You enable the Always-On feature. You also configure auto-scaling to increase counts from two to 10 based on HTTP
queue length.
You need to improve the performance of the application.
Which solution should you use for each application scenario? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer
area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass az-301 exam questions q5

Correct Answer:

lead4pass az-301 exam questions q5-1

Box 1: Content Delivery Network A content delivery network (CDN) is a distributed network of servers that can efficiently
deliver web content to users. CDNs store cached content on edge servers in point-of-presence (POP) locations that are
close to end-users, to minimize latency.
Azure Content Delivery Network (CDN) offers developers a global solution for rapidly delivering high-bandwidth content
to users by caching their content at strategically placed physical nodes across the world. Azure CDN can also
accelerate dynamic content, which cannot be cached, by leveraging various network optimizations using CDN POPs.
For example, route optimization to bypass Border Gateway Protocol (BGP).
Box 2: Azure Redis Cache Azure Cache for Redis is based on the popular software Redis. It is typically used as a cache
to improve the performance and scalability of systems that rely heavily on backend data-stores. Performance is
improved by temporarily copying frequently accessed data to fast storage located close to the application. With Azure
Cache for Redis, this fast storage is located in-memory with Azure Cache for Redis instead of being loaded from disk by
a database.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-cache-for-redis/cache-overview

QUESTION 6
Use the following login credentials as needed:
To enter your username, place your cursor in the Sign inbox and click on the username below.
To enter your password, place your cursor in the Enter password box and click on the password below.
Azure Username: [email protected]

Azure Password: KJn29!a!dB
If the Azure portal does not load successfully in the browser, press CTRL-K to reload the portal in a new browser tab.
The following information is for technical support purposes only:
Lab Instance: 10989425

lead4pass az-301 exam questions q6

You need to recommend a networking solution to ensure that NWVM1 and NWVM3 can successfully establish network connections to one another. The solution must be implemented as quickly as possible.
What should you include in the recommendation?
NOTE: To answer this question, sign in to the Azure portal and explore an Azure resource group named
ResourceGroup1lod10989425.
A. two Azure firewalls
B. two network security groups (NSGs)
C. two virtual network peerings
D. two local network gateways and one site-to-site VPN
Correct Answer: D
References: https://azure.microsoft.com/es-es/blog/vnet-to-vnet-connecting-virtual-networks-in-azure-across-differentregions/

QUESTION 7
DRAG DROP
A company named Contoso, Ltd. has an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant that uses the Basic license.
You plan to deploy two applications to Azure. The application has the requirements shown in the following table. 

lead4pass az-301 exam questions q7

Which authentication Strategy should you recommend for each application? To answer, drag the appropriate
authentication strategies to the correct applications. Each authentication strategy may be used once, more than once, or
not at all.
You need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

lead4pass az-301 exam questions q7-1

Box 1: Azure AD V2.0 endpoint
Microsoft identity platform is an evolution of the Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) developer platform. It allows
developers to build applications that sign in all Microsoft identities and get tokens to call Microsoft APIs, such as
Microsoft Graph,
or APIs that developers have built. The Microsoft identity platform consists of:
OAuth 2.0 and OpenID Connect standard-compliant authentication service that enables developers to authenticate any
Microsoft identity, including:
Work or school accounts (provisioned through Azure AD)
Personal Microsoft accounts (such as Skype, Xbox, and Outlook.com)
Social or local accounts (via Azure AD B2C)
Box 2: Azure AD B2C tenant
Azure Active Directory B2C provides a business-to-customer identity as a service. Your customers use their preferred
social, enterprise, or local account identities to get single sign-on access to your applications and APIs.
Azure Active Directory B2C (Azure AD B2C) integrates directly with Azure Multi-Factor Authentication so that you can
add a second layer of security to sign-up and sign-in experiences in your applications.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory-b2c/active-directory-b2c-reference-mfa
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/develop/v2-overview

QUESTION 8

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear on the review screen.
You have an on-premises Hyper-V cluster that hosts 20 virtual machines. Some virtual machines run Windows Server
2016 and some run Linux.
You plan to migrate the virtual machines to an Azure subscription.
You need to recommend a solution to replicate the disks of the virtual machines to Azure. The solution must ensure that
the virtual machines remain available during the migration of the disks.
Solution: You recommend implementing an Azure Storage account that has a file service and a blob service, and then
using the Data Migration Assistant.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Data Migration Assistant is used to migrate SQL databases. Instead, use Azure Site Recovery.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/site-recovery/site-recovery-overview

