New update CyberOps Associate 200-201 dumps with PDF and VCE

new update 200-201 dumps

Candidates can use New update CyberOps Associate 200-201 dumps with PDF and VCE: (264 Q&A), successfully passed Threat Hunting and Defending using Cisco Technologies for CyberOps (CBROPS) exam.

New update 200-201 dumps actually cover all the exam content of the complete CyberOps Associate: Security concepts, Security monitoring, Host-based analysis, Network intrusion analysis, and Security policies and procedures.

Download the free CyberOps Associate 200-201 PDF:

Read the free CyberOps Associate 200-201 exam questions and answers online:

Number of exam questionsExam nameFromRelease timePrevious issue
13Threat Hunting and Defending using Cisco Technologies for CyberOps (CBROPS)Lead4passNov 10, 2022200-201 dumps exam questions

What is the difference between inline traffic interrogation (TAPS) and traffic mirroring (SPAN)?

A. TAPS interrogation is more complex because traffic mirroring applies additional tags to data and SPAN does not alter the integrity and provides a full-duplex network.

B. SPAN results in more efficient traffic analysis, and TAPS is considerably slower due to latency caused by mirroring.

C. TAPS replicates the traffic to preserve integrity, and SPAN modifies packets before sending them to other analysis tools

D. SPAN ports filter out physical layer errors, making some types of analyses more difficult, and TAPS receives all packets, including physical errors.

Correct Answer: D


An analyst is exploring the functionality of different operating systems.

What is a feature of Windows Management Instrumentation that must be considered when deciding on an operating system?

A. queries Linux devices that have Microsoft Services for Linux installed
B. deploys Windows Operating Systems in an automated fashion
C. is an efficient tool for working with Active Directory
D. has a Common Information Model, which describes installed hardware and software

Correct Answer: D


Which type of attack occurs when an attacker is successful in eavesdropping on a conversation between two IP phones?

A. known-plaintext
B. replay
C. dictionary
D. man-in-the-middle

Correct Answer: D


Which information must an organization use to understand the threats currently targeting the organization?

A. threat intelligence
B. risk scores
C. vendor suggestions
D. vulnerability exposure

Correct Answer: A


What is the difference between tampered and untampered disk images?

A. Tampered images have the same stored and computed hash.
B. Tampered images are used as evidence.
C. Untampered images are used for forensic investigations.
D. Untampered images are deliberately altered to preserve evidence

Correct Answer: B


What are two social engineering techniques? (Choose two.)

A. privilege escalation
B. DDoS attack
C. phishing
D. man-in-the-middle
E. pharming

Correct Answer: CE

CyberOps Associate new 200-201 dumps exam questions 7

Refer to the exhibit. Where is the executable file?

A. info
B. tags
D. name

Correct Answer: C


Which metric should be used when evaluating the effectiveness and scope of a Security Operations Center?

A. The average time the SOC takes to register and assign the incident.
B. The total incident escalations per week.
C. The average time the SOC takes to detect and resolve the incident.
D. The total incident escalations per month.

Correct Answer: C


An engineer received an alert affecting the degraded performance of a critical server. Analysis showed a heavy CPU and memory load. What is the next step the engineer should take to investigate this resource usage?

A. Run “ps -d” to decrease the priority state of high-load processes to avoid resource exhaustion.
B. Run “ps -u” to find out who executed additional processes that caused a high load on a server.
C. Run “ps -ef” to understand which processes are taking a high amount of resources.
D. Run “ps -m” to capture the existing state of daemons and map the required processes to find the gap.

Correct Answer: C



An engineer needs to have visibility on TCP bandwidth usage, response time, and latency, combined with deep packet inspection to identify unknown software by its network traffic flow. Which two features of Cisco Application Visibility and Control should the engineer use to accomplish this goal? (Choose two.)

A. management and reporting
B. traffic filtering
C. adaptive AVC
D. metrics collection and exporting
E. application recognition

Correct Answer: AE


Refer to the exhibit.

CyberOps Associate new 200-201 dumps exam questions 11

Which type of attack is being executed?

A. SQL injection
B. cross-site scripting
C. cross-site request forgery
D. command injection

Correct Answer: A



What is an attack surface as compared to a vulnerability?

A. any potential danger to an asset
B. the sum of all paths for data into and out of the environment
C. an exploitable weakness in a system or its design
D. the individuals who perform an attack

Correct Answer: C

An attack surface is the total sum of vulnerabilities that can be exploited to carry out a security attack. Attack surfaces can be physical or digital. The term attack surface is often confused with the term attack vector, but they are not the same thing. The surface is what is being attacked; the vector is the means by which an intruder gains access.


Which security model assumes an attacker within and outside of the network and enforces strict verification before connecting to any system or resource within the organization?

A. Biba
B. Object-capability
C. Take-Grant
D. Zero Trust

Correct Answer: D

Zero Trust security is an IT security model that requires strict identity verification for every person and device trying to access resources on a private network, regardless of whether they are sitting within or outside of the network perimeter.

