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A development team is using a version control system that has a centralized workflow. Which feature of the version control system ensures the integrity of the central repository?
A. central common code versioning backup
B. built-in conflict resolution mechanism
C. distributed nature of the version control system architecture
D. tracked code changes of the developers
Correct Answer: D
Question 2:
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the capabilities from the left onto the Cisco Network Management Platforms that support the capabilities on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Question 3:
What is the function of an Ethernet switch in a networking environment?
A. to switch a frame from one port to another port based on the IP address
B. to switch a frame from one port to another port based on the MAC address
C. to provide IP addressing to connected hosts
D. to block unwanted traffic
Correct Answer: B
Question 4:
DRAG DROP
Refer to the exhibit. Drag and drop the actions from the left that the contents of this Dockerfile accomplish onto the right. Not all options are used.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Question 5:
What is a capability of an agentless configuration management system?
A. It requires managed hosts to have an interpreter for a high-level language such as Python or Ruby.
B. It requires managed hosts to connect to a centralized host to receive updated configurations.
C. It uses compiled languages as the basis of the domain-specific language to interface with managed hosts.
D. It uses existing protocols to interface with the managed host.
Correct Answer: D
Question 6:
A developer is reviewing a code that was written by a colleague. It runs fine, but there are many lines of code to do a seemingly simple task repeatedly. Which action organizes the code?
A. Refactor the code by removing any unnecessary tests.
B. Reverse engineer and rewrite the code logic.
C. Using functions, rewrite any pieces of code that are repeated.
D. Modify the code to use loops.
Correct Answer: C
Question 7:
How do XML and JSON compare regarding functionality?
A. XML provides support for mapping data structures into host languages than JSON.
B. XML provides more human readability than JSON.
C. JSON provides more support for data types than XML.
D. JSON natively supports arrays and XML does not natively support arrays.
Correct Answer: B
Question 8:
Which IP service synchronizes the time across devices?
A. DNS
B. NTP
C. SNMP
D. NAT
Correct Answer: B
Question 9:
What is a feature of XML compared to other data formats?
A. It uses tags to define the structure.
B. It uses parenthesis for key-value pairs.
C. It uses indentation to define the structure.
D. It uses namespaces for list representation.
Correct Answer: A
Question 10:
An automation script fails to connect to an internal server exactly 1 out of 2 times it is executed. This behavior is seen in different clients. Which networking device must be at fault?
A. load balancer
B. laptop on which the script is running
C. switch
D. router
Correct Answer: A
Question 11:
What is the function of the default gateway in a network?
A. to drop traffic that is destined for the default gateway
B. to drop traffic that is not destined for the default gateway
C. to forward traffic to the same subnet
D. to forward traffic to different subnets
Correct Answer: D
Question 12:
Refer to the exhibit.
A developer is part of a team that is working on an open-source project in which source code is hosted in a public GitHub repository.
While the application was built, security concerns were addressed by encrypting the credentials on the server. After a few months, the developer realized that a hacker managed to gain access to the account. The exhibit contains part of the source code for the login process.
Why was the attacker able to access the developer\’s account?
A. The encoded credentials were available in the source code.
B. The application was not encrypting the communication with the server.
C. The credentials were encrypted in the source code.
D. An SSL certificate was used instead of the TLS protocol to authenticate.
Correct Answer: A
Question 13:
When a Cisco IOS XE networking device is configured by using RESTCONF, what is the default data encoding method?
A. application/yaml-data+json
B. application/yang-data+json
C. application/xml-data+json
D. application/json-data+xml
Correct Answer: B
Question 14:
Several teams at a company are developing a new CRM solution to track customer interactions with the goal of improving customer satisfaction and driving higher revenue. The proposed solution contains these components:
1.
MySQL database that stores data about customers
2.
HTML5 and JavaScript UI that runs on Apache
3.
REST API is written in Python
What are the two advantages of applying the MVC design pattern to the development of the solution? (Choose two.)
A. to enable multiple views of the same data to be presented to different groups of users
B. to provide separation between the view and the model by ensuring that all logic is separated out into the controller
C. to ensure data consistency, which requires that changes to the view are also made to the model
D. to ensure that only one instance of the data model can be created
E. to provide only a single view of the data to ensure consistency
Correct Answer: AB
Question 15:
Which CI/CD component allows for the storing of code packages and enables the testing of the same code that is running on the live system?
A. Artifactory
B. Jira
C. ITSM
D. Git
Correct Answer: A
…
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Share the latest exam questions and answers of the 350-401 ENCOR certification exam online, and use ChatGPT to answer the most popular topics that all candidates care about. Using AI can help you better prepare for the next exam, AI will not help you with the exam, but it can provide the exam details you need.
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ChatGPT’s answer:
Q1: What is the 350-401 ENCOR certification exam?
The 350-401 ENCOR (Implementing Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies) certification exam is a test offered by Cisco that validates a candidate’s knowledge and skills in implementing and operating core enterprise network technologies. The exam is one of the requirements for obtaining the CCNP Enterprise certification, which is a professional-level certification designed for network engineers, network administrators, and other IT professionals who work with enterprise networking technologies.
