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What is the difference between inline traffic interrogation (TAPS) and traffic mirroring (SPAN)?
A. TAPS interrogation is more complex because traffic mirroring applies additional tags to data and SPAN does not alter the integrity and provides a full-duplex network.
B. SPAN results in more efficient traffic analysis, and TAPS is considerably slower due to latency caused by mirroring.
C. TAPS replicates the traffic to preserve integrity, and SPAN modifies packets before sending them to other analysis tools
D. SPAN ports filter out physical layer errors, making some types of analyses more difficult, and TAPS receives all packets, including physical errors.
Correct Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 2:
An analyst is exploring the functionality of different operating systems.
What is a feature of Windows Management Instrumentation that must be considered when deciding on an operating system?
A. queries Linux devices that have Microsoft Services for Linux installed B. deploys Windows Operating Systems in an automated fashion C. is an efficient tool for working with Active Directory D. has a Common Information Model, which describes installed hardware and software
Correct Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 3:
Which type of attack occurs when an attacker is successful in eavesdropping on a conversation between two IP phones?
A. known-plaintext B. replay C. dictionary D. man-in-the-middle
Correct Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 4:
Which information must an organization use to understand the threats currently targeting the organization?
A. threat intelligence B. risk scores C. vendor suggestions D. vulnerability exposure
Correct Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 5:
What is the difference between tampered and untampered disk images?
A. Tampered images have the same stored and computed hash. B. Tampered images are used as evidence. C. Untampered images are used for forensic investigations. D. Untampered images are deliberately altered to preserve evidence
Correct Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 6:
What are two social engineering techniques? (Choose two.)
A. privilege escalation B. DDoS attack C. phishing D. man-in-the-middle E. pharming
Correct Answer: CE
NEW QUESTION 7:
Refer to the exhibit. Where is the executable file?
A. info B. tags C. MIME D. name
Correct Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 8:
Which metric should be used when evaluating the effectiveness and scope of a Security Operations Center?
A. The average time the SOC takes to register and assign the incident. B. The total incident escalations per week. C. The average time the SOC takes to detect and resolve the incident. D. The total incident escalations per month.
Correct Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 9:
An engineer received an alert affecting the degraded performance of a critical server. Analysis showed a heavy CPU and memory load. What is the next step the engineer should take to investigate this resource usage?
A. Run “ps -d” to decrease the priority state of high-load processes to avoid resource exhaustion. B. Run “ps -u” to find out who executed additional processes that caused a high load on a server. C. Run “ps -ef” to understand which processes are taking a high amount of resources. D. Run “ps -m” to capture the existing state of daemons and map the required processes to find the gap.
An engineer needs to have visibility on TCP bandwidth usage, response time, and latency, combined with deep packet inspection to identify unknown software by its network traffic flow. Which two features of Cisco Application Visibility and Control should the engineer use to accomplish this goal? (Choose two.)
A. management and reporting B. traffic filtering C. adaptive AVC D. metrics collection and exporting E. application recognition
Correct Answer: AE
NEW QUESTION 11:
Refer to the exhibit.
Which type of attack is being executed?
A. SQL injection B. cross-site scripting C. cross-site request forgery D. command injection
What is an attack surface as compared to a vulnerability?
A. any potential danger to an asset B. the sum of all paths for data into and out of the environment C. an exploitable weakness in a system or its design D. the individuals who perform an attack
Correct Answer: C
An attack surface is the total sum of vulnerabilities that can be exploited to carry out a security attack. Attack surfaces can be physical or digital. The term attack surface is often confused with the term attack vector, but they are not the same thing. The surface is what is being attacked; the vector is the means by which an intruder gains access.
NEW QUESTION 13:
Which security model assumes an attacker within and outside of the network and enforces strict verification before connecting to any system or resource within the organization?
A. Biba B. Object-capability C. Take-Grant D. Zero Trust
Correct Answer: D
Zero Trust security is an IT security model that requires strict identity verification for every person and device trying to access resources on a private network, regardless of whether they are sitting within or outside of the network perimeter.
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Which of the following scenarios BEST describes a risk reduction technique?
A. A security control objective cannot be met through a technical change, so the company purchases insurance and is no longer concerned about losses from data breaches.