Download the above CyberOps Associate 200-201 exam questions and answers:

New update CyberOps Associate 200-201 dumps have been verified to be real and effective, and 264 newly updated exam questions cover the complete 200-201 CBROPS certification exam. Candidates click here for the latest 200-201 dumps online to ensure they pass the 200-201 CBROPS Certification Exam.

Latest Update SY0-601 Dumps from Lead4Pass | 100% Pass Exam 2022

sy0-601 dumps 2022

CompTIA Security+ certification has undergone many changes, from SY0-101, SY0-201, SY0-301, SY0-401, SY0-501, and now SY0-601 2022. It is one of the most popular exams in CompTIA!

The latest updated SY0-601 exam questions and answers are from the Lead4Pass SY0-601 dumps.

We share some of the latest updated SY0-601 dumps exam questions for free, you can take the online practice test or get the SY0-601 PDF we provide to help you improve your skills.

All you really need is the full Lead4Pass SY0-601 dumps with PDF and VCE to help you pass the exam 100%: (472 Q&A Dumps)

Maybe you want to ask:

Can Lead4Pass help me pass the exam successfully?

Lead4Pass has a 99%+ exam pass rate, this is real data.

Is Lead4Pass SY0-601 dump latest valid?

Lead4Pass updates all IT certification exam questions throughout the year. Guaranteed immediate availability.

Is the Lead4Pass buying policy reliable?

Lead4Pass has 8 years of exam experience in 2022, so it’s pretty solid!

Is there a discount on CompTIA SY0-601?

Yes! You can google search, or check the discount code channel directly

For more questions, you can contact Lead4Pass customer service or send an email, and we will guarantee a reply within 24 hours.

Continue: Download SY0-601 Dumps PDF:

Take the CompTIA SY0-601 exam test (answers posted at the end of the article)


Which of the following scenarios BEST describes a risk reduction technique?

A. A security control objective cannot be met through a technical change, so the company purchases insurance and is
no longer concerned about losses from data breaches.

B. A security control objective cannot be met through a technical change, so the company implements a policy to train
users on a more secure method of operation.

C. A security control objective cannot be met through a technical change, so the company changes as method of

D. A security control objective cannot be met through a technical change, so the Chief Information Officer (CIO) decides to sign off on the risk.



Joe, an employee, is transferring departments and is providing copies of his files to a network share folder for his
previous team to access. Joe is granting read-write-execute permissions to his manager but giving read-only access to
the rest of the team. Which of the following access controls is Joe using?




A financial organization has adopted a new secure, encrypted document-sharing application to help with its customer
loan process. Some important PII needs to be shared across this new platform, but it is getting blocked by the DLP
systems. Which of the following actions will BEST allow the PII to be shared with the secure application without
compromising the organization\\’s security posture?

A. Configure the DLP policies to allow all PII
B. Configure the firewall to allow all ports that are used by this application
C. Configure the antivirus software to allow the application
D. Configure the DLP policies to whitelist this application with the specific PII
E. Configure the application to encrypt the PII



A network administrator is setting up wireless access points in all the conference rooms and wants to authenticate
device using PKI. Which of the following should the administrator configure?

A. A captive portal
C. 802.1X



A cloud administrator is configuring five compute instances under the same subnet in a VPC Three instances are
required to communicate with one another, and the other two must he logically isolated from all other instances in the
VPC. Which of the following must the administrator configure to meet this requirement?

A. One security group
B. Two security groups
C. Three security groups
D. Five security groups



Which of the following would a European company interested in implementing a technical, hands-on set of security
standards MOST likely choose?

B. CIS controls
C. ISO 27001
D. ISO 37000



Several employees return to work the day after attending an industry trade show. That same day, the security manager
notices several malware alerts coming from each of the employee\\’s workstations. The security manager investigates
but finds no signs of an attack on the perimeter firewall or the NIDS. Which of the following is MOST likely causing the
malware alerts?

A. A worm that has propagated itself across the intranet, which was initiated by presentation media
B. A fileless virus that is contained on a vCard that is attempting to execute an attack
C. A Trojan that has passed through and executed malicious code on the hosts
D. A USB flash drive that is trying to run malicious code but is being blocked by the host firewall



A security manager for a retailer needs to reduce the scope of a project to comply with PCI DSS. The PCI data is
located in different offices than where credit cards are accepted. All the offices are connected via MPLS back to the
primary datacenter. Which of the following should the security manager implement to achieve the objective?

A. Segmentation
B. Containment
C. Geofencing
D. Isolation



A technician needs to prevent data loss in a laboratory. The laboratory is not connected to any external networks. Which of the following methods would BEST prevent the exfiltration of data? (Select TWO).

B. Drive encryption
C. Network firewall
D. File level encryption
E. USB blocker



An organization relies on third-party video conferencing to conduct daily business. Recent security changes now require all remote workers to utilize a VPN to corporate resources. Which of the following would BEST maintain high-quality video conferencing while minimizing latency when connected to the VPN?