The 350-401 ENCOR exam covers a range of topics, including network infrastructure, security, automation, virtualization, and network assurance. Specifically, the exam tests the candidate’s knowledge and skills in the following areas:
Architecture
Virtualization
Infrastructure
Network assurance
Security
Automation
The exam consists of 90-110 questions and lasts for 120 minutes. To pass the exam, candidates must score a minimum of 825 out of 1000 points. Passing the 350-401 ENCOR exam, along with passing one of the concentration exams, is required to earn the CCNP Enterprise certification.
Q2: What are the 350-401 ENCOR certification examination methods?
The 350-401 ENCOR (Implementing Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies) certification exam can be taken using two methods:
1. Online Proctored Exam: This is an online version of the exam that can be taken from any location with a reliable internet connection. The exam is proctored remotely, which means that candidates must follow strict exam rules and regulations to ensure a secure and fair testing environment. The online proctored exam can be scheduled through Pearson VUE, the official testing provider for Cisco certifications.
2. In-Person Exam: This is a traditional exam that can be taken at a Pearson VUE testing center. Candidates must travel to the testing center to take the exam, which is proctored on-site. The in-person exam is generally available in areas where the online proctored exam is not possible.
Both exam methods cover the same content and have the same number of questions, format, and time limit. However, the online proctored exam may have some additional technical requirements, such as a webcam, microphone, and a quiet testing environment. It’s important to note that both exam methods require candidates to register and pay for the exam in advance through the Pearson VUE website.
Q3: How to pass the 350-401 ENCOR certification exam?
Passing the 350-401 ENCOR (Implementing Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies) certification exam requires a combination of knowledge, skills, and test-taking strategies. Here are some tips to help you prepare and pass the exam:
1. Understand the exam objectives: Review the exam objectives and the topics that will be covered in the exam. You can find the exam objectives on the Cisco website or through the exam study materials.
2. Use official study materials: Cisco offers a range of study materials, including books, video courses, and practice exams. These materials are designed to help you prepare for the exam and provide an in-depth understanding of the exam topics.
3. Practice, practice, practice: Practice is key to passing the exam. Use the official practice exams and other resources (https://www.lead4pass.com/350-401.html) to test your knowledge and identify areas that require more study.
4. Build a lab: Build a lab environment using Cisco networking equipment or software simulations to gain practical experience in configuring and troubleshooting the technologies covered in the exam.
5. Join a study group: Join a study group or online forum to connect with other candidates, ask questions, and share study resources.
6. Manage your time: The exam is timed, so it’s important to manage your time during the exam. Pace yourself and don’t spend too much time on any one question.
7. Read the questions carefully: Read each question carefully and make sure you understand what is being asked. Look for keywords that can help you identify the correct answer.
8. Eliminate wrong answers: If you’re unsure of the answer, eliminate the wrong answers to narrow down the choices and improve your chances of selecting the correct answer.
9. Review your answers: Once you’ve completed the exam, review your answers and make sure you’ve answered all the questions.
By following these tips and investing time and effort into your study, you can increase your chances of passing the 350-401 ENCOR exam and earning your CCNP Enterprise certification.
Q4: Is the 350-401 ENCOR certification exam worth it?
The 350-401 ENCOR (Implementing Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies) certification exam is definitely worth it for network engineers and other IT professionals who work with enterprise network technologies. Here are some reasons why:
1. Industry recognition: The CCNP Enterprise certification, which is obtained by passing the 350-401 ENCOR exam, is recognized worldwide as a valuable credential for network engineers and other IT professionals.
2. Career advancement: Earning the CCNP Enterprise certification can help you advance your career by demonstrating your knowledge and skills in enterprise network technologies. It can also make you a more competitive candidate for job opportunities and promotions.
3. Skill development: Preparing for and passing the 350-401 ENCOR exam requires a deep understanding of enterprise network technologies, which can help you develop your skills and become a more effective network engineer or IT professional.
4. Networking opportunities: Joining a study group or online forum to prepare for the exam can help you connect with other IT professionals and build your professional network.
5. Cisco partnership benefits: If your organization is a Cisco partner, having CCNP Enterprise-certified professionals on staff can help you achieve partner status and access partner benefits.
Overall, the 350-401 ENCOR certification exam is definitely worth it for IT professionals who work with enterprise network technologies. It can help you advance your career, develop your skills, and gain industry recognition for your expertise.
Real Valid 350-401 ENCOR certification exam questions and answers for free from Lead4Pass:
What is the difference in dBm when an AP power increases from 25 mW to 100 mW?
A. 75dBm
B. 150dBm
C. 6dBm
D. 125dBm
Correct Answer: C
Question 7:
Two Cisco switches are logically configured as a single switch using Cisco StackWise technology. This will result in virtually combining which two planes? (Choose two.)
Which LISP infrastructure device provides connectivity between non-sites and LISP sites by receiving non-LISP traffic with a LISP site destination?
A. PETR
B. PITR
C. map resolver
D. map server
Correct Answer: B
Proxy ingress tunnel router (PITR): answer \’PETR\’ PITR is an infrastructure LISP network entity that receives packets from non-LISP sites and encapsulates the packets to LISP sites or natively forwards them to non-LISP sites.
How is Layer 3 roaming accomplished in a unified wireless deployment?
A. An EoIP tunnel is created between the client and the anchor controller to provide seamless connectivity as the client is associated with the new AP.
B. The client entry on the original controller is passed to the database on the new controller.
C. The new controller assigns an IP address from the new subnet to the client
D. The client database on the original controller is updated with the anchor entry, and the new controller database is updated with the foreign entry.