QUESTION 9
Note: This question is a part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear on the review screen.
You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AZD) tenant named contoso.com. The tenant contains a group named
Group1. Group1 contains all the administrative user accounts.
You discover several login attempts to the Azure portal from countries where administrative users do NOT work.
You need to ensure that all login attempts to the Azure portal from those countries require Azure Multi-Factor
Authentication (MFA).
Solution: Implement Azure AD Privileged Identity Management.
Does this solution meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
You are planning the implementation of an order processing web service that will contain microservices hosted in an
Azure Service Fabric cluster.
You need to recommend a solution to provide developers with the ability to proactively identify and fix performance
issues. The developers must be able to simulate user connections to the order processing web service from the
Internet, as
well as simulate user transactions. The developers must be notified if the goals for the transaction response times are
not met.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. container health
B. Azure Network Watcher
C. Application Insights
D. Service Fabric Analytics
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
HOTSPOT
You plan to deploy a network-intensive application to several Azure virtual machines.
You need to recommend a solution that meets the following requirements:
1.
Minimizes the use of the virtual machine processors to transfer data
2.
Minimizes network latency
Which virtual machine size and the feature should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass az-301 exam questions q11

Correct Answer:

lead4pass az-301 exam questions q11-1

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-machines/windows/sizes-hpc#h-series

QUESTION 12
Note: This question is a part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear on the review screen.
You are migrating an on-premises application to Azure. One component of the application is a legacy Windows native executable that performs image processing.
The image processing application must run every hour. During times that the image processing application is not
running, it should not be consuming any Azure compute resources.
You need to ensure that the image processing application runs correctly every hour.
Solution: Create a Logic App to run the image processing application every hour.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
Azure Logic Apps helps you automate workflows that run on a schedule.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/logic-apps/tutorial-build-schedule-recurring-logic-app-workflow

QUESTION 13
You need to recommend a notification solution for the IT Support distribution group. What should you include in the
recommendation?
A. Azure Network Watcher
B. an action group
C. a SendGrid account with advanced reporting
D. Azure AD Connect Health
Correct Answer: D
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/hybrid/how-to-connect-healthoperations

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QUESTION 1

Identify the injection attack represented in the diagram below: A. XPath Injection Attack

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B. XML Request Attack
C. XML Injection Attack
D. Frame Injection Attack

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2

What are the scanning techniques that are used to bypass firewall rules and logging mechanisms and disguise
themselves as usual network traffic?
A. Connect Scanning Techniques
B. SYN Scanning Techniques
C. Stealth Scanning Techniques
D. Port Scanning Techniques

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3

Which of the following has an offset field that specifies the length of the header and data?
A. IP Header
B. UDP Header
C. ICMP Header
D. TCP Header

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4

Variables are used to define parameters for detection, specifically those of your local network and/or specific servers or
ports for inclusion or exclusion in rules. These are simple substitution variables set with the var keyword. Which one of
the following operators is used to define meta-variables?
A. “$”
B. “#”
C. “*”
D. “?”

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5

ARP spoofing is a technique whereby an attacker sends fake (“spoofed”) Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) messages
onto a Local Area Network. Generally, the aim is to associate the attacker\’s MAC address with the IP address of
another
host (such as the default gateway), causing any traffic meant for that IP address to be sent to the attacker instead.
ARP spoofing attack is used as an opening for other attacks.

examineeverything ecsav10 q5

What type of attack would you launch after successfully deploying ARP spoofing?
A. Parameter Filtering
B. Social Engineering
C. Input Validation
D. Session Hijacking

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6

TCP/IP provides a broad range of communication protocols for the various applications on the network. The TCP/IP
model has four layers with major protocols included within each layer. Which one of the following protocols is used to
collect information from all the network devices?
A. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)
B. Network File system (NFS)
C. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)
D. Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7

Harold is a web designer who has completed a website for ghttech.net. As part of the maintenance agreement he
signed with the client, Harold is performing research online and seeing how much exposure the site has received so far.
Harold
navigates to google.com and types in the following search.
link:www.ghttech.net
What will this search produce?
A. All sites that link to ghttech.net
B. Sites that contain the code: link:www.ghttech.net
C. All sites that ghttech.net links to
D. All search engines that link to .net domains