A. Using geographic diversity to have VPN terminators closer to end users
B. Utilizing split tunneling so only traffic for corporate resources is encrypted
C. Purchasing higher-bandwidth connections to meet the increased demand
D. Configuring QoS properly on the VPN accelerators



A user is concerned that a web application will not be able to handle unexpected or random input without crashing.
Which of the following BEST describes the type of testing the user should perform?

A. Code signing
B. Fuzzing
C. Manual code review
D. Dynamic code analysis



While investigating a data leakage incident, a security analyst reviews access control to cloud-hosted data. The
following information was presented in a security posture report.

sy0-601 q12

Based on the report, which of the following was the MOST likely attack vector used against the company?

A. Spyware
B. Logic bomb
C. Potentially unwanted programs
D. Supply chain

Verify answer:


Lead4Pass SY0-601 dumps are fully updated in 2022, real and effective! Lead4pass SY0-601 Dumps with PDF and VCE Guaranteed 100% Pass Exam: (472 Q&A Dumps)

PS.Free to share the latest updated SY0-601 dumps PDF:

CompTIA SY0-601 Past Exam Questions:,

Microsoft DP-203 dumps historical exam questions and latest updates

latest updated dp-203 dumps

Microsoft Certified: Azure Data Engineer Associate “DP-203”. DP-203 is the latest exam question released in 2021. I have gone through the DP-200 exam and DP-201 exam before.

From August 31, 2021, the exams DP-200 and DP-201 have been discontinued, and all those who need to participate in the “Implementing an Azure Data Solution” have been changed to participate in the “Data Engineering on Microsoft Azure”.

The DP-203 exam is a new advancement, and each update iteration of Microsoft is a very big advancement. Of course, such advancement also increases the difficulty of the exam for examinees.

Based on the above description, my explanation is that Microsoft has simplified the previous exam steps and increased the difficulty of the exam. Regardless of whether you want to pass the exam before or now, the most important thing is to study hard, participate in the community, and practice exams to improve your skills.

Today I will share 15 newly updated Microsoft DP-203 exam questions to help you learn the test online. There is no way for free exam questions to help you really pass the exam.

You can enter Lead4pass DP-203 dumps: (Total Questions: 214 Q&A). lead4pass has a pass rate of more than 99%, Years of exam experience, an excellent team of exam experts, and a perfect exam policy. Lead4pass is our free content provider.

Microsoft DP-203 historical exam dumps collection online sharing

Please take the latest updated Microsoft DP-203 exam test

Verify the answer at the end of the article

Question 1:

What should you recommend using to secure sensitive customer contact information?

A. Transparent Data Encryption (TDE)

B. row-level security

C. column-level security

D. data sensitivity labels


Scenario: Limit the business analysts

Question 2:

What should you do to improve high availability of the real-time data processing solution?

A. Deploy a High Concurrency Databricks cluster.

B. Deploy an Azure Stream Analytics job and use an Azure Automation runbook to check the status of the job and to start the job if it stops.

C. Set Data Lake Storage to use geo-redundant storage (GRS).

D. Deploy identical Azure Stream Analytics jobs to paired regions in Azure.


Guarantee Stream Analytics job reliability during service updates Part of being a fully managed service is the capability to introduce new service functionality and improvements at a rapid pace. As a result, Stream Analytics can have a service update deploy on a weekly (or more frequent) basis. No matter how much testing is done there is still a risk that an existing, running job may break due to the introduction of a bug. If you are running mission critical jobs, these risks need to be avoided. You can reduce this risk by following Azure\’s paired region model.

Scenario: The application development team will create an Azure event hub to receive real-time sales data, including store number, date, time, product ID, customer loyalty number, price, and discount amount, from the point of sale (POS) system and output the data to data storage in Azure


Question 3:

You are designing a fact table named FactPurchase in an Azure Synapse Analytics dedicated SQL pool. The table contains purchases from suppliers for a retail store. FactPurchase will contain the following columns.

microsoft dp-203 exam questions q3

FactPurchase will have 1 million rows of data added daily and will contain three years of data.

Transact-SQL queries similar to the following query will be executed daily.

SELECT SupplierKey, StockItemKey, COUNT(*) FROM FactPurchase WHERE DateKey >= 20210101 AND DateKey <= 20210131 GROUP By SupplierKey, StockItemKey

Which table distribution will minimize query times?

A. replicated

B. hash-distributed on PurchaseKey

C. round-robin

D. hash-distributed on DateKey


Hash-distributed tables improve query performance on large fact tables, and are the focus of this article. Round-robin tables are useful for improving loading speed.


Not D: Do not use a date column. . All data for the same date lands in the same distribution. If several users are all filtering on the same date, then only 1 of the 60 distributions do all the processing work.


Question 4:

You have a table in an Azure Synapse Analytics dedicated SQL pool. The table was created by using the following Transact-SQL statement.

microsoft dp-203 exam questions q4

You need to alter the table to meet the following requirements:

Ensure that users can identify the current manager of employees.

Support creating an employee reporting hierarchy for your entire company.

Provide fast lookup of the managers\’ attributes such as name and job title.