Correct Answer: D
Question 10:
A customer has recently implemented a new wireless infrastructure using WLC-5520S at a site directly next to a large commercial airport Users report that they intermittently lose Wi-Fi connectivity, and troubleshooting reveals it is due to frequent channel changes Which two actions fix this issue? (Choose two)
A. Remove UNII-2 and Extended UNII-2 channels from the 5 Ghz channel list
B. Restore the OCA default settings because this automatically avoids channel interference
C. Disable DFS channels to prevent interference writ) Doppler radar
D. Enable DFS channels because they are immune to radar interference
E. Configure channels on the UNII-2 and the Extended UNII-2 sub-bands of the 5 Ghz band only
Correct Answer: AC
Question 11:
What does Call Admission Control require the client to send in order to reserve the bandwidth?
A. SIP flow information
B. Wi-Fi multimedia
C. traffic specification
D. VoIP media session awareness
Correct Answer: C
Question 12:
What Is the difference between the MAC address table and TCAM?
A. The MAC address table supports partial matches. TCAM requires an exact match.
B. The MAC address table is contained in TCAM ACL and QoS information is stored in CAM.
C. Router prefix lookups happen in TCAM. MAC address table lookups happen In CAM.
D. TCAM is used to make L2 forwarding decisions. CAM is used to build routing tables
Correct Answer: C
“TCAM is most useful for building tables for searching on longest matches such as IP routing tables organized by IP prefixes. The TCAM table stores ACL, QoS, and other information generally associated with upper-layer processing. As a result of using TCAM, applying ACLs does not affect the performance of the switch.”
A. It creates a temporary connection to a Cisco Nexus device and retrieves a token to be used for API calls.
B. It opens a tunnel and encapsulates the login information if the host key is correct.
C. It opens a client connection to a Cisco Nexus device and maintains it for the duration of the context.
D. It creates an SSH connection using the SSH key that is stored, and the password is ignored.
Correct Answer: C
the client is a Python library that facilitates client-side scripting and application development around the NETCONF protocol. The above Python snippet uses the client to connect and establish a NETCONF session to a Nexus device (which is also a NETCONF server).
Question 14:
A customer has 20 stores located throughout the city. Each store has a single Cisco AP managed by a central WLC. The customer wants to gather analytics for users in each store. Which technique supports these requirements?
A. angle of arrival
B. presence
C. hyper location
D. trilateration
Correct Answer: D
Question 15:
Which feature does Cisco TrustSec use to provide scalable, secure communication throughout a network?
A. security group tag ACL assigned to each port on a switch
B. security group tag number assigned to each port on a network
C. security group tag number assigned to each user on a switch
D. security group tag ACL assigned to each router on a network
Correct Answer: C
Cisco TrustSec uses tags to represent logical group privilege. This tag, called a Security Group Tag (SGT), is used in access policies. The SGT is understood and is used to enforce traffic by Cisco switches, routers, and firewalls. Cisco TrustSec is defined in three phases: classification, propagation, and enforcement. When users and devices connect to a network, the network assigns a specific security group. This process is called classification. Classification can be based on the results of the authentication or by associating the SGT with an IP, VLAN, or port profile (-> Answer \’security group tag ACL assigned to each port on a switch\’ and answer \’security group tag number assigned to each user on a switch\’ are not correct as they say “assigned … on a switch” only. Answer \’security group tag ACL assigned to each router on a network\’ is not correct either as it says “assigned to each router”).
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Share the latest 300-920 exam questions and answers again
Number of exam questions
Exam name
Exam code
Last updated
15
Developing Applications for Cisco Webex and Webex Devices (DEVWBX)
Drag and drop the code snippets onto the exhibit to create a valid Webex Meetings API request allowing Jane (an admin) to reset John\’s PMR pin. Not all options are used.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Question 3:
DRAG DROP Refer to the exhibit. A training coordinator must post links to Webex recordings on a company SharePoint site. This is usually a manual process, but a DevOps engineer wants to automate it using Webex XML APIs. After a successful LstRecording call wrapped in xml2js, the ‘console dir(result)’ output is shown in the exhibit. Using ‘dot notation’, drag and drop the code below onto the code snippet to output the streamURL for each recording.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Question 4:
Which two capabilities are currently supported by the Webex Meetings XML API? (Choose two.)
A. Request a recording link for playback.
B. Send a text message to the meeting host.
C. Request permissions to schedule on someone else\’s behalf.
Refer to the exhibit. A macro and a UI extension (also called In-Room Control) are being developed. What is the reason for the error displayed in the console?
A. Widgets of type “Slider” are not supported on the device.
B. The UI extension was not exported to the device.
C. The name of the widget in the macro and the UI extension must match.
Refer to the exhibit. A developer must construct an HTTP Request to use the XML API to set a Personal Meeting Room PIN for a given user. Which code completes the code to create the request?
A. xmlhttp.open(“GET”, “https://cisco.webex.com/WBXService/XMLService”);
B. xmlhttp.open(“PATCH”, “https://cisco.webex.com/WBXService/XMLService”);
C. xmlhttp.open(“PUT”, “https://cisco.webex.com/WBXService/XMLService”);
D. xmlhttp.open(“POST”, “https://cisco.webex.com/WBXService/XMLService”);
Correct Answer: D
The post method can be used for the HTTP requests that set up a personal meeting room PIN for a user.