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8

Metasploit framework is an open-source platform for vulnerability research, development, and penetration testing. Which
one of the following Metasploit options is used to exploit multiple systems at once?
A. NinjaDontKill
B. NinjaHost
C. RandomNops
D. EnablePython

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9

One needs to run the “Scan Server Configuration” tool to allow a remote connection to Nessus from the remote Nessus
clients. This tool allows the port and bound interface of the Nessus daemon to be configured. By default, the Nessus
daemon listens to connections on which one of the following?
A. Localhost (127.0.0.1) and port 1241
B. Localhost (127.0.0.1) and port 1240
C. Localhost (127.0.0.1) and port 1246
D. Localhost (127.0.0.0) and port 1243

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10

Which of the following methods is used to perform server discovery?
A. Banner Grabbing
B. Who is Lookup
C. SQL Injection
D. Session Hijacking

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11

In Linux, what is the smallest possible shellcode?
A. 800 bytes
B. 8 bytes
C. 80 bytes
D. 24 bytes

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12

A firewall protects networked computers from intentional hostile intrusion that could compromise confidentiality or result
in data corruption or denial of service. It examines all traffic routed between the two networks to see if it meets certain
criteria; If it does, it is routed between the networks, otherwise, it is stopped.

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Why is an appliance-based firewall is more secure than those implemented on top of the commercial operating system
(Software based)?
A. Appliance based firewalls cannot be upgraded
B. Firewalls implemented on a hardware firewall are highly scalable
C. Hardware appliances do not suffer from security vulnerabilities associated with the underlying operating system
D. Operating system firewalls are highly configured

Correct Answer: A

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Latest Updates EC-COUNCIL 312-38 Exam Practice Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1

Fill in the blank with the appropriate term. is an open wireless technology standard for exchanging data over short
distances from fixed and mobile devices.
Correct Answer: Bluetooth
Bluetooth is an open wireless technology standard for exchanging data over short distances from fixed and mobile
devices,
creating personal area networks with high levels of security. Created by telecoms vendor Ericsson in 1994, it was
originally conceived as a wireless alternative to RS-232 data cables. It can connect several devices, overcoming
problems of
synchronization. Today Bluetooth is managed by the Bluetooth Special Interest Group.

QUESTION 2

Which of the following is a passive attack?
A. Unauthorized access
B. Traffic analysis
C. Replay attack
D. Session hijacking

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3

Which of the following layers of the OSI model provides interhost communication?
A. Application layer
B. Network layer
C. Transport layer
D. Session layer

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4

Jason works as a System Administrator for www.company.com Inc. The company has a Windows-based network. Sam,
an employee of the company, accidentally changes some of the applications and system settings. He complains to
Jason that his system is not working properly. To troubleshoot the problem, Jason diagnoses the internals of his
computer and observes that some changes have been made in Sam\’s computer registry. To rectify the issue, Jason
has to restore the registry. Which of the following utilities can Jason use to accomplish the task? Each correct answer
represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Reg.exe
B. EventCombMT
C. Regedit.exe
D. Resplendent registrar

Correct Answer: ACD

A resplendent registrar is a tool that offers a complete and safe solution to administrators and power users for
maintaining the registry. It can be used for maintaining the registry of desktops and remote computers on the network. It
offers a solution for backing up and restoring registries, fast background search and replace, adding descriptions to the
registry keys, etc. This program is very attractive and easy to use, as it comes in an explorer-style interface. It can be
used for Windows 2003/XP/2K/NT/ME/9x. Reg.exe is a command-line utility that is used to edit the Windows registry. It
has the ability to import, export, back up, and restore keys, as well as to compare, modify, and delete keys. It can
perform almost all tasks that can be done using the Windows-based Regedit.exe tool. Registry Editor (REGEDIT) is a
registry editing utility that can be used to look at the information in the registry. REGEDIT.EXE enables users to search for
strings, values, keys, and subkeys and is useful to find a specific value or string. Users can also use REGEDIT.EXE to
add, delete, or modify registry entries. Answer option B is incorrect. EventCombMT is a multithreaded tool that is used
to search the event logs of several different computers for specific events, all from one central location. It is a little-known Microsoft tool to run searches for event IDs or text strings against Windows event logs for systems, applications,
and security, as well as File Replication Service (FRS), domain name system (DNS), and Active Directory (AD) logs
where applicable. The MT stands for multi-threaded. The program is part of the Account Lockout and Management
The tools program package for Windows 2000, 2003, and XP.