Which column should you add to the table?

A. [ManagerEmployeeID] [int] NULL

B. [ManagerEmployeeID] [smallint] NULL

C. [ManagerEmployeeKey] [int] NULL

D. [ManagerName] [varchar](200) NULL


Use the same definition as the EmployeeID column.


Question 5:

You have files and folders in Azure Data Lake Storage Gen2 for an Azure Synapse workspace as shown in the following exhibit.

microsoft dp-203 exam questions q5

You create an external table named ExtTable that has LOCATION=\’/topfolder/\’.

When you query ExtTable by using an Azure Synapse Analytics serverless SQL pool, which files are returned?

A. File2.csv and File3.csv only

B. File1.csv and File4.csv only

C. File1.csv, File2.csv, File3.csv, and File4.csv

D. File1.csv only


To run a T-SQL query over a set of files within a folder or set of folders while treating them as a single entity or rowset, provide a path to a folder or a pattern (using wildcards) over a set of files or folders.


Question 6:

You are designing the folder structure for an Azure Data Lake Storage Gen2 container.

Users will query data by using a variety of services including Azure Databricks and Azure Synapse Analytics serverless SQL pools. The data will be secured by subject area. Most queries will include data from the current year or current


Which folder structure should you recommend to support fast queries and simplified folder security?

A. /{SubjectArea}/{DataSource}/{DD}/{MM}/{YYYY}/{FileData}_{YYYY}_{MM}_{DD}.csv

B. /{DD}/{MM}/{YYYY}/{SubjectArea}/{DataSource}/{FileData}_{YYYY}_{MM}_{DD}.csv

C. /{YYYY}/{MM}/{DD}/{SubjectArea}/{DataSource}/{FileData}_{YYYY}_{MM}_{DD}.csv

D. /{SubjectArea}/{DataSource}/{YYYY}/{MM}/{DD}/{FileData}_{YYYY}_{MM}_{DD}.csv


There\’s an important reason to put the date at the end of the directory structure. If you want to lock down certain regions or subject matters to users/groups, then you can easily do so with the POSIX permissions. Otherwise, if there was a need to restrict a certain security group to viewing just the UK data or certain planes, with the date structure in front a separate permission would be required for numerous directories under every hour directory. Additionally, having the date structure in front would exponentially increase the number of directories as time went on.

Note: In IoT workloads, there can be a great deal of data being landed in the data store that spans across numerous products, devices, organizations, and customers. It\’s important to pre-plan the directory layout for organization, security, and efficient processing of the data for down-stream consumers. A general template to consider might be the following layout:


Question 7:

You need to design an Azure Synapse Analytics dedicated SQL pool that meets the following requirements:

Can return an employee record from a given point in time.

Maintains the latest employee information.

Minimizes query complexity.

How should you model the employee data?

A. as a temporal table

B. as a SQL graph table

C. as a degenerate dimension table

D. as a Type 2 slowly changing dimension (SCD) table


A Type 2 SCD supports versioning of dimension members. Often the source system doesn\’t store versions, so the data warehouse load process detects and manages changes in a dimension table. In this case, the dimension table must use a surrogate key to provide a unique reference to a version of the dimension member. It also includes columns that define the date range validity of the version (for example, StartDate and EndDate) and possibly a flag column (for example, IsCurrent) to easily filter by current dimension members.


Question 8:

You have an enterprise-wide Azure Data Lake Storage Gen2 account. The data lake is accessible only through an Azure virtual network named VNET1.

You are building a SQL pool in Azure Synapse that will use data from the data lake.

Your company has a sales team. All the members of the sales team are in an Azure Active Directory group named Sales. POSIX controls are used to assign the Sales group access to the files in the data lake.

You plan to load data to the SQL pool every hour.

You need to ensure that the SQL pool can load the sales data from the data lake.

Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

NOTE: Each area selection is worth one point.

A. Add the managed identity to the Sales group.

B. Use the managed identity as the credentials for the data load process.

C. Create a shared access signature (SAS).

D. Add your Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) account to the Sales group.

E. Use the snared access signature (SAS) as the credentials for the data load process.

F. Create a managed identity.


The managed identity grants permissions to the dedicated SQL pools in the workspace.

Note: Managed identity for Azure resources is a feature of Azure Active Directory. The feature provides Azure services with an automatically managed identity in Azure AD


Question 9:

You are creating an Azure Data Factory data flow that will ingest data from a CSV file, cast columns to specified types of data, and insert the data into a table in an Azure Synapse Analytic dedicated SQL pool. The CSV file contains three

columns named username, comment, and date.

The data flow already contains the following:

A source transformation.

A Derived Column transformation to set the appropriate types of data.

A sink transformation to land the data in the pool.

You need to ensure that the data flow meets the following requirements:

All valid rows must be written to the destination table.

Truncation errors in the comment column must be avoided proactively.

Any rows containing comment values that will cause truncation errors upon insert must be written to a file in blob storage.

Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. To the data flow, add a sink transformation to write the rows to a file in blob storage.