Question 12:
Refer to the exhibit. Assume that there is already a connection to a device for this jsxapi.code snippet. Which snippet completes the code so that the connected device makes a call to the user [email protected]?
A company wants to adopt Webex Teams as a messaging platform and use REST APIs to automate the creation of teams and rooms. Which sequence of REST API requests is needed to create and populate a new Webex team and create a populated Webex room for the team?
A. POST /teams, POST /memberships, POST /rooms
B. POST /teams, POST /people, POST /rooms
C. POST /teams, POST /team/memberships, POST /rooms
D. POST /teams, POST /team/memberships, POST /rooms, POST /memberships
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What is the difference between inline traffic interrogation (TAPS) and traffic mirroring (SPAN)?
A. TAPS interrogation is more complex because traffic mirroring applies additional tags to data and SPAN does not alter the integrity and provides a full-duplex network.
B. SPAN results in more efficient traffic analysis, and TAPS is considerably slower due to latency caused by mirroring.
C. TAPS replicates the traffic to preserve integrity, and SPAN modifies packets before sending them to other analysis tools
D. SPAN ports filter out physical layer errors, making some types of analyses more difficult, and TAPS receives all packets, including physical errors.
Correct Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 2:
An analyst is exploring the functionality of different operating systems.
What is a feature of Windows Management Instrumentation that must be considered when deciding on an operating system?
A. queries Linux devices that have Microsoft Services for Linux installed B. deploys Windows Operating Systems in an automated fashion C. is an efficient tool for working with Active Directory D. has a Common Information Model, which describes installed hardware and software
Correct Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 3:
Which type of attack occurs when an attacker is successful in eavesdropping on a conversation between two IP phones?
A. known-plaintext B. replay C. dictionary D. man-in-the-middle
Correct Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 4:
Which information must an organization use to understand the threats currently targeting the organization?
A. threat intelligence B. risk scores C. vendor suggestions D. vulnerability exposure
Correct Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 5:
What is the difference between tampered and untampered disk images?
A. Tampered images have the same stored and computed hash. B. Tampered images are used as evidence. C. Untampered images are used for forensic investigations. D. Untampered images are deliberately altered to preserve evidence
Correct Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 6:
What are two social engineering techniques? (Choose two.)
A. privilege escalation B. DDoS attack C. phishing D. man-in-the-middle E. pharming
Correct Answer: CE
NEW QUESTION 7:
Refer to the exhibit. Where is the executable file?
A. info B. tags C. MIME D. name
Correct Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 8:
Which metric should be used when evaluating the effectiveness and scope of a Security Operations Center?
A. The average time the SOC takes to register and assign the incident. B. The total incident escalations per week. C. The average time the SOC takes to detect and resolve the incident. D. The total incident escalations per month.
Correct Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 9:
An engineer received an alert affecting the degraded performance of a critical server. Analysis showed a heavy CPU and memory load. What is the next step the engineer should take to investigate this resource usage?
A. Run “ps -d” to decrease the priority state of high-load processes to avoid resource exhaustion. B. Run “ps -u” to find out who executed additional processes that caused a high load on a server. C. Run “ps -ef” to understand which processes are taking a high amount of resources. D. Run “ps -m” to capture the existing state of daemons and map the required processes to find the gap.
An engineer needs to have visibility on TCP bandwidth usage, response time, and latency, combined with deep packet inspection to identify unknown software by its network traffic flow. Which two features of Cisco Application Visibility and Control should the engineer use to accomplish this goal? (Choose two.)
A. management and reporting B. traffic filtering C. adaptive AVC D. metrics collection and exporting E. application recognition
Correct Answer: AE
NEW QUESTION 11:
Refer to the exhibit.
Which type of attack is being executed?
A. SQL injection B. cross-site scripting C. cross-site request forgery D. command injection
What is an attack surface as compared to a vulnerability?
A. any potential danger to an asset B. the sum of all paths for data into and out of the environment C. an exploitable weakness in a system or its design D. the individuals who perform an attack
Correct Answer: C
An attack surface is the total sum of vulnerabilities that can be exploited to carry out a security attack. Attack surfaces can be physical or digital. The term attack surface is often confused with the term attack vector, but they are not the same thing. The surface is what is being attacked; the vector is the means by which an intruder gains access.
NEW QUESTION 13:
Which security model assumes an attacker within and outside of the network and enforces strict verification before connecting to any system or resource within the organization?
A. Biba B. Object-capability C. Take-Grant D. Zero Trust
Correct Answer: D
Zero Trust security is an IT security model that requires strict identity verification for every person and device trying to access resources on a private network, regardless of whether they are sitting within or outside of the network perimeter.
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Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about the transaction log is true?
A. The log does not have a date and time
B. The proxy had the content and did not contact other servers
C. The transaction used TCP destination port 8187
D. The AnalizeSuspectTraffic policy group was applied to the transaction
Correct Answer: D
New Question 18:
Which two features can be used with an upstream and downstream Cisco WSA web proxy to have the upstream WSA identify users by their client IP address? (Choose two.)
Which information in the HTTP request is used to determine if it is subject to the referrer exceptions feature in the Cisco WSA?
