[2020.3] Latest Huawei Certification Exam Sits Tips exam Questions and Answers

Tips and practical test questions and answers for getting Huawei exam certification (H12-211 exam, H12-224 exam, H12-261 exam, H13-611 exam, H13-821 exam, H19-301 exam, H31-341 exam)(First: Exam practice test,
Second: Lead4pass Huawei expert.) You can get free Huawei exam practice test questions here. Or choose: https://www.lead4pass.com/huawei.html Study hard to pass the exam easily!

Table of Contents:

Latest Huawei Certifications Exam questions

Latest Huawei H12-211 exam List

Latest updates Huawei H12-211 exam practice questions(1-5)

QUESTION 1
A DHCP server in the enterprise network is being used to allocated IP addresses to hosts. An administrator discovers
however that some hosts are obtaining IP addresses outside of the scope of the DHCP server\\’s address pool. What
are the possible reasons for this? (Choose three).
A. Another DHCP server exists in the network and is allocating IP addresses to hosts that happen to be within a closer
proximity than the authorized DHCP server.
B. The hosts were unable to discover a DHCP server and therefore generated their own address in the 169.254.0.0
address range.
C. The hosts were unable to discover a DHCP server and therefore generated their own address in the 127.254.0.0
address range.
D. All addresses from the DHCP pool have been assigned.
Correct Answer: ABD

 

QUESTION 2
Which of the following statements regarding the routing table are correct? (Choose two)
A. The next hop in the routing table is redundant because the outgoing interface can be used for packet forwarding.
B. The routes from generated by different protocols have different preferences.
C. The metrics of different routing protocols are comparable.
D. The metrics of different routing protocols are not comparable
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 3
Which of the following formats represent an accurate condensing of the IPv6 address
2031:0000:720C:0000:0000:09E0:839A:130B? (Choose two).
A. 2031:0:720C:0:0:9E0:839A:130B
B. 2031:0:720C:0:0:9E:839A:130B
C. 2031::720C::9E0:839A:130B
D. 2031:0:720C::9E0:839A:130B
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 4
What will the destination MAC address be at the moment a frame is transmitted by the host, when the router is the IP
destination?
A. The MAC address of the switch.
B. The MAC address of the router interface G0/0/0.
C. The MAC address of the host.
D. The destination MAC address will be a broadcast MAC address.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 5
Refer to the graphic. Host A and Host B use VLAN routing to facilitate communication. What must be configured on
interface G0/0/1.1 of RTA to achieve this?lead4pass h12-211 exam question q5

A. dot1q termination vid 1.
B. dot1q termination vid 10.
C. dot1q termination vid 20.
D. dot1q termination vid 30.
Correct Answer: B

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Latest Huawei H12-224 exam List

Latest updates Huawei H12-224 exam practice questions (1-5)

QUESTION 1
In traffic policing using two token buckets, tokens are put into the CBS bucket at the committed information rate (CIR).lead4pass h12-224 exam question q1

The peak burst size (PBS) bucket is filled in only after the CBS bucket is full.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 2
What happens when the topology of a network running RSTP changes?
A. Packets are flooded on the entire network.
B. The aging time of MAC address entries is changed.
C. Some MAC address entries are deleted.
D. The entire MAC address table is deleted.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 3
If the number of checked goods is different from the number of goods on the packing list, you can unpack and inspect
goods and then contact the vendor to handle the inconsistency.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 4
Congestion occurs when a link or node is carrying so much data that its quality of service deteriorates.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
STP elects ( )
A. One bridge as the Root Bridge and another one as the Backup Root Bridge
B. One bridge as the Root Bridge
C. Two bridges as the Root Bridge
D. One Designated Bridge
Correct Answer: B

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Latest Huawei H12-261 exam List

Latest updates Huawei H12-261 exam practice questions (1-5)

QUESTION 1
Which of the following statements regarding the process of sending and receiving data frames on a port in access linktype is true?
A. Tagged data frames that are received are directly discarded.
B. Only untagged data frames are received.
C. VLAN tags are removed before data frames are sent.
D. A switch learns the destination MAC address in the data frames when they are received on the switch\\’s port.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 2
Source Specific Multicast (SSM)is being used throughput the HW IP Multicast network. Which of the following three
statements about SSM are true? (Choose three.)
A. SSM uses Shortest-Path Trees Only
B. There are no RPs to worry about
C. SSM is best suited for applications that are of the Many-to-Many category
D. SSM uses shared Trees only
E. The use of SSM is recommended when there are many sources and it is desirable to keep the amount of mroute
state in the routers in the network to a minimum.
F. SSM is best suited for applications that are of one-to-many category
Correct Answer: ABF

 

QUESTION 3
Regular expressions can be used in Community-filter and AS-Path-filter to filter routes.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 4
As shown in the figure, the routers load balances the traffic between Branch network 1 and Branch network 2. In this
case, URPF in loose mode must be configured on a physical interface to defend against attacks using spoofed source
IP addresses.lead4pass H12-261 exam question q4

A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
Which of the following statements route import is false?
A. Importing IBGP routes into the OSPF process may cause routing loops.
B. By default, the metric of external routes imported into the OSPF process is 1 and the type of imported external routes
is Type 2.
C. BGP can generate routes in either Import or Network mode. The Network mode is more precise than the Import
mode.
D. After IS-IS Level-2 routes are imported to an IS-IS Level-1 area, routing loops occur if no route import policy is
manually configured.
Correct Answer: B

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Latest Huawei H13-611 exam List

Latest updates Huawei H13-611 exam practice questions (1-5)

QUESTION 1
Which of the following is an example of unstructured data? (Choose all that apply.)
A. SQL Databases
B. Images
C. Video
D. NoSQL Databases
Correct Answer: BC

 

QUESTION 2
When determining hard disk performance, which of the following are relevant. (Multiple Choice)
A. Rotational speed,
B. Seek time,
C. Transfer time.
D. Transfer rate.
Correct Answer: ABD

 

QUESTION 3
Storage Pools cannot be created with a single tier of disks.
A. FALSE
B. TRUE
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 4
Statement 1: Virtual Tape libraries allow for a highly scaleable backup strategy as storage can be added later.
Statement 2: Virtual Tape Libraries should be used when remote datacenters are NOT available.
A. Statements 1 and 2 are both true.
B. Statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false.
C. Statement 1 is false and statement 2 is true.
D. Both statements 1 and 2 are false.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 5
What is a storage array?
A. system that handles the communication of data from end users to its storage location and provide confirmation on
successful storage.
B. A system that manages the network functions and carries the data traffic from host to storage.
C. A system that has the management software that can provide access to its sets of hard drives or tape libraries for the
purpose of data access and storage.
D. A system that handles the interconnection of hosts to disks drives and allows hosts to directly access the disks and
use it as local drives.
Correct Answer: C

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Latest Huawei H13-821 exam List

Latest updates Huawei H13-821 exam practice questions (1-5)

QUESTION 1
Which of the following commands does not fall into the management of the docker image life cycle?
A. docker comit
B. docker save
C. docker exec
D. docker build
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 2
In the practical guide of microservices, what information needs to be configured before starting the service locally so
that the microservices can be successfully registered with the service center on Huawei Cloud?
A. Monitoring center address
B. Configuration center address
C. AK / SK certification information
D. handler
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 3
Which of the following services are sub-services of the micro-service cloud application platform (Service Stage)? ()
[Multiple choice questions]
A. AOS (Application Orchestration) (Answer)
B. CSE (Microservice Engine) (Answer)
C. APM (Application Performance Management) (Answer)
D. ECS (Elastic Cloud Server
Correct Answer: ABC