B. To the data flow, add a Conditional Split transformation to separate the rows that will cause truncation errors.

C. To the data flow, add a filter transformation to filter out rows that will cause truncation errors.

D. Add a select transformation to select only the rows that will cause truncation errors.


B: Example:


This conditional split transformation defines the maximum length of “title” to be five. Any row that is less than or equal to five will go into the GoodRows stream. Any row that is larger than five will go into the BadRows stream.


This conditional split transformation defines the maximum length of “title” to be five. Any row that is less than or equal to five will go into the GoodRows stream. Any row that is larger than five will go into the BadRows stream.

microsoft dp-203 exam questions q9



Now we need to log the rows that failed. Add a sink transformation to the BadRows stream for logging. Here, we\’ll “auto-map” all of the fields so that we have logging of the complete transaction record. This is a text-delimited CSV file output to a single file in Blob Storage. We\’ll call the log file “badrows.csv”.


The completed data flow is shown below. We are now able to split off error rows to avoid the SQL truncation errors and put those entries into a log file. Meanwhile, successful rows can continue to write to our target database.

microsoft dp-203 exam questions q9-1 microsoft dp-203 exam questions q9-2


Question 10:

You have an Azure Storage account and a data warehouse in Azure Synapse Analytics in the UK South region.

You need to copy blob data from the storage account to the data warehouse by using Azure Data Factory. The solution must meet the following requirements:

Ensure that the data remains in the UK South region at all times.

Minimize administrative effort.

Which type of integration runtime should you use?

A. Azure integration runtime

B. Azure-SSIS integration runtime

C. Self-hosted integration runtime

microsoft dp-203 exam questions q10

Incorrect Answers:

C: Self-hosted integration runtime is to be used On-premises.


Question 11:

You have an Azure Stream Analytics job that receives clickstream data from an Azure event hub.

You need to define a query in the Stream Analytics job. The query must meet the following requirements:

Count the number of clicks within each 10-second window based on the country of a visitor. Ensure that each click is NOT counted more than once.

How should you define the Query?

A. SELECT Country, Avg(*) AS Average FROM ClickStream TIMESTAMP BY CreatedAt GROUP BY Country, SlidingWindow(second, 10)

B. SELECT Country, Count(*) AS Count FROM ClickStream TIMESTAMP BY CreatedAt

GROUP BY Country, TumblingWindow(second, 10)

C. SELECT Country, Avg(*) AS Average FROM ClickStream TIMESTAMP BY CreatedAt GROUP BY Country, HoppingWindow(second, 10, 2)

D. SELECT Country, Count(*) AS Count FROM ClickStream TIMESTAMP BY CreatedAt GROUP BY Country, SessionWindow(second, 5, 10)


Tumbling window functions are used to segment a data stream into distinct time segments and perform a function against them, such as the example below. The key differentiators of a Tumbling window are that they repeat, do not overlap, and an event cannot belong to more than one tumbling window.


Incorrect Answers:

A: Sliding windows, unlike Tumbling or Hopping windows, output events only for points in time when the content of the window actually changes. In other words, when an event enters or exits the window. Every window has at least one event, like in the case of Hopping windows, events can belong to more than one sliding window.

C: Hopping window functions hop forward in time by a fixed period. It may be easy to think of them as Tumbling windows that can overlap, so events can belong to more than one Hopping window result set. To make a Hopping window the same as a Tumbling window, specify the hop size to be the same as the window size.

D: Session windows group events that arrive at similar times, filtering out periods of time where there is no data.


Question 12:

You need to schedule an Azure Data Factory pipeline to execute when a new file arrives in an Azure Data Lake Storage Gen2 container.

Which type of trigger should you use?

A. on-demand

B. tumbling window

C. schedule

D. event


Event-driven architecture (EDA) is a common data integration pattern that involves production, detection, consumption, and reaction to events. Data integration scenarios often require Data Factory customers to trigger pipelines based on events happening in storage account, such as the arrival or deletion of a file in Azure Blob Storage account.


Question 13:

You have two Azure Data Factory instances named ADFdev and ADFprod. ADFdev connects to an Azure DevOps Git repository.

You publish changes from the main branch of the Git repository to ADFdev.

You need to deploy the artifacts from ADFdev to ADFprod.

What should you do first?

A. From ADFdev, modify the Git configuration.

B. From ADFdev, create a linked service.

C. From Azure DevOps, create a release pipeline.

D. From Azure DevOps, update the main branch.


In Azure Data Factory, continuous integration and delivery (CI/CD) means moving Data Factory pipelines from one environment (development, test, production) to another.


The following is a guide for setting up an Azure Pipelines release that automates the deployment of a data factory to multiple environments.


In Azure DevOps, open the project that\’s configured with your data factory.


On the left side of the page, select Pipelines, and then select Releases.


Select New pipeline, or, if you have existing pipelines, select New and then New release pipeline.


In the Stage name box, enter the name of your environment.


Select Add artifact, and then select the git repository configured with your development data factory. Select the publish branch of the repository for the Default branch. By default, this publish branch is adf_publish.