A. protocol
B. version
C. header
D. payload
Correct Answer: C
Requests for embedded content usually include the address of the site from which the request originated (this is known as the “referer” field in the request\’s HTTP header). This header information is used to determine the categorization of the referred content.
Which configuration option is suitable for explicit mode deployment?
A. PAC
B. WCCP
C. ITD
D. PBR
Correct Answer: A
In explicit-mode deployment, users will point the proxy setting to WSA. This can be done by pointing directly to WSA or via a PAC (Proxy Auto-Config) file.
New Question 25:
Which two sources provide data to Cisco Advanced Web Security Reporting to create dashboards? (Choose two.)
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Developing Solutions using Cisco IoT and Edge Platforms (DEVIOT)
Continue your DevNet Professional 300-915 DEVIOT exam knowledge:
New Question 16:
Which two states are applications expected to be seen in when they are managed on Cisco IOx? (Choose two.)
A. DEACTIVATED
B. ACTIVATED
C. ALLOWED
D. STOPPED
E. VALIDATED
Correct Answer: BD
New Question 17:
When an RS232 device is connected to a Cisco IR829 router, the data collected is not being parsed correctly by the edge application.
Which two steps should be taken to troubleshoot the issue? (Choose two.)
A. SSH access on the Cisco IR829 router must be enabled for IOx Guest OS.
B. Communication mode must be set to half duplex over a serial connection.
C. Serial cable length should not exceed 1.5 meters.
D. Ensure that communication parameters like baud rate and parity are set correctly.
E. Set the cable connections based on the PIN layout from the sensor vendor.
Correct Answer: DE
New Question 18:
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about MQTT messaging are true? (Choose two.)
A. Result in code 5 means the connection is accepted; result code 0 means the connection is “refused, not authorized”.
B. Redundant ClientIDs are supported by MQTT brokers.
C. MQTT does not support a “keep alive” functionality because it runs on top of TCP.
D. Result code 0 means the connection is accepted; result code 5 means the connection is “refused, not authorized”.
E. Brokers can send the Last Will and Testament messages on behalf of the client.
Correct Answer: DE
New Question 19:
How do the Cisco router (IR) and switch (IE) portfolios support edge data services?
A. Edge data services can be run and managed as containers using Cisco IOx.
B. Edge data services can run only in virtual machines on a separate compute layer.
C. Edge data services are aliases for IR/IE configuration services.
D. Edge data services run as separate instances only on virtual machines.
Correct Answer: C
New Question 20:
Refer to the exhibit. While troubleshooting an error on an application descriptor for a Docker app in Cisco IOx (package.YAML), the app type appears to be missing. Which app type must be added to the snippet to resolve the issue?
A. paas
B. docker-vm
C. docker
D. docker-app
Correct Answer: C
New Question 21:
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about data flow are true? (Choose two.)
A. Another AMQP broker should be implemented on the customer cloud.
B. Instead of AMQP, MQTT should be used for compatibility issues in a cloud-to-cloud connection.
C. A VPN tunnel is not necessary because the MQTT payload is encrypted by default.
D. The gateway must stay constantly connected to the Kinetic cloud to avoid blank data sets, even when using caching functions.
E. The Python application could use the paho-mqtt library.
Correct Answer: BE
New Question 22:
Which two statements define the mechanism for console access of the Guest Operating System from the Cisco IR829 router? (Choose two.)
A. The Guest OS can be accessed by default on Telnet port 2070 from the Cisco IR829 console.
B. The Guest OS console is available directly by the AUX port 3362 from the Cisco IR829 router.
C. The Guest OS can be accessed directly using the console port on the Cisco IR829 router.
D. The Guest OS can be accessed by initiating SSH from the Cisco IR829 console.
E. The Guest OS console is available only when a static IP is configured on the host.
Correct Answer: AD
New Question 23:
The environment for an Industrial IoT project in a large open pit mine is being scoped. The location has a large amount of dust and the device will be exposed to less than 1 meter of water temporarily.
When the edge device is being chosen, which Ingress protection rating must be used?
A. IP37
B. IP61
C. IP67
D. IP76
Correct Answer: C
New Question 24:
Which two statements about how to provision and manage data originators in a cloud environment are true? (Choose two.)
A. The provisioning of digital identities is the responsibility of the data originators.
B. Cloud providers offer services for automated device provisioning, which allows the lifecycle of the cloud representation for data originators to be managed.
C. Cloud providers offer application programming interfaces, which allow a programmatic provisioning of data originators.
D. There is no need to provision and manage access for data originators in the cloud.
E. access to public clouds must be configured and managed manually.
Correct Answer: CE
New Question 25:
Refer to the exhibit. Which line of code completes the Dockerfile?
A. RUN chmod 777 /usr/bin/sample.py
B. RUN chown root:root /usr/bin/sample.py
C. WORKDIR /usr/bin
D. USER root
Correct Answer: A
New Question 26:
As part of an IoT project, an organization is developing an application that will share multiple clients using a REST API.
Based on the software development process, what are two valid technical activities that can be suggested to secure the REST API that is developed during the development of the software? (Choose two.)
A. Respond to request failures in detail to allow users for easier troubleshoot.
B. Implement HTTP whitelisting to only methods that are allowed.
C. Implement and review audit logs for security-related events.
D. Reject HTTP methods that are invalid with an error code 404.
E. Implement physical firewalling and access control to the resources.
Correct Answer: BD
New Question 27:
Which two actions must be completed before starting the process of sending IoT data to the cloud via edge routers? (Choose two.)