B. A security control objective cannot be met through a technical change, so the company implements a policy to train users on a more secure method of operation.
C. A security control objective cannot be met through a technical change, so the company changes as method of operation
D. A security control objective cannot be met through a technical change, so the Chief Information Officer (CIO) decides to sign off on the risk.
Joe, an employee, is transferring departments and is providing copies of his files to a network share folder for his previous team to access. Joe is granting read-write-execute permissions to his manager but giving read-only access to the rest of the team. Which of the following access controls is Joe using?
A. FACL B. DAC C. ABAC D. MAC
A financial organization has adopted a new secure, encrypted document-sharing application to help with its customer loan process. Some important PII needs to be shared across this new platform, but it is getting blocked by the DLP systems. Which of the following actions will BEST allow the PII to be shared with the secure application without compromising the organization\\’s security posture?
A. Configure the DLP policies to allow all PII B. Configure the firewall to allow all ports that are used by this application C. Configure the antivirus software to allow the application D. Configure the DLP policies to whitelist this application with the specific PII E. Configure the application to encrypt the PII
A network administrator is setting up wireless access points in all the conference rooms and wants to authenticate device using PKI. Which of the following should the administrator configure?
A. A captive portal B. PSK C. 802.1X D. WPS
A cloud administrator is configuring five compute instances under the same subnet in a VPC Three instances are required to communicate with one another, and the other two must he logically isolated from all other instances in the VPC. Which of the following must the administrator configure to meet this requirement?
A. One security group B. Two security groups C. Three security groups D. Five security groups
Which of the following would a European company interested in implementing a technical, hands-on set of security standards MOST likely choose?
A. GOPR B. CIS controls C. ISO 27001 D. ISO 37000
Several employees return to work the day after attending an industry trade show. That same day, the security manager notices several malware alerts coming from each of the employee\\’s workstations. The security manager investigates but finds no signs of an attack on the perimeter firewall or the NIDS. Which of the following is MOST likely causing the malware alerts?
A. A worm that has propagated itself across the intranet, which was initiated by presentation media B. A fileless virus that is contained on a vCard that is attempting to execute an attack C. A Trojan that has passed through and executed malicious code on the hosts D. A USB flash drive that is trying to run malicious code but is being blocked by the host firewall
A security manager for a retailer needs to reduce the scope of a project to comply with PCI DSS. The PCI data is located in different offices than where credit cards are accepted. All the offices are connected via MPLS back to the primary datacenter. Which of the following should the security manager implement to achieve the objective?
A. Segmentation B. Containment C. Geofencing D. Isolation
A technician needs to prevent data loss in a laboratory. The laboratory is not connected to any external networks. Which of the following methods would BEST prevent the exfiltration of data? (Select TWO).
A. VPN B. Drive encryption C. Network firewall D. File level encryption E. USB blocker F. MFA
An organization relies on third-party video conferencing to conduct daily business. Recent security changes now require all remote workers to utilize a VPN to corporate resources. Which of the following would BEST maintain high-quality video conferencing while minimizing latency when connected to the VPN?
A. Using geographic diversity to have VPN terminators closer to end users B. Utilizing split tunneling so only traffic for corporate resources is encrypted C. Purchasing higher-bandwidth connections to meet the increased demand D. Configuring QoS properly on the VPN accelerators
A user is concerned that a web application will not be able to handle unexpected or random input without crashing. Which of the following BEST describes the type of testing the user should perform?
A. Code signing B. Fuzzing C. Manual code review D. Dynamic code analysis
While investigating a data leakage incident, a security analyst reviews access control to cloud-hosted data. The following information was presented in a security posture report.
Based on the report, which of the following was the MOST likely attack vector used against the company?
A. Spyware B. Logic bomb C. Potentially unwanted programs D. Supply chain
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Microsoft Certified: Azure Data Engineer Associate “DP-203”. DP-203 is the latest exam question released in 2021. I have gone through the DP-200 exam and DP-201 exam before.
From August 31, 2021, the exams DP-200 and DP-201 have been discontinued, and all those who need to participate in the “Implementing an Azure Data Solution” have been changed to participate in the “Data Engineering on Microsoft Azure”.