 

QUESTION 4
Using the log function of Huawei Cloud Application Operation and Maintenance Service, operation and maintenance
personnel do not need to log in to the nodes in the cluster to download logs, but can view and search the logs
accurately to locate the problem.
A. Right
B. False
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
Application-based orchestration services (AOS) can automate the operation and maintenance of applications.
A. Error
B. Correct
Correct Answer: B

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Latest Huawei H19-301 exam List

Latest updates Huawei H19-301 exam practice questions (1-5)

QUESTION 1
The S12700 supports 1600W DC power module.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 2
S7700 compete against CISCO 4500/4500E.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
Which scenarios can AR G3 series apply? (Multiple Choice)
A. LAN Egress Gateway
B. WAN Access and Edge Aggregation
C. 3G/LTE Backup
D. VPN Security Gateway
Correct Answer: ABCD

 

QUESTION 4
In datacenter solution, high reliability performance is required due to the importance of service.
Which module(component) can support hot backup by Huawei CE device? (Multiple Choice)
A. FAN
B. POWER
C. Fabirc card
D. Main process unit
Correct Answer: ABCD


QUESTION 5
The highest density 40GE line card is () for CE12800
A. 36*40GE
B. 24*40GE
C. 12*40GE
D. 6*40GE
Correct Answer: A

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Latest Huawei H31-341 exam List

Latest updates Huawei H31-341 exam practice questions (1-5)

QUESTION 1
Before querying bit errors and optical power on the U2000, you need to perform the ( ) operation. Otherwise, the
corresponding data cannot be queried.
A. Enabling the NE Performance Monitoring Time
B. Creating the logical fiber
C. Synchronizing NE data
D. Configuring data
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 2
When different routes are used for client-side 1 + 1 protection, the working wavelength and protection wavelength
cannot use the same wavelength.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 3
If the LED indicator value on the SCC board of the OSN 8800 T32 board is 11, which of the following is the subrack ID?
A. Slave subrack 2
B. Slave subrack 1
C. Slave subrack 17
D. Slave subrack 11
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 4
Which of the following methods can be used to analyze faults in the NG WDM system?
A. Loopback
B. Service Signal Flow Analysis
C. RMON
D. Replacement
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 5
Which of the following is the client-side logical port of a board in standard mode?
A. ODUkLP-n
B. RX/TX-n
C. ClientLP-n
D. n(Nn/OUTn)-OCH:l-ODUk:m-ODUp:q
Correct Answer: A

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It’s not easy to pass the Huawei exam, but with accurate learning materials and proper practice, you can crack the exam with excellent results. https://www.lead4pass.com/huawei.html provides you with the most relevant learning materials that you can use to help you prepare.

Share the latest Microsoft MCSA 70-779 exam questions for free?

Which site provides the latest Microsoft MCSA/MCP 70-779 exam questions?

Which site provides the latest Microsoft MCSA/MCP 70-779 exam questions? Examineeverything shares the latest and effective Microsoft 70-779 exam questions and answers, online practice tests, and the most authoritative Microsoft exam experts update 70-779 exam questions throughout the year.
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Microsoft 70-779 Exam Video

Table of Contents:

Latest Microsoft 70-779 google drive

[PDF] Free Microsoft 70-779 pdf dumps download from Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1rKYauOFwJ2UkXI0L6DoAlcKkh3HrgCP5

Exam 70-779: Analyzing and Visualizing Data with Microsoft Excel: https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-70-779.aspx

Skills measured

This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below.

  • Consume and Transform Data by Using Microsoft Excel (30-35%)
  • Model Data (35-40%)
  • Visualize Data (30-35%)

Who should take this exam?

Candidates for this exam should have a strong understanding of how to use Microsoft Excel to perform data analysis. Candidates should be able to consume, transform, model, and visualize data in Excel. Candidates should also be able to configure and manipulate data in PowerPivot, PivotTables, and PivotCharts. Candidates may include BI professionals, data analysts, and other roles responsible for analyzing data with Excel.

Latest updates Microsoft 70-779 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
You have a workbook query that gets a table from an Excel workbook. The table contains a column1.
In the query, you configure Column1 to use a Data Type of Whole Number.
You refresh the data and find several errors in Column1. You discover that new entries in the table contain nonnumeric
characters.
You need to ensure that when the data is imported, any fields that contain nonnumeric values are set 1.
What should you do from Query Editor?
A. Select the table and click Keep Errors.
B. Select the column and click Replace Values…
C. Select the column and click Remove Errors.
D. Select the column and click Replace Errors…
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
You have a table named Date that contains the following data.lead4pass 70-779 exam question q2

You plan to create Pivot Charts that will be sliced by MonthName.
You need to create a relationship between Sales and Date.
Which Columns should you use to create the relationship? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer
area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass 70-779 exam question q2-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 70-779 exam question q2-2

QUESTION 3
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario, For your convenience the scenario is
repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is
the
same in each question in this series.
Start of repeated scenario
You are creating reports for a car repair company. You have four datasets in Excel spreadsheets. Four workbook
queries load the datasets to a data model. A sample of the data is shown in the Data Sample exhibit.lead4pass 70-779 exam question q3

The data model is shown in the Data Model exhibit.

lead4pass 70-779 exam question q3-1

The tables in the model contain the following data:
DailyRepairs has a log of hours and revenue for each day, workshop, and repair type. Every day, a log entry is created
for each workshop, even if no hours or revenue are recorded for that day. Total Hours and Total Revenue are two
measures defined in DailyRepairs. Total Hours sums the Hours column, and Total Revenue sums the Revenue column.
Workshops has a list of all the workshops and the current and previous workshop managers. The format of the
Workshop Manager column is always Firstname Lastname. A value of 1 in the IsLatest column indicates that the
workshop
manager listed in the record is the current workshop manager.
RepairTypes has a list of alt the repair types.
Dates has a list of dates from 2015 to 2018.
End of repeated scenario.
You plan to analyze The average revenue per hour by combinations of day, repair type, and workshop name.
You need to create a measure to support the planned analysis.
Which DAX formula should you use? To answer, drag the appropriate values to the correct targets. Each value may be
used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

lead4pass 70-779 exam question q3-2

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 70-779 exam question q3-3

QUESTION 4
You have an Excel workbook query that loads data to a worksheet and the data model.
You need to ensure that the data is refreshed whenever you open the workbook.
What should you do?
A. From the File tab, click Options, and then modify the General options
B. From the Power Pivot model, modify the Table Behavior setting
C. From the File tab, click Options, and then modify the Data options
D. Run the Data tab, click Queries and Connections, and then edit the properties of the query
Correct Answer: D
References: https://support.office.com/en-us/article/refresh-connected-imported-data-e76a38b0-e2e1-400b-9f2f-c87b9b18c092

QUESTION 5
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen. You have a Power Pivot model that contains the following tables.lead4pass 70-779 exam question q5

There is a relationship between Products and ProductCategory.
You need to create a hierarchy in Products that contains ProductCategoryName and ProductName.
Solution: You create a measure that uses the USERELATIONSHIP DAX function.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
You have a data model that contains a table named SalesOrders has four columns named Orderld, SalesAmount,
OrderDate, and Territory.
You plan to create a PivotChart that will display the percentage of SalesAmount for each Territory.
You need to create a measure to calculate the percentage of sales of each territory.
How should you complete the DAX formula? To answer, drag the appropriate value to the correct targets.
Each value may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to
view content.
Select and Place:lead4pass 70-779 exam question q6