A. Measure the voltage, power rating, and quiescent current for the sensors that send data to the cloud.
B. Gather the hardware (MAC) addresses of local and cloud routers to ensure low-latency communication.
C. Collect information about the CPU architecture in the cloud and edge to ensure that they match.
D. Gather the interval, the volume, and the latency that the data must be provisioned with.
E. Collect information about growth, required elasticity, and high availability of the provisioning process.
Correct Answer: DE
New Question 28:
After an application is deployed, potential issues arise around connectivity. As part of the troubleshooting process, the IP address must be determined to ensure end-to-end communication.
Which method provides the required details using the Cisco IOx CLI?
A. ioxclient application status
B. ioxclient application metrics
C. ioxclient application getconfig
D. ioxclient application info
Correct Answer: D
New Question 29:
Where are edge data services typically instantiated?
A. at the edge of the network
B. in the cloud
C. in the data center
D. in a private cloud
Correct Answer: A
New Question 30:
Refer to the exhibit. A new application has just been developed as a Docker container. What is the missing step for packaging the container ready for deployment in IOx?
A. Pull/push the image to the Docker registry.
B. Build the package.YAML files.
C. Build the package. cert file to sign the app.
D. Log in to the device manager and load the application.
Correct Answer: B
…
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A network engineer is configuring an OSPFv2 neighbor adjacency. Drag and drop the parameters from the left onto their required categories on the right. Not all parameters are used.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
New Question 2:
Drag and drop the threat-mitigation techniques from the left onto the types of threat or attack they mitigate on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Double-Tagging attack:
In this attack, the attacking computer generates frames with two 802.1Q tags. The first tag matches the native VLAN of the trunk port (VLAN 10 in this case), and the second matches the VLAN of a host it wants to attack (VLAN 20).
When the packet from the attacker reaches Switch A, Switch A only sees the first VLAN 10 and it matches with its native VLAN 10 so this VLAN tag is removed. Switch A forwards the frame out all links with the same native VLAN 10. Switch B
receives the frame with a tag of VLAN 20 so it removes this tag and forwards it out to the Victim’s computer.
Note: This attack only works if the trunk (between two switches) has the same native VLAN as the attacker.
To mitigate this type of attack, you can use VLAN access control lists (VACLs, which apply to all traffic within a VLAN. We can use VACL to drop attacker traffic to specific victims/servers) or implement Private VLANs.
ARP attack (like ARP poisoning/spoofing) is a type of attack in which a malicious actor sends falsified ARP messages over a local area network as ARP allows a gratuitous reply from a host even if an ARP request was not received. This
results in the linking of an attacker\’s MAC address with the IP address of a legitimate computer or server on the network. This is an attack based on ARP which is at Layer 2. Dynamic ARP inspection (DAI) is a security feature that validates ARP packets in a network which can be used to mitigate this type of attack.
New Question 3:
Drag and drop the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller security settings from the left onto the correct security mechanism categories on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Layer 2 Security Mechanism includes WPA+WPA2, 802.1X, Static WEP, and CKIP while Layer 3 Security Mechanisms (for WLAN) includes IPSec, VPN Pass-Through, Web Passthrough …
Drag and drop the network protocols from the left onto the correct transport services on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
New Question 5:
DRAG DROP
Refer to the exhibit.
Drag and drop the networking parameters from the left onto the correct values on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
The “IP route” and “IP addr show eth1” are Linux commands.
1.
“IP route”: display the routing table
2.
“IP addr show eth1”: get depth information (only on eth1 interface) about your network interfaces like IP Address, MAC Address information
New Question 6:
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the AAA functions from the left onto the correct AAA services on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
New Question 7:
Drag and drop the IPv4 network subnets from the left onto the correct usable host ranges on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
This subnet question requires us to grasp how to subnet very well. To quickly find out the subnet range, we have to find out the increment and the network address of each subnet. Let\’s take an example with the subnet 172.28.228.144/18:
From the /18 (= 1100 0000 in the 3rd octet), we find out the increment is 64. Therefore the network address of this subnet must be the greatest multiple of the increment but not greater than the value in the 3rd octet (228). We can find out the 3rd octet of the network address is 192 (because 192 = 64 * 3 and 192 < 228) -> The network address is 172.28.192.0. So the first usable host should be 172.28.192.1 and it matches with the 5th answer on the right. In this case, we don\’t need to calculate the broadcast address because we found the correct answer.
Let\’s take another example with subnet 172.28.228.144/23 -> The increment is 2 (as /23 = 1111 1110 in 3rd octet) -> The 3rd octet of the network address is 228 (because 228 is the multiply of 2 and equal to the 3rd octet) -> The network address is 172.28.228.0 -> The first usable host is 172.28.228.1. It is not necessary but if we want to find out the broadcast address of this subnet, we can find out the next network address, which is 172.28. (228 + the increment number).0 or
172.28.230.0 then reduce 1 bit -> 172.28.229.255 is the broadcast address of our subnet. Therefore the last usable host is 172.28.229.254.