QUESTION 5

Which of the following is the primary international body for fostering cooperative standards for telecommunications
equipment and systems?
A. ICANN
B. IEEE
C. NIST
D. CCITT

Correct Answer: D

CCITT is the primary international body for fostering cooperative standards for telecommunications equipment and
systems. It is now known as the ITU-T (for Telecommunication Standardization Sector of the International
Telecommunications Union). The ITU-T mission is to ensure the efficient and timely production of standards covering all
fields of telecommunications on a worldwide basis, as well as defining tariff and accounting principles for international
telecommunication services. Answer option A is incorrect. Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers
(ICANN) is a non-profit organization that oversees the allocation of IP addresses, management of the DNS
infrastructure, protocol parameter assignment, and root server system management. Answer option B is incorrect. The
Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) is a society of technical professionals. It promotes the
development and application of electro-technology and allied sciences. IEEE develops communications and network
standards, among other activities. The organization publishes a number of journals, has many local chapters, and
societies in specialized areas. Answer option C is incorrect. The National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST),
known between 1901 and 1988 as the National Bureau of Standards (NBS), is a measurement standards laboratory
which is a non-regulatory agency of the United States Department of Commerce. The institute\’s official mission is as
follows: To promote U.S. innovation and industrial competitiveness by advancing measurement science, standards, and
technology in ways that enhance economic security and improve quality of life. NIST had an operating budget for the fiscal
year 2007 (October 1, 2006-September 30, 2007) of about $843.3 million. NIST\’s 2009 budget was $992 million, but it
also received $610 million as part of the American Recovery and Reinvestment Act. NIST employs about 2,900
scientists, engineers, technicians, and support and administrative personnel. About 1,800 NIST associates (guest
researchers and engineers from American companies and foreign nations) complement the staff. In addition, NIST
partners with 1,400 manufacturing specialists and staff at nearly 350 affiliated centers around the country.

QUESTION 6

Which of the following statements are true about an IPv6 network? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.
Choose all that apply.
A. For interoperability, IPv4 addresses use the last 32 bits of IPv6 addresses.
B. It increases the number of available IP addresses.
C. It uses longer subnet masks than those used in IPv4.
D. It provides improved authentication and security.
E. It uses 128-bit addresses.

Correct Answer: BEAD

IP addressing version 6 (IPv6) is the latest version of IP addresses. IPv6 is designed to solve many of the problems
that were faced by IPv4, such as address depletion, security, auto-configuration, and extensibility. With the fast
increasing number of networks and the expansion of the World Wide Web, the allotted IP addresses are depleting rapidly, and the
need for more network addresses is arising. IPv6 solves this problem, as it uses a 128-bit address that can produce a
lot
more IP addresses. These addresses are hexadecimal numbers, made up of eight octet pairs. An example of an IPv6
address is 45CF: 6D53: 12CD: AFC7: E654: BB32: 543C: FACE.
Answer option C is incorrect. The subnet masks used in IPv6 addresses are of the same length as those used in IPv4
addresses.

QUESTION 7

Which of the following attacks comes under the category of an active attack?
A. Replay attack
B. Wireless footprinting
C. Passive Eavesdropping
D. Traffic analysis

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8

You work as the network administrator for uCertify Inc. The company has planned to add the support for IPv6
addressing. The initial phase deployment of IPv6 requires support from some IPv6-only devices. These devices need to
access servers that support only IPv4. Which of the following tools would be suitable to use?
A. Multipoint tunnels
B. NAT-PT
C. Point-to-point tunnels
D. Native IPv6

Correct Answer: B

NAT-PT (Network address translation-Protocol Translation) is useful when an IPv4-only host needs to communicate
with an IPv4-only host. NAT-PT (Network Address Translation-Protocol Translation) is an implementation of RFC 2766
as specified by the IETF. NAT-PT was designed so that it can be run on low-end, commodity hardware. NAT-PT runs in
user space, capturing and translating packets between the IPv6 and IPv4 networks (and vice-versa). NAT-PT uses the
Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) and Neighbor Discovery (ND) on the IPv4 and IPv6 network systems, respectively.