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 70-779 exam question q6-1

SUM([SalesAmount) / ALL(SalesOrders) /(FILTER , ALL(SalesOrders))

QUESTION 7
You have an Excel workbook that has the following two workbook queries:
A query named Consultants that retrieves a table named Consultants_Contact from a Microsoft SQL Server database
A query named Employees that retrieves a table named Employee_Contact from a Microsoft Azure SQL database
Both tables have the same columns.
You need to combine all the data from Consultants and Employees into one table.
Which command should you use?
A. Transpose
B. Merge Queries
C. Combine Binaries
D. Append Queries
Correct Answer: D
Append is similar to UNION ALL in T-SQL.
Append Queries will NOT remove duplicates. You have to use Group By or Remove Duplicate Rows to get rid of
duplicates.
Merge is similar to JOIN in T-SQL
http://radacad.com/append-vs-merge-in-power-bi-and-power-query

QUESTION 8
Your company has a data analyst who uses Microsoft Power BI Desktop to create a data model and several reports.
The data analyst publishes the reports to the Power BI service.
You need to create a PivotTable in Excel that uses the data model created by the data analyst. The solution must
prevent the data from being imported into Excel.
What should you do first?
A. From powerbt.com, select the report. From the File menu, click Save as.
B. From Excel, create a new query that uses the Data Catalog.
C. From powerbi.com, select the report From the File menu, click Download report.
D. From powerbi.com, select the report and click Analyze in Excel.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have a Power Pivot model that contains the following tables.lead4pass 70-779 exam question q9

There is a relationship between Products and ProductCategory.
You need to create a hierarchy in Products that contains ProductCategoryName and ProductName.
Solution: You create a calculated column that uses the RELATED DAX function
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
References: https://www.mssqltips.com/sqlservertip/2900/creating-hierarchies-in-powerpivot-for-excel/
https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ee634202.aspx

QUESTION 10
You have a query as shown in the following exhibit.lead4pass 70-779 exam question q10

You need to ensure that the data only contains rows that have a valid date.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer are in the correct order.
Select and Place:

lead4pass 70-779 exam question q10-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 70-779 exam question q10-2

QUESTION 11
You have an Excel workbook that has the following two workbook queries:
A query named consultants that retrieves a table named Consultants_Contact from a Microsoft SQL Server database
A query named employees that retrieves a table named Employee_Contact from a Microsoft Azure SQL database
Both tables have the same columns.
You need to combine all the data from Consultants and Employees into one table.
Which command should you use?
A. Transpose
B. Append Queries
C. Merge Queries
D. Combine Binaries
Correct Answer: B
Append is similar to UNION ALL in T-SQL. http://radacad.com/append-vs-merge-in-power-bi-and-power-query

QUESTION 12
Start of repeated scenario
You are creating reports for a car repair company. You have four datasets in Excel spreadsheets. Four workbook
queries load the datasets to a data model. A sample of the data is shown in the Data Sample exhibit.lead4pass 70-779 exam question q12

The data model is shown in the Data Model exhibit.

lead4pass 70-779 exam question q12-1

The tables in the model contain the following data: 
DailyRepairs has a log of hours and revenue for each day, workshop, and repair type. Every day, a log entry is created
for each workshop, even if no hours or revenue are recorded for that day. Total Hours and Total Revenue are two
measures defined in DailyRepairs. Total Hours sums the Hours column, and Total Revenue sums the Revenue column.
Workshops has a list of all the workshops and the current and previous workshop managers. The format of the
Workshop Manager column is always Firstname Lastname. A value of 1 in the IsLatest column indicates that the
workshop 
manager listed in the record is the current workshop manager. 
RepairTypes has a list of alt the repair types. 
Dates has a list of dates from 2015 to 2018. 
End of repeated scenario. 
You create a measure named Average Revenue Per Hour that calculates the average revenue per hour. 
You need to populate a cell in a worksheet to display the Average Revenue Per Hour where Repair Type is Engine. 

Which Excel formula should you use?

lead4pass 70-779 exam question q12-2

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
You add two tables named Date and Invoices to a data model, Invoices contains a column named InvoiceDate that has
a Data Type of Date, Date contains a column named DateID that has a Data Type of which Number.
DateID is in the format of YYYYMMDD.
You need to create a relationship between Date and Invoices.
What should you do first?
A. Change the Data Type of InvoiceDate and DateID to Text.
B. Create a measure in Invoices that uses the Format DAX Function.
C. Change the Data Type of DateID to Date.
D. Create a calculated column in Invoices that uses the Format DAX function.
Correct Answer: C

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It’s not easy to pass the Microsoft 70-779 exam, but with accurate learning materials and proper practice, you can crack the exam with excellent results. https://www.lead4pass.com/70-779.html provides you with the most relevant learning materials that you can use to help you prepare.

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Microsoft IT Infrastructure 98-349 Exam Video

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Exam 98-349: Windows Operating System Fundamentals:https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-98-349.aspx

Skills measured

This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below.

  1. Understanding operating system configurations (15–20%)
  2. Installing and upgrading client systems (15–20%)
  3. Managing applications (15–20%)
  4. Managing files and folders (15–20%)
  5. Managing devices (15–20%)
  6. Understanding operating system maintenance (15–20%)

Who should take this exam?

Candidates for this exam should have knowledge of fundamental Windows operating system concepts in a Windows 10 environment.

Latest updates Microsoft 98-349 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
A Windows 7 library:
A. Organizes user files from disparate locations.
B. Makes copies of user files in a central location.
C. Encrypts files by using the Encrypting File System (EFS).
D. Restores files from system backup.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which feature should you use to install the most recent definitions for Windows Defender?
A. Windows Update
B. Sync Center
C. Windows Installer D. Programs and Features
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
You need to be able to view multiple time zones on your desktop. What should you do?
A. Add multiple clock gadgets.
B. Modify the System and Security settings.
C. Configure dual-display.
D. Modify the Date and Time properties of the computer.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. Each correct selection is
worth one point.
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QUESTION 5
Which Windows feature allows you to request that someone else control your computer from their computer?
A. Remote Assistance
B. Action Center
C. Sync Center
D. Connect Now
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 6
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
By default, Windows 10 allows users with any user account to install manual updates.
Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select “No change is needed” if
the underlined text makes the statement correct.
A. administrator user accounts
B. standard user accounts
C. guest user accounts
D. No change is needed.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 7
You need to print a paper to give to your professor. A classmate says you can print to a USB printer, which is connected
to another computer.
You try to add to your printer list and get prompted for a password that you do not know.
Why does adding the printer to your computer require a password?
A. Your User ID is not part of the local Administrators group.
B. Your computer is not part of a domain.
C. Your computer is not on the same network as the printer.
D. Password Protected Sharing is enabled.
Correct Answer: D
References:https://www.recoverlostpassword.com/windows-10/how-to-turn-off-password-protected-sharing-in-windows-10.html