New Question 8:
Drag and drop the descriptions of file-transfer protocols from the left onto the correct protocols on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
New Question 9:
Drag-drop the descriptions from the left onto the correct configuration-management technologies on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
The focus of Ansible is to be streamlined and fast and to require no node agent installation. Thus, Ansible performs all functions over SSH. Ansible is built on Python, in contrast to the Ruby foundation of Puppet and Chef.
TCP port 10002 is the command port. It may be configured in the Chef Push Jobs configuration file. This port allows Chef Push Jobs clients to communicate with the Chef Push Jobs server.
Puppet is an open-source configuration management solution, which is built with Ruby and offers custom Domain Specific Language (DSL) and Embedded Ruby (ERB) templates to create custom Puppet language files, offering a declarative-
paradigm programming approach.
A Puppet piece of code is called a manifest and is a file with a .pp extension.
New Question 10:
Drag and drop the WLAN components from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
The service port can be used for management purposes, primarily for out-of-band management. However, AP management traffic is not possible across the service port. In most cases, the service port is used as a “last resort” means of accessing the controller GUI for management purposes. For example, in the case where the system distribution ports on the controller are down or their communication to the wired network is otherwise degraded.
A dynamic interface with the Dynamic AP Management option enabled is used as the tunnel source for packets from the controller to the access point and as the destination for CAPWAP packets from the access point to the controller. The virtual interface is used to support mobility management, Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) relay, and embedded Layer 3 security such as guest web authentication. It also maintains the DNS gateway hostname used by Layer 3 security and mobility managers to verify the source of certificates when Layer 3 web authorization is enabled.
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Which UDP port numbers are used for exchanging mobility packets in an AireOS wireless deployment?
A. UDP 16666 for the control plane, EoIP (IP protocol 97) for the data plane
B. UDP 16668 for control plane, UDP 16667 for data plane
C. UDP 16667 for control plane, UDP 16666 for data plane
D. UDP 16666 for control plane, UDP 16667 for data plane
Correct Answer: D
Reference:
Question 2:
A customer asks an engineer to explain the concept of mobility domains and mobility groups. Which statement does the engineer respond with?
A. A mobility group does not constrain the distribution of the security context of a client and also does not constrain AP fail-over between controllers when the WLC is in the same mobility domain.
B. If WLCs are in the same mobility domain, they communicate with each other but, if an anchor WLC is present it must be in the same mobility domain for communication to be possible.
C. If WLCs are in the same mobility domain, they communicate with each other. Mobility groups constrain the distribution of the security context of a client and also constrain AP fail-over between controllers.
D. WLCs do not need to be in the same mobility domain to communicate with each other. Mobility groups constrain the distribution of the security context of a client and also constrain AP fail-over between controllers.
An engineer is designing a wireless deployment for a university auditorium. Which two features can be used to help deal with the issues introduced by high AP count? (Choose two.)
A wireless engineer is designing a wireless network to support real-time applications over wireless. Which IEEE protocol must the engineer enable on the WLC so that the number of packets that are exchanged between an access point and client is reduced and fast roaming occurs?
A. 802.11w
B. 802.11r
C. 802.11i
D. 802.11k
Correct Answer: B
Reference:
Question 5:
A network administrator of a global organization is collapsing all controllers to a single cluster located in central Europe. Which concern must be addressed?
A. Some channels may not be available consistently across the organization.
B. Different RF policies per office are not available in this configuration.
C. Syslog must be configured to the time zone of the NMS platform.
D. Centralized controllers cannot uniformly authenticate global users.
An engineer must ensure that the new wireless LAN deployment can support seamless roaming between access points using a standard based on an amendment to the 802.11 protocol. Which protocol must the engineer select?
A. 802.11i
B. 802.11ac
C. 802.11r
D. 802.11e
Correct Answer: C
Reference:
Question 7:
A network engineer is preparing for an office site survey with a height of 2.5 meters. Which three components are recommended to complete the survey? (Choose three.)
A. Use a battery pack to power APs B. Use a drawing of the office space to draw AP and client placements.
C. Use DoS attack on APs while measuring the throughput.
A wireless engineer must optimize RF performance for multiple buildings with multiple types of construction and user density. Which two actions must be taken? (Choose two.)
A. Configure Flexconnect groups for each building.
A wireless engineer is hired to design a network for a technology company. The company campus has four buildings and a warehouse with access points that provide full wireless coverage as well as a pair of WLCs located in the core of the network. Which type of wireless architecture is being used?
A. unified deployment
B. autonomous deployment
C. centralized deployment
D. distributed deployment
Correct Answer: C
Reference:
Question 10:
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the main reason why the Wi-Fi design engineer took a different approach than installing the APs in the offices, even though that installation provides better coverage?
Where must the APs be mounted when used in a high-density wireless network to provide 6 dB to 20 dB of attenuation to a cell?
A. in the aisle
B. under the seat
C. above the stage
D. under the stage
Correct Answer: B
Reference:
Question 12:
A company wants to replace its existing PBX system with a new VoIP System that will include wireless IP phones. The CIO has concerns about whether the company\’s existing wireless network can support the new system. Which tool in Cisco Prime can help ensure that the current network will support the new phone system?
A. Location Readiness
B. Site Calibration
C. Map Editor
D. Voice Readiness
Correct Answer: D
Reference:
Question 13:
A rapidly expanding company has tasked its network engineer with wirelessly connecting a new cubicle area with Cisco workgroup bridges until the wired network is complete. Each of the 42 new users has a computer and VoIP phone. How many APs for workgroup bridging must be ordered to keep costs at a minimum while connecting all devices?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7
Correct Answer: A
Reference:
So, each AP will have 25 clients. Minimum 4 APs are sufficient.