examineeverything 312-38 q8

NAT-Protocol Translation can be used to translate both the source and destination IP addresses.
Answer option D is incorrect. Native IPv6 is of use when the IPv6 deployment is pervasive, with heavy traffic loads.
Answer option C is incorrect. Point-to-point tunnels work well when IPv6 is needed only in a subset of sites. These point-to-point tunnels act as a virtual point-to-point serial link. These are useful when the traffic is of very high volume. Answer
option A is incorrect. The multipoint tunnels are used for IPv6 deployment even when IPv6 is needed in a subset of sites
and is suitable when the traffic is infrequent and of less predictable volume.

QUESTION 9

Which of the following TCP/IP state transitions represents no connection state at all?
A. Closed
B. Closing
C. Close-wait
D. Fin-wait-1

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10

Which of the following is a worldwide organization that aims to establish, refine, and promote Internet security
standards?
A. ANSI
B. WASC
C. IEEE
D. ITU

Correct Answer: B

Web Application Security Consortium (WASC) is a worldwide organization that aims to establish, refine, and promote
Internet security standards. WASC is vendor-neutral, although members may belong to corporations involved in the
research, development, design, and distribution of Web security-related products.
Answer option A is incorrect. ANSI (American National Standards Institute) is the primary organization for fostering the
development of technology standards in the United States. ANSI works with industry groups and is the U.S. member of
the
International Organization for Standardization (ISO) and the International Electro-technical Commission (IEC). Long-established computer standards from ANSI include the American Standard Code for Information Interchange (ASCII)
and the
Small Computer System Interface (SCSI).
Answer option D is incorrect. The International Telecommunication Union (ITU) is an organization established to
standardize and regulate international radio and telecommunications. Its main tasks include standardization, allocation
of the
radio spectrum, and organizing interconnection arrangements between different countries to allow international phone
calls. ITU sets standards for global telecom networks. ITU\’s telecommunications division (ITU-T) produces more
than
200 standard recommendations each year in the converging areas of telecommunications, information technology,
consumer electronics, broadcasting, and multimedia communications. ITU was streamlined into the following three
sectors:
ITU-D (Telecommunication Development)
ITU-R (Radiocommunication)
ITU-T (Telecommunication Standardization)
Answer option C is incorrect. The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) is a society of technical
professionals. It promotes the development and application of electro-technology and allied sciences. IEEE develops
communications and network standards, among other activities. The organization publishes a number of journals, has
many local chapters, and societies in specialized areas.

QUESTION 11

Which of the following is a management process that provides a framework to stimulate a rapid recovery, and the ability
to react effectively to protect the interests of its brand, reputation, and stakeholders?
A. None
B. log analysis
C. Business Continuity Management
D. patch management
E. response systems

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12

In an Ethernet peer-to-peer network, which of the following cables is used to connect two computers, using RJ-45
connectors and Category-5 UTP cable?
A. Serial
B. Loopback
C. Crossover
D. Parallel

Correct Answer: C

In an Ethernet peer-to-peer network, a crossover cable is used to connect two computers, using RJ-45 connectors and
Category-5 UTP cable. Answer options D and A are incorrect. Parallel and serial cables do not use RJ-45 connectors
and
Category-5 UTP cable. Parallel cables are used to connect printers, scanners etc., to computers, whereas serial cables
are used to connect modems, digital cameras etc., to computers.
Answer option B is incorrect. A loopback cable is used for testing equipments.

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Latest Update Juniper JNCDS-DC JN0-1301 Online Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
A customer asks you if they should implement nonstop active routing (NSR) in some cases to replace graceful restart in
their data center. In this scenario, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. NSR saves routing protocol information by running the routing protocol process (rpd) on the backup Routing Engine.
B. NSR is self-contained and does not rely on helper routers (or switches) to assist the routing platform in restoring
routing protocol information.
C. NSR accounts for large and small traffic flows to ensure coherent forwarding path selection during failover.
D. NSR delivers TCP/UDP stream status reducing control plane stress for other networking devices through
concatenated announcements from the routing protocol process (rpd)
Correct Answer: AB

 