QUESTION 8
Your computer is running slower than usual.
Where should you look to find out which applications are consuming the maximum number of resources?
A. Administrative Tools
B. Device Manager
C. System Tray
D. Task Manager
E. Network and Sharing Center
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which program will run on a 64-bit version of the Windows operating system?
A. A 32-bit laser printer driver
B. A 32-bit video card driver
C. A 32-bit version of Microsoft Office
D. A 32-bit wireless network adapter driver
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Where should you configure settings to allow Workgroup users to use a printer connected to your computer?
A. In the System Configuration Utility
B. In the Computer Management console
C. In the Network and Sharing Center
D. In the Local Security Policy editor
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
PowerShell is used to:
A. Monitor user keystrokes.
B. Repair damaged hard disk drive sectors.
C. Automate a routine task.
D. Extend the life of the battery.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 12
Which Windows feature allows you to run a program on your computer that is installed on another computer?
A. Windows Virtual PC
B. Microsoft Application Virtualization
C. Remote Desktop Connection
D. System Center Service Manager
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
You are an intern at a small company. You are learning how to run some of the system management tools from a
command line.
You want to access Device Manager from a command prompt.
Which command should you enter?
A. devmgmt.cpl
B. devmgmt.dll
C. devmgmt.exe
D. devmgmt.msc
Correct Answer: D
References:https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc754081(v=ws.11).aspx

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The CompTIA IT Fundamentals exam focuses on the essential IT skills and knowledge needed to perform tasks commonly performed by advanced end-users and entry-level IT professionals alike, including:

  • Using features and functions of common operating systems and establishing network connectivity
  • Identifying common software applications and their purpose
  • Using security and web browsing best practices

Latest updates CompTIA FC0-U51 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
When setting up a new computer, where does a user change the date and time?
A. Peripheral configuration
B. Localization settings
C. Screen resolution
D. eSATA settings
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Ann, a user, has an external monitor that will not turn on. Her laptop has activity lights and is plugged into the same
power strip.
Which of the following should be checked FIRST to begin troubleshooting this issue?
A. The power strip
B. The monitor video cable
C. The laptop power cable
D. The monitor power cable
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 3
Which of the following would be the MOST efficient way to transport a file from one location on a local hard drive to a
different location on the same hard drive?
A. Rename
B. Cut
C. Move
D. Save
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which of the following data connection types provides the HIGHEST mobility?
A. WiFi
B. Cellular
C. Direct link
D. Wired
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which of the following is used for telepresence?
A. VoIP telephone
B. Webcam
C. Remote desktop
D. Touchscreen
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Which of the following storage media provides the FASTEST speeds when backing up large data files?
A. Offsite storage
B. Network attached storage
C. Locally attached storage
D. Cloud-based storage
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Joe, a user, reports that his neck and back are hurting after being at his desk for the whole day.
Which of the following are the possible causes of the problem? (Select TWO).
A. The keyboard is not ergonomic.
B. The monitor does not have a screen protector.
C. The monitor height is not adjusted to Joe\\’s needs.
D. Joe is not using a wrist rest with the keyboard.
E. The chair is not properly adjusted to Joe\\’s needs.
Correct Answer: CE


QUESTION 8
Which of the following firewalls inspects the actual contents of packets?
A. Packet filtering firewall
B. Application-level firewall
C. Circuit-level firewall
D. Stateful inspection firewall
Correct Answer: B
The application level firewall inspects the contents of packets, rather than the source/destination or connection between
the two. An Application level firewall operates at the application layer of the OSI model.
Answer option C is incorrect. The circuit-level firewall regulates traffic based on whether or not a trusted connection has
been established. It operates at the session layer of the OSI model.
Answer option A is incorrect. The packet filtering firewall filters traffic based on the headers. It operates at the network
layer of the OSI model. Answer option D is incorrect. The stateful inspection firewall assures the connection between
the
two parties is valid and inspects packets from this connection to assure the packets are not malicious.
Reference: “http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Firewall_(networking)#Third_generation__application_layer

QUESTION 9
Which of the following extensions identifies a video file?
A. .msi
B. .tar
C. .img
D. .mp4
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 10
Which of the following is required to have a multimedia conversation with someone across the Internet? (Select
THREE).
A. Network connection
B. Microphone
C. Modem
D. Firewall
E. Webcam
F. Cable connection
G. Wired NIC
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 11
A user installed a new scanner on a desktop personal computer without any documentation. The scanner powers on,
the lamp turns on, and then the unit stops with a failure light lit.
Which of the following should the user do FIRST?
A. Go to the scanner manufacturer\\’s website and download the current installation information.
B. Check the personal computer manufacturer\\’s support website for information about scanner installation.
C. Find a scanner user group website and ask for help.
D. Update the scanner firmware and drivers, then reinstall the scanner.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 12
Joe, a user, saves a document to a flash drive on his computer in order to print the document from a public computer
kiosk. After returning home and reinserting the flash drive in his computer, the security software identifies an infected file
on the flash drive.
Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the infection?
A. The flash drive was infected by a war driving hacker on the way to the public kiosk.
B. The public workstation was infected by Joe\\’s flash drive.
C. The public workstation was infected and passed the virus to the flash drive.
D. The flash drive was already infected by the user\\’s computer.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 13
Which of the following can a user configure on an operating system so that an audible sound is made when an error
message is displayed?
A. Encryption
B. Hot keys
C. Accessibility options
D. Screen captures
Correct Answer: C

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Latest updates Oracle 1Z0-516 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
Select two correct statements for the management segment qualifier in Oracle General Ledger.
(Choose two.)
A. The management segment can be a balancing segment.
B. The management segment can be a natural account segment.
C. The management segment cannot be an intercompany segment.
D. This segment qualifier is used for management reporting and analysis.
E. Data access sets cannot limit access to specific management segment values.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 2
Your client occasionally charges sales tax erroneously to some customers. The client\\’s current process involves
manually issuing a credit memo to correct the customer\\’s account. Customers routinely deduct the sales tax from the
invoice before paying. Identify two steps that can help simplify the clients current process. (Choose two.)
A. Set up AutoAccounting.
B. Set up adjustment approval limits.
C. Set up transaction type for tax adjustment.
D. Select the TAX: Allow Override of Tax Code profile option.
E. Define receivables activity of adjustment with tax accounting distribution.
F. Define receivables activity of miscellaneous cash with tax accounting distribution.
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 3
Which two parameters facilitate cross organization reports in a Multi-Org environment? (Choose two.)
A. Ledger
B. Legal Entity
C. Operating Unit
D. Reporting Level
E. Reporting Context
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 4
The commerce step “Pending” has four participant profiles in the following order: SalesRep, SalesManager, Owner, and
Admin.
The Admin profile allows access with the FullAccess user type.
The Owner profile has at performer steps “start” step selected.
The step has an auto-forwarding rule.
A FullAccess user with the SalesGroupA and SalesManagerA groups creates a new quote and saves it, which moves
the quote to “Pending”.
The auto-forwarding rule returned the following two lines: SalesManagerA~Company~SalesManager
SalesGroupA~Company~SalesRep
Which profile will be used to display the quote in the “Pending” step to this user?
A. SalesManager profile
B. SalesRep profile
C. Admin profile
D. Owner profile
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
XYZ Enterprises, a US-based export firm, has two offices in the US (East) and the US (West). They use their primary
ledger for their US operations, and an additional ledger for management analysis and reporting. They use five segments
for
their accounting flexfield:
company, department, account, product, and future. Select the minimum number of required flexfield qualifiers that they
would be using for the accounting structure. (Choose three.)
A. Future segment
B. Product segment
C. Balancing segment
D. Cost center segment
E. Department segment
F. Management segment
G. Natural account segment
Correct Answer: CDG