Select the Empty job template.


Question 14:

You are developing a solution that will stream to Azure Stream Analytics. The solution will have both streaming data and reference data.

Which input type should you use for the reference data?

A. Azure Cosmos DB

B. Azure Blob storage

C. Azure IoT Hub

D. Azure Event Hubs


Stream Analytics supports Azure Blob storage and Azure SQL Database as the storage layer for Reference Data.


Question 15:

You are designing an Azure Stream Analytics job to process incoming events from sensors in retail environments.

You need to process the events to produce a running average of shopper counts during the previous 15 minutes, calculated at five-minute intervals.

Which type of window should you use?

A. snapshot

B. tumbling

C. hopping

D. sliding


Tumbling windows are a series of fixed-sized, non-overlapping and contiguous time intervals. The following diagram illustrates a stream with a series of events and how they are mapped into 10-second tumbling windows.

microsoft dp-203 exam questions q15


Publish the answer:


Get more immediate and effective Microsoft DP-203 dumps: (Total Questions: 214 Q&A)

I have shared some historical exam questions above. You can click to view them, and the latest updated Microsoft DP-203 free dumps online exam test. Of course, the most important thing is the advanced exam channel I shared: lead4pass DP-203 helps you successfully pass the first exam.

The latest update Cisco 300-915 DEVIOT free dumps from Lead4Pass

cisco ccdp updated

Cisco 300-915 DEVIOT dumps have been updated! After being verified by many experienced cisco exam experts, it is 100% actually effective. Lead4pass 300-915 complete exam questions and answers include two modes: PDF dumps and VCE dumps Here you can view (Total Questions: 59 Q&A). This site shares a part of Cisco 300-915 DEVIOT free dumps, you can learn and participate in the test for free!

Cisco 300-915 DEVIOT free dumps online learning, you can participate in online testing

The answer is obtained at the end of the article


cisco 300-915 exam questions q1

Refer to the exhibit. The code snippet provides information about the packet captures within a network.
How can the most used source IP addresses within a specific time be visualized?

A. line graph
B. bar histogram
C. scatter plot
D. heatmap



Which connector is southbound?

A. horizontal connector
B. cloud connector
C. device connector
D. universal connector



How does the Cisco router (IR) and switch (IE) portfolio support edge data services?

A. Edge data services can be run and managed as containers using Cisco IOx.
B. Edge data services can run only in virtual machines on a separate compute layer.
C. Edge data services are aliases for IR/IE configuration services.
D. Edge data services run as separate instances only on virtual machines.



A customer is deploying sensors with Cisco IR829 routers in moving trucks to continuously monitor the health of
engines using a cloud application.
Which data extraction and processing strategy is best suited in this environment?

A. No need to store data locally, upload in real time to the cloud for processing.
B. Generate local alerts and create reports at the edge, and upload to the cloud at the end of the day.
C. Use the store and forward mechanism to upload the information at the earliest to cloud.
D. Ensure that data is stored for a longer duration locally and upload to the cloud every week.



cisco 300-915 exam questions q5

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. That is a heatmap projected on top of a geographic map.
B. That is a treemap projected on top of a geographic map.
C. The color red usually stands for lower values and the color blue usually stands for higher values.
D. Another suitable visualization technique for this image would be line graphs.
E. The color blue usually stands for lower values and the color red usually stands for higher values.



What are two functionalities of edge data services? (Choose two.)

A. creating a machine learning data model
B. supporting many interfaces and APIs
C. applying advanced data analytics
D. filtering, normalizing and aggregating data
E. saving data for a prolonged time period



A company is collecting data from several thousand machines globally. Which software component in the overall
architecture is the next destination of the dataflow after the data has been gathered and normalized on the edge data

A. relational database: MySQL
B. historian database: influxDB
C. message broker: Apache Kafka
D. dashboard: Node.js web app



cisco 300-915 exam questions q8

Refer to the exhibit. Approximately 4000 oil platforms, each with 400 sensors, are spread in the Gulf of Mexico and all of their data must come together into one dashboard. Which general architecture should be selected to connect them?
A. 4-tier: sensor ?edge device (Intel Atom CPU) ?fog device (Intel Xeon CPU) ?cloud
B. 5-tier: intelligent sensor?edge device (Intel Atom CPU) ?fog device (Intel Xeon CPU) ?edge data center (Intel Xeon
C. 2-tier: intelligent sensor ?cloud
D. 3-tier: sensor ?edge device (Intel Atom CPU) ?cloud




Which element ensures that PKI is used to establish the identity of IoT devices?

A. unique device identifier
B. encryption key
C. air gap
D. hashed routes



After an application is deployed, potential issues arise around connectivity. As part of the troubleshooting process, the
IP address must be determined to ensure end-to-end communication.
Which method provides the required details using the Cisco IOx CLI?

A. ioxclient application status
B. ioxclient application metrics
C. ioxclient application getconfig
D. ioxclient application info



As part of an IoT project, an organization is developing an application that will share multiple clients using a REST API.
Based on the software development process, what are two valid technical activities that can be suggested to secure the
REST API that is developed during the development of the software? (Choose two.)