QUESTION 2
You plan to deploy a set of SRX Series devices in an active/active chassis cluster with an active/active network
infrastructure.
Which two statements are true in this scenario? (Choose two.)
A. This deployment scenario is recommended when firewall services are used extensively for east-west traffic.
B. End-host traffic is services through one SRX node during non-failure conditions.
C. This deployment scenario is recommended when firewall services are used extensively for north-south traffic.
D. End-host traffic is serviced through both SRX nodes during non-failure conditions.
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 3
Which statement is correct about a Junos Fusion Data Center fabric deployment?
A. Each aggregation device is managed separately.
B. Each satellite device is managed separately.
C. At satellite devices are managed and configured by an aggregation device.
D. All satellite and aggregation devices must be running the same version of Junos OS.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 4
What are two requirements for a VXLAN tunnel endpoint (VTEP)? (Choose two.)
A. TCP session tracking
B. MAC address learning
C. IGMP filtering
D. IP address learning of interested VTEPs
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 5
A large multinational corporation wants to implement SDN for rapid deployment of application environments.
You are asked to define SDN service chaining for a presentation to execute management.
In this scenario, which statement would satisfy the requirement?
A. Integrated software is used to insert a software widget into the flow of network traffic.
B. Stacked hardware is used to insert a software widget into the flow of network traffic.
C. Software is used to virtually insert services into the flow of network traffic.
D. Hardware is used to virtually insert services into the flow of network traffic.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 6
Your company is deploying a private cloud based on OpenStack and has selected Contrail Networking as its SDN
controller. Which two statements are true in this scenario? (Choose two.)
A. Underlay tunnels are established between virtualized and bare-metal servers.
B. MPLS over UDP tunnels are supported.
C. Overlay tunnels are established between virtualized and bare-metal servers.
D. MPLS over GRE tunnels are supported.
Correct Answer: CD

 

QUESTION 7
You are seeking a server-virtualization security solution that is lightweight and will protect virtual machines from a
variety of threats.
Which platform should you choose in this scenario?
A. vSRX
B. vRR
C. vEPC
D. TCX
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8
Your data center uses an Ethernet fabric solution for the infrastructure switches.
You must design a redundancy solution that addresses how the servers connect to the members of the Ethernet fabric.
Which two statements are true in this scenario? (Choose two.)
A. It is necessary to use MC-LAG.
B. You should connect each server to one member with a two-interface LAG.
C. You should connect each server to two different members.
D. It is not necessary to use MC-LAG.
Correct Answer: CD

 

QUESTION 9
What are two industry-standard high availability features used in data centers? (Choose two.)
A. IPFIX
B. separation of control and forwarding planes
C. graceful restart
D. Bidirectional Forwarding Detection
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 10
When considering data center security, which component is often seen as unimportant but is really the first line of
defense?
A. guest access
B. native VLAN configuration
C. RBAC
D. physical security
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 11
From a network management perspective, a Virtual Chassis consisting of five physical switches will appear as how
many devices?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 5
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 12
You are designing a Control-based SDN overlay network. IP filtering and tenant separation for Layer 3 and Layer 4
traffic is required for this installation.
In this scenario, which Contrail component performs this function?
A. vSwitch
B. control node
C. vRouter
D. compute node
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 13
Your SAN team must transmit FC between multiple locations in a data center. To keep the cost of the project to a
minimum, your management decides that using FCoE would be the most cost-effective approach.
In this scenario, which architecture will support FCoE losslessly?
A. Layer 3 Clos
B. Virtual Chassis
C. Virtual Chassis Fabric
D. VXLAN overlay
Correct Answer: C