QUESTION 6
Ten analysts are assigned the same Receivables responsibility and are given their own logins.
The requirement is to restrict three of the analysts from creating chargebacks or adjustments.
What would be your advice to ensure compliance with this internal control?
A. Use forms personalization to restrict function access.
B. Set the “AR: Cash – Allow Actions” system profile to no at the responsibility level.
C. Set the “AR: Cash – Allow Actions” system profile to no at the user level for the three analysts.
D. Set the “AR: Cash – Allow Actions” system profile to yes at the user level for the three analysts.
E. Set the “AR: Cash – Allow Actions” system profile to yes at the application level for the three analysts.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
You created an invoice with one line item of $100 and a tax of $10. This line item is credited with an applied credit
memo of $50. What is the credit to the tax line?
A. $5
B. $1
C. $10
D. $20
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which two scenarios can be automated with File Transfer Protocol (FTP)? (Choose two.)
A. An administrator needs to bulk update attachments on a multiple Commerce Transactions
B. Every month, an administrator needs to apply changes requested by the marketing department on descriptions for
parts in CPQ Cloud
C. An administrator needs to update Configuration Attribute Value Pricing on a Model and deploy the changes
D. Every night, an administrator queries the inventory database and updates a CPQ Cloud data table with the new
inventory levels
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 9
What are three valid reasons for a Configuration rule failing to execute? (Choose three.)
A. A runtime error occurs within the rule, which is firing before the current rule
B. The status of the rule is set to Inactive
C. The rule\\’s Condition attributes are hidden in Configuration Layout
D. The attributes used in the rule are not added in Configuration Layout
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 10
Based on default values, which statement is false about automatic FTP (File Transfer Protocol) processing in CPQ
Cloud?
A. You must upload file to the automated folder on the FTP server
B. You must list files in the order in which they should be processed in the upload_list.xml file
C. FTP uploads are processed every 90 minutes
D. You can use the Bulk Data service to extract the file format and upload it via FTP automation
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Which two scenarios are valid for looping by using XSL Snippets? (Choose two.)
A. The data needs to be manipulated before, being used in loop conditions
B. The grid selector cannot handle the conditions that you need to implement
C. The data in the line item grid must be displayed as a table
D. You want to display a table of single-select, quote-level Commerce attributes
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 12

What standard functionality would you use to align attribute labels on a configuration screen to that they are evenly
distributed vertically?
A. Add spacers in the Configuration Layout and define spacer height
B. Add read-only text area attributes in the layout with the required dimensions
C. Add HTML attributes and use
D. Use CSS
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Using standard functionality, how do you prevent a user from manually adding or removing rows in an
array set?
A. by hiding the control attribute and marking it as a forced set
B. by using CSS to hide icons
C. by hiding the control attribute
D. by selecting the “Disable user override” property on the configurable array set editor page
Correct Answer: C

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Latest updates Cisco 010-151 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
What is the maximum number of supervisor modules that the Cisco MDS 9710 Switch supports?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6
E. 8
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which two statements about DIMM replacement in Cisco UCS Servers are true? (Choose two.)
A. In blade servers, DIMMs can be installed in either 1, 2, 4, or 8 DIMMs per channel.
B. Rack-mount and blade servers have memory fault LEDs that indicate which DIMM requires attention.
C. In servers that require pairs of DIMMs, the pairs must be identical (manufacturer, size, part #, and so on).
D. If the memory in a server is not fully populated, you can install DIMMs in any open slot.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 3
Which two statements about the Ethernet media are true? (Choose two.)
A. A twisted-pair cable system has each pair of wires twisted together to reduce electromagnetic interference.
B. Compared to multimode fiber, the single-mode fiber is designed for shorter distances with higher cost.
C. 40 Gigabit Ethernet twinax cables deploy Enhanced Quad Small Form Factor Pluggable (QSFP+) connectors.
D. The twinax cables can be found in either a shielded twisted-pair or an unshielded twisted-pair variation.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 4
Which Cisco NX-OS command displays kernel uptime?
A. show module
B. show version
C. show license
D. show boot
E. show interface
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which command-line interface mode is best described by this prompt?
UCS-switch-A (nxos)#
A. maintenance mode
B. EXEC mode
C. local management mode
D. global configuration mode
E. Cisco IOS mode
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
What is the maximum distance that the 40GBASE-LR4 Ethernet standard can span?
A. 550 m
B. 10 km
C. 40 km
D. 80 km
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 010-151 exam question q7

Where is the best place to see the power supply status of the blade server enclosure?
A. A – Chassis 1
B. B – Chassis 1 – PSUs
C. C – Chassis1 – Servers
D. D – Rack-Mounts – Servers
E. E – Fabric Interconnects A – PSUs
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which Cisco Nexus 5000 Series model supports 1/10G BASE-T ports?
A. Cisco Nexus 5548P
B. Cisco Nexus 5548UP
C. Cisco Nexus 5596UP
D. Cisco Nexus 5596T
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 9
Which two statements about the Cisco Nexus 5596UP switch are true? (Choose two.)
A. Its power supplies and fan trays are hot-swappable.
B. It supports unified ports.
C. It is offered in a one-rack-unit form factor.
D. It has one expansion slot.
E. It supports up to 96 10G BASE-T ports.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 010-151 exam question q10

Which Cisco MDS chassis supports the 48-Port 16-Gbps Fibre Channel Switching Module?
A. MDS 9509
B. MDS 9513
C. MDS 9710
D. MDS 9506
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
The Ethernet specification details several different fiber optic media types. What is the wire transmission speed for
100BASE-FX Ethernet?
A. 10 Mb/s
B. 100 Mb/s
C. 1000 Mb/s
D. 10000 Mb/s
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which device provides analysis of Fibre Channel traffic without any network disruption?
A. Cisco MDS 9000 Data Analyzer Adapter
B. Cisco MDS 9000 Port Analyzer Adapter
C. Cisco MDS 9000 Channel Analyzer Device
D. Cisco MDS 9000 Channel Analyzer Adapter
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which action should the administrator take before physically removing a blade server for maintenance or replacement?
A. Force the server to shut down.
B. Disassociate the service profile.
C. Decommission the server.
D. Perform a graceful shutdown of the server.
Correct Answer: C

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Free Cisco 400-051 Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
When using LDAP synchronization to automatically create and synchronize Cisco Unified Communications Manager
end users, which two LDAP attributes can be synchronized to directory URI? (Choose two.)
A. emailaddress
B. msRTCSIPuseraddress
C. mail
D. msRTCSIPprimaryuseraddress
E. email
Correct Answer: CD

 

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit. Which option is the MOS value in this Cisco IOS snippet?lead4pass 400-051 exam question q2

A. 0.0000
B. 3.7001
C. 3
D. 4.1320
E. 1.0000
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 3
Which device pool configuration setting will override the device-level settings only when a device is roaming within a
device mobility group?
A. SRST Reference
B. Media Resource Group List
C. Region
D. Calling Party Transformation CSS
E. Location
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 4
Which three Software Licensing transport setting types are available on UCM 12.0 for license management? (Choose
three)
A. Smart Licence Manager Proxy
B. Prime Licences Manager
C. HTTP/HTTPS proxy
D. Direct
E. Transport gateway
F. Enterprise License Manager
Correct Answer: CDE

 

QUESTION 5
Company ABC has implemented Cisco Meeting Server (CMS) WebRTC feature using CMS Single Combined
deployment model. When testing this implementation, they found that users can login using WebRTC but are unable to
join a Space meeting and the “Join Call” option for guests is not available. What is the root cause of this issue?
A. CMS Webbridge is not able to connect to XMPP component
B. TURN media ports are blocked between CMS Webbridge and User PC
C. CMS Webbridge http-redirect configuration is not enabled
D. CMS Webbridge does not trust Callbridge certificate
E. CMS Callbridge cannot connect to XMPP component
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 6
Which Cisco Unity Connection call handler greeting, when enable, overrides all other greetings?
A. Alternate
B. Busy
C. Closed
D. Holiday
E. Internal
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 7
Which three statements about configuring partitioned intradomain federation to Lync are true? (Choose three)
A. Intradomain federation to Lync is only possible using SIP
B. IMandP and Lync should federate to any required remote domains
C. You must update the URIs of any users migrated from Lync to IMandP to match the Cisco Unified Presence server
SIP URI format
D. A static route must be added to point the local presence domain to the Lync server
E. Microsoft RCC must be enabled
F. The Enable use of Email Address when Federating option can be turned on if SIP URIs are different between IMandP
and Lync
Correct Answer: ACD

 

QUESTION 8
Which Cisco Unified Contact Center Express data store contains user scripts, grammars, and documents?
A. configuration data store
B. repository data store
C. agent data store
D. historical data store
E. script data store
Correct Answer: B
Unified CCX applications might use auxiliary files that interact with callers, such as scripts, pre-recorded prompts,
grammars, and custom Java classes. Depending on each implementation, Unified CCX applications use some or all of
the following file types. The Unified CCX Server\\’s local disk prompt, grammar, and document files are synchronized
with the central repository during Unified CCX engine startup and during run-time when the Repository datastore is
modified.