The DP-203 exam is a new advancement, and each update iteration of Microsoft is a very big advancement. Of course, such advancement also increases the difficulty of the exam for examinees.
Based on the above description, my explanation is that Microsoft has simplified the previous exam steps and increased the difficulty of the exam. Regardless of whether you want to pass the exam before or now, the most important thing is to study hard, participate in the community, and practice exams to improve your skills.
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What should you recommend using to secure sensitive customer contact information?
A. Transparent Data Encryption (TDE)
B. row-level security
C. column-level security
D. data sensitivity labels
Scenario: Limit the business analysts
What should you do to improve high availability of the real-time data processing solution?
A. Deploy a High Concurrency Databricks cluster.
B. Deploy an Azure Stream Analytics job and use an Azure Automation runbook to check the status of the job and to start the job if it stops.
C. Set Data Lake Storage to use geo-redundant storage (GRS).
D. Deploy identical Azure Stream Analytics jobs to paired regions in Azure.
Guarantee Stream Analytics job reliability during service updates Part of being a fully managed service is the capability to introduce new service functionality and improvements at a rapid pace. As a result, Stream Analytics can have a service update deploy on a weekly (or more frequent) basis. No matter how much testing is done there is still a risk that an existing, running job may break due to the introduction of a bug. If you are running mission critical jobs, these risks need to be avoided. You can reduce this risk by following Azure\’s paired region model.
Scenario: The application development team will create an Azure event hub to receive real-time sales data, including store number, date, time, product ID, customer loyalty number, price, and discount amount, from the point of sale (POS) system and output the data to data storage in Azure
You are designing a fact table named FactPurchase in an Azure Synapse Analytics dedicated SQL pool. The table contains purchases from suppliers for a retail store. FactPurchase will contain the following columns.
FactPurchase will have 1 million rows of data added daily and will contain three years of data.
Transact-SQL queries similar to the following query will be executed daily.
SELECT SupplierKey, StockItemKey, COUNT(*) FROM FactPurchase WHERE DateKey >= 20210101 AND DateKey <= 20210131 GROUP By SupplierKey, StockItemKey
Which table distribution will minimize query times?
B. hash-distributed on PurchaseKey
D. hash-distributed on DateKey
Hash-distributed tables improve query performance on large fact tables, and are the focus of this article. Round-robin tables are useful for improving loading speed.
Not D: Do not use a date column. . All data for the same date lands in the same distribution. If several users are all filtering on the same date, then only 1 of the 60 distributions do all the processing work.
You have files and folders in Azure Data Lake Storage Gen2 for an Azure Synapse workspace as shown in the following exhibit.
You create an external table named ExtTable that has LOCATION=\’/topfolder/\’.
When you query ExtTable by using an Azure Synapse Analytics serverless SQL pool, which files are returned?
A. File2.csv and File3.csv only
B. File1.csv and File4.csv only
C. File1.csv, File2.csv, File3.csv, and File4.csv
D. File1.csv only
To run a T-SQL query over a set of files within a folder or set of folders while treating them as a single entity or rowset, provide a path to a folder or a pattern (using wildcards) over a set of files or folders.
You are designing the folder structure for an Azure Data Lake Storage Gen2 container.
Users will query data by using a variety of services including Azure Databricks and Azure Synapse Analytics serverless SQL pools. The data will be secured by subject area. Most queries will include data from the current year or current
Which folder structure should you recommend to support fast queries and simplified folder security?
There\’s an important reason to put the date at the end of the directory structure. If you want to lock down certain regions or subject matters to users/groups, then you can easily do so with the POSIX permissions. Otherwise, if there was a need to restrict a certain security group to viewing just the UK data or certain planes, with the date structure in front a separate permission would be required for numerous directories under every hour directory. Additionally, having the date structure in front would exponentially increase the number of directories as time went on.
Note: In IoT workloads, there can be a great deal of data being landed in the data store that spans across numerous products, devices, organizations, and customers. It\’s important to pre-plan the directory layout for organization, security, and efficient processing of the data for down-stream consumers. A general template to consider might be the following layout:
You need to design an Azure Synapse Analytics dedicated SQL pool that meets the following requirements:
Can return an employee record from a given point in time.