A. Respond to request failures in detail to allow users for easier troubleshooting.
B. Implement HTTP whitelisting to only methods that are allowed.
C. Implement and review audit logs for security-related events.
D. Reject HTTP methods that are invalid with an error code 404.
E. Implement physical firewalling and access control to the resources.



When constructing a Python script for data extraction using GMM APIs on a Cisco Kinetic Cloud platform, how should
the API authentication be implemented?

A. Generate the API keys once and edit the permissions as needed.
B. Generate and use the API keys for the required access level from the Kinetic Cloud application.
C. Use a complex username and password with 128-bit encryption.
D. Use a complex username with an auto-generated password from the Kinetic Cloud application.



cisco 300-915 exam questions q13

Refer to the exhibit. The code and the error message that are received when the code is run is presented.
What causes issues authenticating with Cisco GMM API using the web-generated API key?

A. firewall that blocks authentication ports
B. incorrect username and password
C. incorrect GMM Cluster selection
D. incorrect key size and data encryption



Drag and drop the Dockerfile instructions from the left onto the correct arguments on the right.
Select and Place:

cisco 300-915 exam questions q14

Correct Answer:

cisco 300-915 exam questions q14-1



As part of an IoT project, an organization is developing an edge application that will run on a gateway to securely
transmit sensor information it receives into an IoT cloud. Based on the Agile software development lifecycle, the
development team is planning to implement a CI/CD pipeline.
Which two methods should be suggested to make the software development lifecycle more secure during the
implementation and testing? (Choose two.)

A. Perform automated code reviews prior to deployment.
B. Implement auto-provisioning security inspection for the code.
C. Perform on-going penetration testing on the system.
D. Perform a GAP analysis on current security activities and policies.
E. Train members of the team in a secure software development lifecycle methodology such as OWASP.

Verify answer:


Free Cisco 300-915 DEVIOT exam PDF download online

Google Drive:

The above shared the latest Cisco 300-915 DEVIOT free dumps and exam PDF. All exam questions are from Lead4Pass 300-915 dumps. Here Get the complete Exam dump!
Help you pass the exam successfully. Like, please bookmark and share!

PS. VceCert collects free exam dumps of all Cisco series. You can find all Cisco exam questions and answers!

The latest Cisco CyberOps Professional exam series exam questions are from Lead4Pass dumps

cisco CyberOps Professional exam dumps

Cisco CyberOps Professional exam series include (300-215 CBRFIR, 350-201 CBRCOR).
These are popular exams. Passing any exam will improve your career path.

Cisco CyberOps Professional exam series learning experience:

step 1: you definitely need to know Cisco’s official information and exam details>>

In the official information, you will get: exam overview, related certifications, Cisco official training, frequently asked questions, and schedule exams

Step 2: You should get the latest free Cisco exam practice questions>>

Here are the questions and answers of the Cisco CyberOps Professional exam series shared by Lead4Pass for free

Step 3: Pass the exam secrets and get the latest updated Cisco CyberOps Professional exam dumps>>

The Cisco CyberOps Professional exam series includes 300-215 and 350-201 exam items. Include PDF and VCE in Lead4Pass to help you successfully pass the exam

Here: Share free Cisco 300-215 exam practice questions

Exam answers are available at the end of the article. You can also skip this stage and get the complete 300-215 exam dumps directly


What is the goal of an incident response plan?

A. to identify critical systems and resources in an organization

B. to ensure systems are in place to prevent an attack

C. to determine security weaknesses and recommend solutions

D. to contain an attack and prevent it from spreading



cisco 300-215 exam questions q2

Refer to the exhibit. Which two determinations should be made about the attack from the Apache access logs? (Choose two.)

A. The attacker used r57 exploit to elevate their privilege.

B. The attacker uploaded the word press file manager trojan.

C. The attacker performed a brute force attack against word press and used SQL injection against the backend

D. The attacker used the word press file manager plugin to upload r57.php.

E. The attacker logged on normally to word press admin page.


cisco 300-215 exam questions q3

Refer to the exhibit. A company that uses only the Unix platform implemented an intrusion detection system. After the
initial configuration, the number of alerts is overwhelming, and an engineer needs to analyze and classify the alerts. The highest number of alerts were generated from the signature shown in the exhibit. Which classification should the
engineer assign to this event?

A. True Negative alert

B. False Negative alert

C. False Positive alert

D. True Positive alert


A threat actor attempts to avoid detection by turning data into a code that shifts numbers to the right four times. Which anti-forensics technique is being used?

A. encryption

B. tunneling

C. obfuscation

D. poisoning



Drag and drop the capabilities on the left onto the Cisco security solutions on the right.
Select and Place:

cisco 300-215 exam questions q5

Correct Answer:

cisco 300-215 exam questions q5-1


An engineer is investigating a ticket from the accounting department in which a user discovered an unexpected
application on their workstation. Several alerts are seen from the intrusion detection system of unknown outgoing
internet traffic from this workstation. The engineer also notices a degraded processing capability, which complicates the analysis process. Which two actions should the engineer take? (Choose two.)