 

QUESTION 9
When Cisco Unity Connection users attempt to connect using Web Inbox and receive a Site Is Unavailable error
message, which service status should be verified?
A. Tomcat
B. Connection Exchange Notification Web Service
C. Connection Voicemail Web Service
D. Connection Administration
E. Secured Web Server
Correct Answer: A
Cisco Tomcat service, as the name suggests, is used by the Web Server of CUCM and helps display the administration,
operating system, disaster recovery, and other GUI interfaces of CUCM. The service leverages a built-in CA for Tomcat
in that it redirects the incoming HTTP requests to HTTPS using the default self-signed certificate.

 

QUESTION 10
Which statement describes the supported integration method when Cisco Unity Connection and Cisco Unified
Communications Manager are installed on the same server as Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business
Edition?
A. Only SCCP integration is supported.
B. Only SIP integration is supported.
C. Both SCCP or SIP integration are supported, but you must choose one or the other.
D. Q-Sig integration is supported through a voice-enabled Cisco ISR router.
E. Circuit-switched integration is supported through PIMG.
Correct Answer: A
When installed on the same server there is no way to create trunk that is why sccp is the only way Cisco Unity
Connection and Cisco Unified Communications Manager are installed on the same server.

 

QUESTION 11
A Company that is using the Cisco Unified Contact Center Express Enhanced version requires that selected types of
agent calls are automatically recorded.
Which call recording operation can be used to satisfy this requirement?
A. Instruct agents to use the Record button on Cisco IPPA to trigger recording
B. Instruct supervisors to use the Record button on Cisco Agent Desktop to trigger recording
C. Instruct supervision to use the Record button on Cisco supervisor Desktop to trigger recording
D. Configure the Cisco Agent Desktop workflow to trigger recording
E. Recording s not supported on the Cisco Unified CCX Enhanced version. It is supported only on the Premium
version.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 12
Which Cisco ISO-XE dial-peer command has the highest preference for inbound H.323 dial- peer matching?
A. Incoming calling-number e164-pattren-map
B. Destination-pattern
C. Incoming URI to
D. Answer-address
E. Incoming called-number
Correct Answer: E


QUESTION 13
Which option is the default Cisco Wireless Unified Communications endpoints marking for video media traffic or video
RTP traffic?
A. DSCP 8
B. DSCP 24
C. DSCP 34
D. DSCP 46
Correct Answer: C
When configuring network-level quality of service (QoS), Cisco video endpoints (including Cisco Unified IP Phone 8900
and 9900 Series and Cisco TelePresence System EX Series devices) generally mark traffic at Layer 3 according to
Cisco general QoS guidelines related to voice and video packet marking (video media as DSCP 34 or PHB AF41; call
signaling as DSCP 24 or PHB CS3) and therefore these devices can be trusted.

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CompTIA A+ 2019 is the foundation of your IT career

CompTIA A+ is the preferred qualifying credential for technical support and IT operational roles. It is about much more than PC repair.

Candidates are better prepared to troubleshoot and problem solve.
Technicians understand a wide variety of issues ranging from networking and operating systems to mobile devices and security. A+ supports the ability to connect users to the data they need to do their jobs regardless of the devices being used.

  • CompTIA A+ 220-901 covers PC hardware and peripherals, mobile device hardware, networking and troubleshooting hardware, and network connectivity issues.
  • CompTIA A+ 220-902 covers installing and configuring operating systems including Windows, iOS, Android, Apple OS X, and Linux. It also addresses security, the fundamentals of cloud computing and operational procedures.
  • CompTIA A+ 220-1001 covers mobile devices, networking technology, hardware, virtualization and cloud computing, and network troubleshooting.
  • CompTIA A+ 220-1002 covers installing and configuring operating systems, expanded security, software troubleshooting and operational procedures.

Test your CompTIA A+ 220-901 exam level

QUESTION 1
Joe, a user, wants to modify the fan speed settings on his PC. Which of the following locations allows the fan speed
settings to be changed?
A. BIOS
B. Device Manager
C. Motherboard Jumpers
D. Computer Management
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 2
Users report that a network printer has stopped working and the shared print queue has grown throughout the day.
Several users have attempted to print the same job numerous times. If possible, the technician would like to preserve
only the original print jobs on the print server. Which of the following should the technician attempt FIRST?
A. Restart the printer hardware
B. Remove duplicate jobs from the queue
C. Restart the print spooler service
D. Update the server\\’s printer drivers
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 3
A user reports that when powering up a computer, only a blank screen appears, however, the computer functioned
properly the day before. A technician looks at the computer and verifies the power light is on and the fans are working
properly when powering on the computer. Which of the following is the MOST likely the cause of the issue?
A. CPU
B. PSU
C. FDD
D. SSD
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 4
A network technician has been tasked with deploying new VoIP phones on a network. When the technician plugs the
Ethernet cable for the phone into the wall port, the phone fails to turn on. When the technician plugs the Ethernet cable
directly into the computer, the computer is able to access the network. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause
of this issue?
A. The network switch does not support PoE
B. The technician is connecting the phone to the wrong type of port
C. The firewall on the network is blocking access to the DHCP server
D. The Ethernet cable is the wrong type
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
Which of the following versions of Windows XP would a technician MOST likely install for a small business?
A. Windows XP Professional 64-bit
B. Windows XP Professional
C. Windows XP Media Center
D. Windows XP Home
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 6
Which of the following types of devices MOST likely uses electronic ink technology?
A. Smartphone
B. Phablet
C. E-reader
D. Tablet
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 7
When working on a computer that supports triple-Channel memory configurations, which of the following RAM modules
would provide the BEST memory performance?
A. 2 DIMMs
B. 4DIMMs
C. 6DIMMs
D. 8DIMMs
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 8
Joe, a user, recently purchased a new multifunction printer and attempted to installed it himself He informed a
technician that the printer is on his list of printers, but he is unable to print. The technician sees that printer is listed
printer under devices and printers. Which of the following should the technician do NEXT?
A. Reboot the computer into safe mode and try to printer a test page.
B. Download the correct drives from the manufacture\\’s website and install them.
C. Unplug the USB cable from the printer and try another USB slot the PC.
D. Set the printer as the default within the device properties.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 9
Which of the following does IPv6 use to autoconfigure nodes?
A. APIPA
B. Neighbor discovery
C. CIDR
D. Address resolution protocol
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 10
Which of the following ports must be open for an email client to receive email?
A. 21
B. 22
C. 25
D. 53
E. 110
Correct Answer: E


QUESTION 11
A 27 in (68.6 cm) analog monitor display shows the left and right sides are bulging outward. Which of the following
should the technician performance FIRST to remedy the issue?
A. Decrease contrast.
B. Increase trapezoid.
C. Increase gamma.
D. Decrease pin cushion.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 12
A user has an inkjet printer that generates very sloppy prints with multiple colors missed in patterns. Which of the
following maintenance tasks should the technician perform to solve this problem?
A. Install the maintenance kit.
B. Replace the toner ribbon.
C. Clean the heating element.
D. Replace the fuser.
E. Clean the head.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 13
Which of the following characteristics is generally found on a docking station that port replicators do not offer?
A. Replicators usually have most USB ports than docks.
B. Docks generally do not need separate power to function.
C. Docks have independent hardware that replicators lack.
D. Replicators have additional NIC that docks lack.
Correct Answer: C

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Skills measured

This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below.