Maintains the latest employee information.
Minimizes query complexity.
How should you model the employee data?
A. as a temporal table
B. as a SQL graph table
C. as a degenerate dimension table
D. as a Type 2 slowly changing dimension (SCD) table
A Type 2 SCD supports versioning of dimension members. Often the source system doesn\’t store versions, so the data warehouse load process detects and manages changes in a dimension table. In this case, the dimension table must use a surrogate key to provide a unique reference to a version of the dimension member. It also includes columns that define the date range validity of the version (for example, StartDate and EndDate) and possibly a flag column (for example, IsCurrent) to easily filter by current dimension members.
You have an enterprise-wide Azure Data Lake Storage Gen2 account. The data lake is accessible only through an Azure virtual network named VNET1.
You are building a SQL pool in Azure Synapse that will use data from the data lake.
Your company has a sales team. All the members of the sales team are in an Azure Active Directory group named Sales. POSIX controls are used to assign the Sales group access to the files in the data lake.
You plan to load data to the SQL pool every hour.
You need to ensure that the SQL pool can load the sales data from the data lake.
Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each area selection is worth one point.
A. Add the managed identity to the Sales group.
B. Use the managed identity as the credentials for the data load process.
C. Create a shared access signature (SAS).
D. Add your Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) account to the Sales group.
E. Use the snared access signature (SAS) as the credentials for the data load process.
F. Create a managed identity.
The managed identity grants permissions to the dedicated SQL pools in the workspace.
Note: Managed identity for Azure resources is a feature of Azure Active Directory. The feature provides Azure services with an automatically managed identity in Azure AD
You are creating an Azure Data Factory data flow that will ingest data from a CSV file, cast columns to specified types of data, and insert the data into a table in an Azure Synapse Analytic dedicated SQL pool. The CSV file contains three
columns named username, comment, and date.
The data flow already contains the following:
A source transformation.
A Derived Column transformation to set the appropriate types of data.
A sink transformation to land the data in the pool.
You need to ensure that the data flow meets the following requirements:
All valid rows must be written to the destination table.
Truncation errors in the comment column must be avoided proactively.
Any rows containing comment values that will cause truncation errors upon insert must be written to a file in blob storage.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. To the data flow, add a sink transformation to write the rows to a file in blob storage.
B. To the data flow, add a Conditional Split transformation to separate the rows that will cause truncation errors.
C. To the data flow, add a filter transformation to filter out rows that will cause truncation errors.
D. Add a select transformation to select only the rows that will cause truncation errors.
This conditional split transformation defines the maximum length of “title” to be five. Any row that is less than or equal to five will go into the GoodRows stream. Any row that is larger than five will go into the BadRows stream.
This conditional split transformation defines the maximum length of “title” to be five. Any row that is less than or equal to five will go into the GoodRows stream. Any row that is larger than five will go into the BadRows stream.
Now we need to log the rows that failed. Add a sink transformation to the BadRows stream for logging. Here, we\’ll “auto-map” all of the fields so that we have logging of the complete transaction record. This is a text-delimited CSV file output to a single file in Blob Storage. We\’ll call the log file “badrows.csv”.
The completed data flow is shown below. We are now able to split off error rows to avoid the SQL truncation errors and put those entries into a log file. Meanwhile, successful rows can continue to write to our target database.
You have an Azure Stream Analytics job that receives clickstream data from an Azure event hub.
You need to define a query in the Stream Analytics job. The query must meet the following requirements:
Count the number of clicks within each 10-second window based on the country of a visitor. Ensure that each click is NOT counted more than once.
How should you define the Query?
A. SELECT Country, Avg(*) AS Average FROM ClickStream TIMESTAMP BY CreatedAt GROUP BY Country, SlidingWindow(second, 10)
B. SELECT Country, Count(*) AS Count FROM ClickStream TIMESTAMP BY CreatedAt
GROUP BY Country, TumblingWindow(second, 10)
C. SELECT Country, Avg(*) AS Average FROM ClickStream TIMESTAMP BY CreatedAt GROUP BY Country, HoppingWindow(second, 10, 2)
D. SELECT Country, Count(*) AS Count FROM ClickStream TIMESTAMP BY CreatedAt GROUP BY Country, SessionWindow(second, 5, 10)
Tumbling window functions are used to segment a data stream into distinct time segments and perform a function against them, such as the example below. The key differentiators of a Tumbling window are that they repeat, do not overlap, and an event cannot belong to more than one tumbling window.