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Latest Update Juniper JNCIA JN0-102 Online Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
Which two external authentication methods are supported by the Junos OS for user authentication? (Choose two.)
A. RADIUS
B. KERBEROS
C. IPsec
D. TACACS+
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 2
You have been asked to configure your MX240 with a default route toward your upstream ISP at IP address
192.168.100.1. Which command successfully completes this task?
A. [email protected]# set routing-options static route 0.0.0.0/0 next-hop 192.168.100.1
B. [email protected]# set routing-options default route 0.0.0.0/0 next-hop 192.168.100.1
C. [email protected]# set forwarding-options static route 0.0.0.0/0 next-hop 192.168.100.1
D. [email protected]# set protocols default route 0.0.0.0/0 next-hop 192.168.100.1
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
— Exhibit -[edit interfaces ge-0/0/1]
[email protected]# show
unit 100 {
vlan-id 100;
family inet {
address 10.1.1.1 /24;
} } [edit interfaces ge-0/0/1] [email protected]# commit check [edit interfaces ge-0/0/1] \\’unit 100\\’ Only unit 0 is valid for this
encapsulation error: configuration check-out failed — Exhibit -Referring to the exhibit, you are unable to commit the
configuration for the ge-0/0/1 interface. What must you do to commit the configuration?
A. You must set the encapsulation vlan-ccc parameter under the [edit interfaces ge-0/0/1 unit 100] hierarchy.
B. You must set the vlan-tagging parameter under the [edit interfaces ge-0/0/1] hierarchy.
C. You must use the rename command to change unit 100 to unit 0.
D. You must set the encapsulation flexible-ethernet-services parameter under the [edit interfaces ge-0/0/1] hierarchy.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 4
What is a valid multicast MAC address?
A. 00:90:69:9f:ea:46
B. ff:ff:ff:ff:ff:ff
C. 01:00:5e:28:12:95
D. 99:99:99:99:99:99
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 5
You must archive log messages for an extended period of time for audit and troubleshooting purposes. Which syslog
setting should you configure on the Junos device in this scenario?
A. severity
B. facility
C. host
D. console
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 6
You need to control SSH, HTTP, and Telnet access to an MX240 router through any interface. You have decided to use
a firewall filter.
How should you apply the firewall filter?
A. as an outbound filter on interface fxp0
B. as an outbound filter on interface lo0
C. as an inbound filter on interface fxp0
D. as an inbound filter on interface lo0
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 7
Which statement is correct regarding exception traffic on Junos devices?
A. The built-in rate limiter for exception Traffic is configured.
B. The Junos OS has a built-in rate limiter for exception traffic.
C. The Junos OS does not provide congestion control for exception traffic sent to the RE.
D. All exception traffic destined for the RE is sent over the out-of-band management link.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 8
— Exhibit -[edit policy-options]
[email protected]# show
policy-statement block-routes {
term 1 {
from {
route-filter 172.27.0.0/24 longer;
}
then reject;
}
term 2 {
then accept;
}
}
— Exhibit -You are asked to ensure that your device does not accept any prefixes within the 172.27.0.0/24 network. You
have applied the policy shown in the exhibit, but the 172.27.0.0/24 route is still present on your device.
Which configuration will resolve this problem?
A. [edit policy-options policy-statement block-routes][email protected]# set term 1 from route- filter 172.27.0.0/24 orlonger
B. [edit policy-options policy-statement block-routes][email protected]# set term 1 from route- filter 172.27.0.0/24 upto /30
C. [edit policy-options policy-statement block-routes][email protected]# set term 2 from route- filter 172.27.0.0/24 longer
D. [edit policy-options policy-statement block-routes][email protected]# set term 2 from route- filter 172.27.0.0/24 orlonger
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
Which class-of-service component allows you to define the bandwidth allocated to different traffic types?
A. classification
B. rewrite marking
C. scheduling
D. queuing
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 10
Which two loopback types are supported for serial interfaces on Juniper devices? (Choose two.)
A. Local
B. Far End
C. Remote
D. Bidirectional
Correct Answer: AC
For serial interfaces Juniper devices support the local and the remote loopback types.
References: http://www.juniper.net/documentation/en_US/junos12.3/topics/usage-guidelines/interfaces-interfacediagnostics.html

 

QUESTION 11
What are three characteristics of Layer 2 switches? (Choose three.)
A. Layer 2 switches forward broadcast traffic.
B. Layer 2 switches forward traffic addresses to hosts that reside on the same collision domain.
C. Layer 2 switches separate multicast domains.
D. Layer 2 switches separate collision domains.
E. Layer 2 switches forward traffic addressed to hosts that reside on a different collision domain.
Correct Answer: ABD

 

QUESTION 12
Which two statements are correct about the request system zeroize local command? (Choose two.)
A. The command removes all data files.
B. The command preserves the management interface addresses.
C. The command resets all key values.
D. The command removes all user-created files from the system.
Correct Answer: CD

 

QUESTION 13
What are three valid software release designations for the Junos OS? (Choose three.)
A. B
B. T
C. X
D. R
E. Z
Correct Answer: ACD

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