  • Create database objects (20–25%)
  • Work with data (25–30%)
  • Modify data (20–25%)
  • Troubleshoot and optimize (25–30%)

Who should take this exam?

This exam is intended for SQL Server database administrators, system engineers, and developers with two or more years of experience, who are seeking to validate their skills and knowledge in writing queries.

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QUESTION 1
You are the database developer at ABC.com. ABC.com has a SQL Server 2012 database infrastructure that has a
database named ComDB with tables named Partners and Events. These tables were created using the following
Transact-
SQL code:
CREATE TABLE [dbo].[Partners]
(
[CompanyID] [int] NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY,
[CompanyName] [varchar] (150) NOT NULL,
[Location] [varchar] (150) NOT NULL,
[ContactName] [varchar] (150) NOT NULL,
[Email] [varchar] (150) NOT NULL,
[Phone] [varchar] (10) NOT NULL
)
CREATE TABLE [dbo].[Events]
(
[EventID] [int] NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY,
[CompanyID] [int] NOT NULL,
[EventDescription] [nvarchar] (MAX),
[EventDate] [nvarchar] (50) NOT NULL,
[EventCordinator] [nvarchar] (150) NOT NULL
)
You add a foreign key relationship between the two tables on the CompanyID column.
You need to develop a stored procedure named sp_coEvents that retrieves CompanyName for all partners and the
EventDate for all events that they have coordinated.
To answer, type the correct code in the answer area.
A. Check the answer in explanation.
Correct Answer: A
CREATE PROCEDURE sp_coEvent AS SELECT CompanyName, EventDate FROM Partners JOIN Events ON
Partners.CompanyID = Events.CompanyID


QUESTION 2
You have an application named Appl. You have a parameter named @Count that uses the int data type. App1 is
configured to pass @Count to a stored procedure.
You need to create a stored procedure named usp_Customers for App1 that returns only the number of rows specified
by the @Count parameter.
The solution must NOT use BEGIN, END, or DECLARE statements.
Part of the correct Transact-SQL statement has been provided in the answer area.
Correct Answer: Please review the part for this answer
CREATE PROCEDURE usp_Customers @Count int SELECT TOP(@Count) Customers.LastName FROM Customers
ORDER BY Customers.LastName

 

QUESTION 3
Which FOR XML options can you use to manually format the XML returned? (Choose all that apply.)
A. FOR XML AUTO
B. FOR XML EXPLICIT
C. FOR XML RAW
D. FOR XML PATH
Correct Answer: BD
A. Incorrect: FOR XML AUTO automatically formats the XML retuned. B. Correct: FOR XML EXPLICIT allows you to
manually format the XML returned. C. Incorrect: FOR XML RAW automatically formats the XML retuned. D. Correct:
FOR XML PATH allows you to manually format the XML returned.

 

QUESTION 4
Which of the following T-SQL statements automatically occur in the context of a transaction? (Choose all that apply.)
A. An ALTER TABLE command
B. A PRINT command
C. An UPDATE command
D. A SET command
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 5
Which of the following are true about table-valued UDFs?
A. Table-valued UDFs can return scalar values or tables.
B. Table-valued UDFs always involve multiple T-SQL statements.
C. Table-valued UDFs can be invoked in a SELECT list or a WHERE clause.
D. Table-valued UDFs can be invoked in the FROM clause of a SELECT statement.
Correct Answer: D
The FROM clause requires a table and table-valued UDFs return tables.

 

QUESTION 6
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database. The database contains a table named Employee. Part of the
Employee table is shown in the exhibit.lead4pass 70-761 exam question q6

Unless stated above, no columns in the Employee table reference other tables. Confidential information about the
employees is stored in a separate table named EmployeeData. One record exists within EmployeeData for each record
in the Employee table. You need to assign the appropriate constraints and table properties to ensure data integrity and
visibility. On which column in the Employee table should you a create a self-reference foreign key constraint?
A. DateHired
B. DepartmentID
C. EmployeelD
D. EmployeeNum
E. FirstName
F. JobTitle
G. LastName
H. MiddleName
I. ReportsToID
Correct Answer: I

 

QUESTION 7
How can you use output parameters in T-SQL stored procedures? (Choose all that apply.)
A. You can pass data into a procedure by using an output parameter, but you cannot receive information back from it.
B. You can pass data into a procedure by using an output parameter, and any change made to the parameter will be
passed back to the calling routine.
C. You cannot pass data into a procedure by using an output parameter; it is only used for passing data back to the
caller.
D. You cannot pass data into a procedure by using an output parameter, nor can you receive data back from a
procedure from an output parameter.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 8lead4pass 70-761 exam question q8

You have a database named Sales that contains the tables as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
You need to create a query that returns a list of products from Sales.ProductCatalog. The solution must meet the
following requirements:
Return rows ordered by descending values in the UnitPrice column.
Use the Rank function to calculate the results based on the UnitPrice column.
Return the ranking of rows in a column that uses the alias PriceRank.
Use two-part names to reference tables.
Display the columns in the order that they are defined in the table. The PriceRank column must appear last.
Part of the correct T-SQL statement has been provided in the answer area. Provide the complete code.

lead4pass 70-761 exam question q8-1

Correct Answer:
SELECT CatID, CatName, ProductID, ProdName, UnitPrice, RANK (ORDER BY UnitPrice DESC) OVER () AS
PriceRank FROM Sales.ProductCatalog ORDER BY PriceRank

 

QUESTION 9
Which of the following T-SQL statements can be used to cause branching within a stored procedure? (Choose all that
apply.)
A. WHILE
B. BEGIN/END
C. IF/ELSE
D. GO
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 10
What kind of optimizer hints does SQL Server 2012 support? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Query
B. Join
C. Order
D. Table
Correct Answer: ABD

 

QUESTION 11
You want to add a new GUID column named BookGUID to a table named dbo.Book that already contains data.
BookGUID will have a constraint to ensure that it always has a value when new rows are inserted into dbo.Book.
You need to ensure that the new column is assigned a GUID for existing rows.
Which four Transact-SQL statements should you use? (To answer, move the appropriate SQL statements from the list
of statements to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)
Select and Place:lead4pass 70-761 exam question q11

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 70-761 exam question q11-1

Actually, in the real world, you don\\’t have to use WITH VALUES at the end of the statement and it works just as well.
But because the question specifically states which FOUR TSQL statements to use, we have to include it.