A: Sliding windows, unlike Tumbling or Hopping windows, output events only for points in time when the content of the window actually changes. In other words, when an event enters or exits the window. Every window has at least one event, like in the case of Hopping windows, events can belong to more than one sliding window.
C: Hopping window functions hop forward in time by a fixed period. It may be easy to think of them as Tumbling windows that can overlap, so events can belong to more than one Hopping window result set. To make a Hopping window the same as a Tumbling window, specify the hop size to be the same as the window size.
D: Session windows group events that arrive at similar times, filtering out periods of time where there is no data.
You need to schedule an Azure Data Factory pipeline to execute when a new file arrives in an Azure Data Lake Storage Gen2 container.
Which type of trigger should you use?
B. tumbling window
Event-driven architecture (EDA) is a common data integration pattern that involves production, detection, consumption, and reaction to events. Data integration scenarios often require Data Factory customers to trigger pipelines based on events happening in storage account, such as the arrival or deletion of a file in Azure Blob Storage account.
You have two Azure Data Factory instances named ADFdev and ADFprod. ADFdev connects to an Azure DevOps Git repository.
You publish changes from the main branch of the Git repository to ADFdev.
You need to deploy the artifacts from ADFdev to ADFprod.
What should you do first?
A. From ADFdev, modify the Git configuration.
B. From ADFdev, create a linked service.
C. From Azure DevOps, create a release pipeline.
D. From Azure DevOps, update the main branch.
In Azure Data Factory, continuous integration and delivery (CI/CD) means moving Data Factory pipelines from one environment (development, test, production) to another.
The following is a guide for setting up an Azure Pipelines release that automates the deployment of a data factory to multiple environments.
In Azure DevOps, open the project that\’s configured with your data factory.
On the left side of the page, select Pipelines, and then select Releases.
Select New pipeline, or, if you have existing pipelines, select New and then New release pipeline.
In the Stage name box, enter the name of your environment.
Select Add artifact, and then select the git repository configured with your development data factory. Select the publish branch of the repository for the Default branch. By default, this publish branch is adf_publish.
You are designing an Azure Stream Analytics job to process incoming events from sensors in retail environments.
You need to process the events to produce a running average of shopper counts during the previous 15 minutes, calculated at five-minute intervals.
Which type of window should you use?
Tumbling windows are a series of fixed-sized, non-overlapping and contiguous time intervals. The following diagram illustrates a stream with a series of events and how they are mapped into 10-second tumbling windows.
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The answer is obtained at the end of the article
Refer to the exhibit. The code snippet provides information about the packet captures within a network. How can the most used source IP addresses within a specific time be visualized?
A. line graph B. bar histogram C. scatter plot D. heatmap
Which connector is southbound?
A. horizontal connector B. cloud connector C. device connector D. universal connector
How does the Cisco router (IR) and switch (IE) portfolio support edge data services?
A. Edge data services can be run and managed as containers using Cisco IOx. B. Edge data services can run only in virtual machines on a separate compute layer. C. Edge data services are aliases for IR/IE configuration services. D. Edge data services run as separate instances only on virtual machines.
A customer is deploying sensors with Cisco IR829 routers in moving trucks to continuously monitor the health of engines using a cloud application. Which data extraction and processing strategy is best suited in this environment?
A. No need to store data locally, upload in real time to the cloud for processing. B. Generate local alerts and create reports at the edge, and upload to the cloud at the end of the day. C. Use the store and forward mechanism to upload the information at the earliest to cloud. D. Ensure that data is stored for a longer duration locally and upload to the cloud every week.
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. That is a heatmap projected on top of a geographic map. B. That is a treemap projected on top of a geographic map. C. The color red usually stands for lower values and the color blue usually stands for higher values. D. Another suitable visualization technique for this image would be line graphs. E. The color blue usually stands for lower values and the color red usually stands for higher values.