A. Restore to a system recovery point.

B. Replace the faulty CPU.

C. Disconnect from the network.

D. Format the workstation drives.

E. Take an image of the workstation.


An incident response team is recommending changes after analyzing a recent compromise in which:
a large number of events and logs were involved;
team members were not able to identify the anomalous behavior and escalate it in a timely manner;
several network systems were affected as a result of the latency in detection;
security engineers were able to mitigate the threat and bring systems back to a stable state; and
the issue reoccurred shortly after and systems became unstable again because the correct information was not
gathered during the initial identification phase.

Which two recommendations should be made for improving the incident response process? (Choose two.)

A. Formalize reporting requirements and responsibilities to update management and internal stakeholders throughout
the incident-handling process effectively.

B. Improve the mitigation phase to ensure causes can be quickly identified, and systems returned to a functioning state.

C. Implement an automated operation to pull systems events/logs and bring them into an organizational context.

D. Allocate additional resources for the containment phase to stabilize systems in a timely manner and reduce an
attack\’s breadth.

E. Modify the incident handling playbook and checklist to ensure alignment and agreement on roles, responsibilities,
and steps before an incident occurs.


A network host is infected with malware by an attacker who uses the host to make calls for files and shuttle traffic to
bots. This attack went undetected and resulted in a significant loss. The organization wants to ensure this does not
happen in the future and needs a security solution that will generate alerts when command and control communication from an infected device is detected. Which network security solution should be recommended?

A. Cisco Secure Firewall ASA

B. Cisco Secure Firewall Threat Defense (Firepower)

C. Cisco Secure Email Gateway (ESA)

D. Cisco Secure Web Appliance (WSA)


An attacker embedded a macro within a word processing file opened by a user in an organization\’s legal department.
The attacker used this technique to gain access to confidential financial data. Which two recommendations should a
security expert make to mitigate this type of attack? (Choose two.)

A. controlled folder access

B. removable device restrictions

C. signed macro requirements

D. firewall rules creation

E. network access control


cisco 300-215 exam questions q10

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is analyzing a TCP stream in a Wireshark after a suspicious email with a URL. What
should be determined about the SMB traffic from this stream?

A. It is redirecting to a malicious phishing website,

B. It is exploiting redirect vulnerability

C. It is requesting authentication on the user site

D. It is sharing access to files and printers.


Over the last year, an organization\’s HR department has accessed data from its legal department on the last day of
each month to create a monthly activity report. An engineer is analyzing suspicious activity alerted by a threat
intelligence platform that an authorized user in the HR department has accessed legal data daily for the last week. The
engineer pulled the network data from the legal department\’s shared folders and discovered above average-size data
dumps. Which threat actor is implied from these artifacts?

A. privilege escalation

B. internal user errors

C. malicious insider

D. external exfiltration


cisco 300-215 exam questions q12

Refer to the exhibit. According to the SNORT alert, what is the attacker performing?

A. brute-force attack against the web application user accounts

B. XSS attack against the target webserver

C. brute-force attack against directories and files on the target webserver

D. SQL injection attack against the target webserver


cisco 300-215 exam questions q13

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is analyzing a . LNK (shortcut) file recently received as an email attachment and
blocked by email security as suspicious. What is the next step an engineer should take?

A. Delete the suspicious email with the attachment as the file is a shortcut extension and does not represent any threat.

B. Upload the file to a virus checking engine to compare with well-known viruses as the file is a virus disguised as a
legitimate extension.

C. Quarantine the file within the endpoint antivirus solution as the file is ransomware which will encrypt the documents
of a victim.

D. Open the file in a sandbox environment for further behavioral analysis as the file contains a malicious script that runs on execution.


cisco 300-215 exam questions q14

Refer to the exhibit. Which encoding technique is represented by this HEX string?

A. Unicode

B. Binary

C. Base64

D. Charcode



cisco 300-215 exam questions q15

Refer to the exhibit. Which two actions should be taken as a result of this information? (Choose two.)

A. Update the AV to block any file with hash “cf2b3ad32a8a4cfb05e9dfc45875bd70”.

B. Block all emails sent from an address.

C. Block all emails with pdf attachments.

D. Block emails sent from [email protected] with an attached pdf file with md5 hash

E. Block all emails with subject containing “cf2b3ad32a8a4cfb05e9dfc45875bd70”.

Publish the answer:


Cisco 300-215 exam PDF share for free on google drive

In order to facilitate the study habits of more people, here is a part of the latest 300-215 exam PDF from Lead4Pass 300-215 dumps

The Cisco CyberOps Professional contains a wealth of exam content. The whole series contains 2 types of test words.
Passing the exam is really not an easy task. In Lead4pass, you can get a dumps of the exam to help you pass the exam easily.

The free Cisco 300-215 exam practice questions shared above are only part of the complete dumps. For a complete Cisco 300-215 dumps, Click to enter the dumps page.