 

QUESTION 12
What are the benefits of using an UPDATE statement based on joins? (Choose all that apply.)
A. You can filter the rows to update based on information in related rows in other tables.
B. You can update multiple tables in one statement.
C. You can collect information from related rows in other tables to be used in the source expressions in the SET clause.
D. You can use data from multiple source rows that match one target row to update the data in the target row.
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 13
You need to create a query that calculates the total sales of each OrderID from a table named Sales.Details. The table
contains two columns named OrderID and ExtendedAmount. The solution must meet the following requirements:
Use one-part names to reference columns.
Order the results by OrderID with the smallest value first.
NOT depend on the default schema of a user.
Use an alias of TotalSales for the calculated ExtendedAmount.
Display only the OrderID column and the calculated TotalSales column.
Provide the correct code in the answer area.
Key Words:lead4pass 70-761 exam question q13

Correct Answer:
SELECT OrderId, SUM(ExtendedAmount) AS TotalSales FROM Sales.Details ORDER BY OrderID ASC

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Latest Cisco CCNP Collaboration 300-075 Practice Questions and Answers

Q

UESTION 1
What happens if location-based CAC is used and there is no bandwidth available when a remote caller is placed on
hold?
A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager sends TOH rather than MOH.
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager terminates the call.
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager plays default MOH.
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager attempts to reconnect the call immediately.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 2
Which statement best describes globalized call routing in Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. All incoming calling numbers on the phones are displayed as an E.164 with the + prefix.
B. Call routing is based on numbers represented as an E.164 with the + prefix format.
C. All called numbers sent out to the PSTN are in E.164 with the + prefix format.
D. The CSS of all phones contain partitions assigned to route patterns that are in global format.
E. All phone directory numbers are configured as an E.164 with the + prefix.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Incorrect answer: ACDE For the destination to be represented in a global form common to all cases, we
must adopt a global form of the destination number from which all local forms can be derived. The + sign is the
mechanism used by the ITU\\’s E.164 recommendation to represent any PSTN number in a global, unique way. This
form is sometimes referred to as a fully qualified PSTN number. Link:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/srnd/7x/dialplan.html#wp1153205

 

QUESTION 3
On which Cisco Unified Communications Manager configuration parameter does the CODEC that a Cisco IP Phone
uses for a call depend?
A. enterprise parameters
B. media resources
C. physical location
D. region
E. location
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 4
What are two important considerations when implementing TEHO to reduce long-distance cost? (Choose two.)
A. on-net calling patterns
B. E911 calling
C. number of route patterns
D. caller ID
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 5
An engineer is setting up a Cisco VCS Cluster with SIP endpoints only. While configuring the Cisco VCS peers, which
signaling protocol is used between peers to determine the best route for calls?
A. SIP
B. H.323
C. SCCP
D. MGCP
Correct Answer: B
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/telepresence/infrastructure/vcs/config_guide/X8 7/Cisco-VCS-Cluster-Creation-and-Maintenance-Deployment-Guide-X8-7.pdf (page 4, basic configuration is done, third point)

 

QUESTION 6
You want to avoid unnecessary interworking in Cisco TelePresence Video Communication Server, such as where a call
between two H.323 endpoints is made over SIP, or vice versa. Which setting is recommended?
A. H.323 – SIP interworking mode. Reject
B. H.323 – SIP interworking mode. On
C. H.323 – SIP interworking mode. Registered only
D. H.323 – SIP interworking mode. Off
E. H.323 – SIP interworking mode. Variable
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 7
Which statement about Enhanced Locationbased CAC on a Cisco Unified Communications Managerbased voice
network
A. E-LCAC can adjust its knowledge of effective paths due to link failures and reconfigurations.
B. Every cluster that participates in LBM requires the location be locally configured for location to device association
C. Each cluster requires a complete view of the modeled topology.
D. Each cluster should be configured with the immediate neighboring locations such that the topology of each cluster
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 8
Company X has a primary and a backup Cisco Unified Communications Manager instance. The administrator had to do
maintenance on the primary node and did a shutdown, which resulted in a failover to the backup node. What happens
when the primary node comes back online?
A. The primary node becomes the backup node.
B. Endpoints detect that the primary is back and reregisters automatically.
C. The backup node must be shut down first to allow the endpoints to realize that the primary node is online again.
D. Nothing, the endpoints only failover when the node they lose connection to their registered node.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 9
What impact do roaming-sensitive settings and Device Mobility settings have on call routing?
A. Device Mobility settings have no impact on call routing, but roaming-sensitive settings modify the AAR group, AAR
CSS, and device CSS.
B. Device Mobility settings modify the device CSS and the roaming-sensitive settings modify the AAR group and AAR
CSS.
C. Device Mobility settings modify the AAR group and the AAR CSS, the roaming-sensitive settings modify the device
CSS.
D. Roaming-sensitive settings are settings that do not have an impact on call routing. Device Mobility settings, on the
other hand, may have an impact on call routing because they modify the device CSS, AAR group, and AAR CSS.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 10
When an H.323 trunk is added for Call Control Discovery, which statement is true?
A. The H.323 trunk is added by selecting Inter-Cluster Trunk (Non-Gatekeeper Controlled) and Device Protocol Inter-
Cluster Trunk. The Enable SAF check box should be selected in the trunk configuration.
B. The H.323 trunk is added by selecting Inter-Cluster Trunk (Non-Gatekeeper Controlled) and Device Protocol Inter-
Cluster Trunk. The Trunk Service Type should be Call Control Discovery.
C. The H.323 trunk is added by selecting Call Control Discovery Trunk and then selecting
D. 323 as the protocol to be used.
E. The H.323 trunk is added by selecting H.323 Trunk, and selecting Inter-Cluster Trunk as the Device Protocol. The
destination IP address field is configured as `SAF\\’ to indicate that this trunk is used for SAF.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 300-075 exam question q11

The remote site needs to run multicast MOH from flash. Which statement about the MOH server configuration in Cisco
Unified Communications Manager is true?
A. The MOH server must be enabled for G.729 in the Cisco IP Voice Media Streaming Application service parameters.
B. Multicast MOH can use only G.711. So you must configure the command codec G711ulaw under the call-manager-
fallback configuration at the remote site router.
C. The MOH for the remote site is a standalone configuration. No extra configuration is required on the Cisco Unified
Communications Manager MOH server.
D. Configure a separate region for the MOH server. The codec between the MOH region and all other regions should be
specified as G.711. Apply the MOH region through a device pool at the MOH server configuration page.
E. Configure the location setting for the MOH server to 80 Kbps. This configuration forces the MOH server to use G.711
for the remote site.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit.
The HQ site uses area code 650. The BR1 site uses area code 408. The long distance national code for PSTN dialing is
1. To make a long distance national call, an HQ or BR1 user dials access code 9, followed by 1, and then the 10-digit
number. Both sites use MGCP gateways. AAR must use globalized call routing using a single route pattern. Assume
that all outgoing PSTN numbers are localized at the egress gateway as shown in the exhibit. Which statement is true?lead4pass 300-075 exam question q12

A. The AAR group system must be configured on the device configuration of the phones.
B. The AAR group system must be configured on the line configuration of the phones.
C. The single AAR group system cannot be used. A second AAR group must be configured in order to have source and
destination AAR groups.
D. The AAR group system must be configured under the AAR service parameters.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 13
The network administrator of Enterprise X receives reports that at peak hours, some calls between remote offices are
not passing through. Investigation shows no connectivity problems. The network administrator wants to estimate the
volume of calls being affected by this issue.
Which two RTMT counters can give more information on this? (Choose two.)
A. CallsRingNoAnswer
B. OutOfResources
C. LocationOutOfResources
D. RequestsThrottled
E. CallsAttempted
Correct Answer: BC

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