What are two functionalities of edge data services? (Choose two.)
A. creating a machine learning data model B. supporting many interfaces and APIs C. applying advanced data analytics D. filtering, normalizing and aggregating data E. saving data for a prolonged time period
A company is collecting data from several thousand machines globally. Which software component in the overall architecture is the next destination of the dataflow after the data has been gathered and normalized on the edge data software?
A. relational database: MySQL B. historian database: influxDB C. message broker: Apache Kafka D. dashboard: Node.js web app
Refer to the exhibit. Approximately 4000 oil platforms, each with 400 sensors, are spread in the Gulf of Mexico and all of their data must come together into one dashboard. Which general architecture should be selected to connect them? A. 4-tier: sensor ?edge device (Intel Atom CPU) ?fog device (Intel Xeon CPU) ?cloud B. 5-tier: intelligent sensor?edge device (Intel Atom CPU) ?fog device (Intel Xeon CPU) ?edge data center (Intel Xeon CPU) C. 2-tier: intelligent sensor ?cloud D. 3-tier: sensor ?edge device (Intel Atom CPU) ?cloud
Which element ensures that PKI is used to establish the identity of IoT devices?
A. unique device identifier B. encryption key C. air gap D. hashed routes
After an application is deployed, potential issues arise around connectivity. As part of the troubleshooting process, the IP address must be determined to ensure end-to-end communication. Which method provides the required details using the Cisco IOx CLI?
A. ioxclient application status B. ioxclient application metrics C. ioxclient application getconfig D. ioxclient application info
As part of an IoT project, an organization is developing an application that will share multiple clients using a REST API. Based on the software development process, what are two valid technical activities that can be suggested to secure the REST API that is developed during the development of the software? (Choose two.)
A. Respond to request failures in detail to allow users for easier troubleshooting. B. Implement HTTP whitelisting to only methods that are allowed. C. Implement and review audit logs for security-related events. D. Reject HTTP methods that are invalid with an error code 404. E. Implement physical firewalling and access control to the resources.
When constructing a Python script for data extraction using GMM APIs on a Cisco Kinetic Cloud platform, how should the API authentication be implemented?
A. Generate the API keys once and edit the permissions as needed. B. Generate and use the API keys for the required access level from the Kinetic Cloud application. C. Use a complex username and password with 128-bit encryption. D. Use a complex username with an auto-generated password from the Kinetic Cloud application.
Refer to the exhibit. The code and the error message that are received when the code is run is presented. What causes issues authenticating with Cisco GMM API using the web-generated API key?
A. firewall that blocks authentication ports B. incorrect username and password C. incorrect GMM Cluster selection D. incorrect key size and data encryption
DRAG DROP Drag and drop the Dockerfile instructions from the left onto the correct arguments on the right. Select and Place:
As part of an IoT project, an organization is developing an edge application that will run on a gateway to securely transmit sensor information it receives into an IoT cloud. Based on the Agile software development lifecycle, the development team is planning to implement a CI/CD pipeline. Which two methods should be suggested to make the software development lifecycle more secure during the implementation and testing? (Choose two.)
A. Perform automated code reviews prior to deployment. B. Implement auto-provisioning security inspection for the code. C. Perform on-going penetration testing on the system. D. Perform a GAP analysis on current security activities and policies. E. Train members of the team in a secure software development lifecycle methodology such as OWASP.
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Refer to the exhibit. Which two determinations should be made about the attack from the Apache access logs? (Choose two.)
A. The attacker used r57 exploit to elevate their privilege.
B. The attacker uploaded the word press file manager trojan.
C. The attacker performed a brute force attack against word press and used SQL injection against the backend database.
D. The attacker used the word press file manager plugin to upload r57.php.
E. The attacker logged on normally to word press admin page.
Refer to the exhibit. A company that uses only the Unix platform implemented an intrusion detection system. After the initial configuration, the number of alerts is overwhelming, and an engineer needs to analyze and classify the alerts. The highest number of alerts were generated from the signature shown in the exhibit. Which classification should the engineer assign to this event?
A. True Negative alert
B. False Negative alert
C. False Positive alert
D. True Positive alert
A threat actor attempts to avoid detection by turning data into a code that shifts numbers to the right four times. Which anti-forensics technique is being used?
DRAG-DROP Drag and drop the capabilities on the left onto the Cisco security solutions on the right. Select and Place:
An engineer is investigating a ticket from the accounting department in which a user discovered an unexpected application on their workstation. Several alerts are seen from the intrusion detection system of unknown outgoing internet traffic from this workstation. The engineer also notices a degraded processing capability, which complicates the analysis process. Which two actions should the engineer take? (Choose two.)
A. Restore to a system recovery point.
B. Replace the faulty CPU.
C. Disconnect from the network.
D. Format the workstation drives.
E. Take an image of the workstation.
An incident response team is recommending changes after analyzing a recent compromise in which: a large number of events and logs were involved; team members were not able to identify the anomalous behavior and escalate it in a timely manner; several network systems were affected as a result of the latency in detection; security engineers were able to mitigate the threat and bring systems back to a stable state; and the issue reoccurred shortly after and systems became unstable again because the correct information was not gathered during the initial identification phase.
Which two recommendations should be made for improving the incident response process? (Choose two.)
A. Formalize reporting requirements and responsibilities to update management and internal stakeholders throughout the incident-handling process effectively.
B. Improve the mitigation phase to ensure causes can be quickly identified, and systems returned to a functioning state.
C. Implement an automated operation to pull systems events/logs and bring them into an organizational context.
D. Allocate additional resources for the containment phase to stabilize systems in a timely manner and reduce an attack\’s breadth.
E. Modify the incident handling playbook and checklist to ensure alignment and agreement on roles, responsibilities, and steps before an incident occurs.
A network host is infected with malware by an attacker who uses the host to make calls for files and shuttle traffic to bots. This attack went undetected and resulted in a significant loss. The organization wants to ensure this does not happen in the future and needs a security solution that will generate alerts when command and control communication from an infected device is detected. Which network security solution should be recommended?
A. Cisco Secure Firewall ASA
B. Cisco Secure Firewall Threat Defense (Firepower)
C. Cisco Secure Email Gateway (ESA)
D. Cisco Secure Web Appliance (WSA)
An attacker embedded a macro within a word processing file opened by a user in an organization\’s legal department. The attacker used this technique to gain access to confidential financial data. Which two recommendations should a security expert make to mitigate this type of attack? (Choose two.)
A. controlled folder access
B. removable device restrictions
C. signed macro requirements
D. firewall rules creation
E. network access control
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is analyzing a TCP stream in a Wireshark after a suspicious email with a URL. What should be determined about the SMB traffic from this stream?
A. It is redirecting to a malicious phishing website,
B. It is exploiting redirect vulnerability
C. It is requesting authentication on the user site
D. It is sharing access to files and printers.
Over the last year, an organization\’s HR department has accessed data from its legal department on the last day of each month to create a monthly activity report. An engineer is analyzing suspicious activity alerted by a threat intelligence platform that an authorized user in the HR department has accessed legal data daily for the last week. The engineer pulled the network data from the legal department\’s shared folders and discovered above average-size data dumps. Which threat actor is implied from these artifacts?
A. privilege escalation
B. internal user errors
C. malicious insider
D. external exfiltration
Refer to the exhibit. According to the SNORT alert, what is the attacker performing?
A. brute-force attack against the web application user accounts
B. XSS attack against the target webserver
C. brute-force attack against directories and files on the target webserver
D. SQL injection attack against the target webserver
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is analyzing a . LNK (shortcut) file recently received as an email attachment and blocked by email security as suspicious. What is the next step an engineer should take?
A. Delete the suspicious email with the attachment as the file is a shortcut extension and does not represent any threat.
B. Upload the file to a virus checking engine to compare with well-known viruses as the file is a virus disguised as a legitimate extension.
C. Quarantine the file within the endpoint antivirus solution as the file is ransomware which will encrypt the documents of a victim.
D. Open the file in a sandbox environment for further behavioral analysis as the file contains a malicious script that runs on execution.
Refer to the exhibit. Which encoding technique is represented by this HEX string?
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