Question 14:
Which two considerations must a network engineer have when planning for voice-over wireless roaming? (Choose two.)
A. Full reauthentication introduces gaps in a voice conversation.
B. Roaming time increases when using 802.1x + Cisco Centralized Key Management.
C. Roaming occurs when the phone has seen at least four APs.
D. Roaming occurs when the phone has reached 80 dBs or below.
E. Roaming with only 802.1x authentication requires full reauthentication.
An engineer is designing a wireless network that will support many different types of wireless clients. When conducting the survey, which client must be used to ensure a consistent experience for all of the wireless clients?
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New Question 1:
A DevOps engineer must validate the working state of the network before implementing a CI/CD pipeline model. Which configuration management tool is designed to accomplish this?
A CI/CD pipeline that builds infrastructure components using Terraform must be designed. A step in the pipeline is needed that checks for errors in any of the .tf files in the working directory. It also checks the existing state of the defined infrastructure.
Which command does the pipeline run to accomplish this goal?
A DevOps engineer has built a container to host a web server and it must run as an executable. Which command must be configured in a Dockerfile to accomplish this goal?
A. ENTRYPOINT
B. ENTRYPOINT [“/usr/sbin/apache2ctl”, “-D”, “FOREGROUND”]
C. ENTRYPOINT [“BACKGROUND”, “-D”, “/usr/sbin/apache2ctl”]
A company has experienced serious growth and the hosted applications are getting more and more hits. Based on the increased workload, applications have started to show signs of reduced performance, which is affecting the user experience.
Which two server metrics should be tracked to ensure that the customer experience remains within acceptable limits? (Choose two.)
An interface on a router as a Layer 3 link has been configured to another device by updating an Ansible playbook that is executed via a CI/CD pipeline. The Ansible playbook was written to push the configuration change using the ios_config module.
Which automated test validates that the interface is functioning as it should?
A. Add a pipeline step that runs the playbook a second type. If it does not modify the device on the second run, then the interface is correctly configured.
B. Automated testing is already built in because the playbook execution is successful only after Ansible validates that it applied the change.
C. Add a pipeline step that captures and parses the packet flow for the interface.
D. Add a pipeline step that captures and parses the show IP interface output so that the operational state can be referenced.
When static routes are added to a router in a network using a CI/CD pipeline, an Ansible playbook is used to make these changes. Which steps must be added to the pipeline to validate that the changes have the intended effect on the traffic flow?
A. Add a step to run the debug IP routing command before the change, and add a step after the change to issue the no debug IP routing command.
B. Add a step to capture the routing table before the change, and add a step after the change to capture it again. Calculate the difference between the two for review.
C. Add a step to ping a host on each of the static routes before the change, and a step after to repeat the same check. Calculate the difference between the two checks for review.
D. Add a step to run the same playbook again with the debug option enabled and use grep on the log output to ensure that the commands are not applied again.
A DevOps engineer is supporting a containerized application with multiple components running across the Kubernetes cluster. Metrics from the container (CPU and memory) and application (requests per second and heap size) are being collected by Prometheus and displayed with Grafana. Users report transaction timeout problems with the application, but the metric graphs all look within normal levels.
Which type of failure would prevent the engineer from seeing the problem using the captured metrics?
A. Grafana has lost connectivity to Prometheus, which causes graphs to display only the cached data.
B. CPU and memory metrics from Kubernetes nodes are not accurate due to the way that containers share resources.
C. Some containers are crashing regularly and being restarted automatically by Kubernetes.
D. The metric beat agent has crashed and is no longer sending new data to Prometheus, so the metrics are not updating.
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New Question 1:
How does requesting a synchronous API operation differ from requesting an asynchronous API operation?
A. clients receive responses with a task id for further processing
B. clients subscribe to a webhook for operation results
C. clients poll for the status of the execution of operations
D. clients can access the results immediately
Correct Answer: C
New Question 2:
What are two advantages of YANG-based approaches for infrastructure automation? (Choose two.)
A. multi-platform vendor abstraction
B. compiles to executables that run on network devices
C. designed to reflect networking concepts
D. directly maps to JavaScript
E. command line driven interface
Correct Answer: AC
New Question 3:
Which device is used to transport traffic from one broadcast domain to another broadcast domain?
A. layer 2 switch
B. proxy server
C. router
D. load balancer
Correct Answer: C
New Question 4:
Which service provides a directory lookup for IP addresses and host names?
A. DNS
B. NAT
C. SNMP
D. DHCP
Correct Answer: A
New Question 5:
Users cannot access a webserver and after the traffic is captured, the capture tool shows an ICMP packet that reports “time exceeded in-transit”. What is the cause of this webserver access issue?
A. A router along the path has the wrong time.
B. A router along the path is misrouting the packets in the wrong direction.
C. The server is too loaded and the connection could not be handled in time.
D. The server is too far away and the packets require too much time to reach it.
Correct Answer: B
New Question 6:
What is used in Layer 2 switches to direct packet transmission to the intended recipient?
A. MAC address
B. IPv6 address
C. spanning tree D. IPv4 address
Correct Answer: A
New Question 7:
Users cannot access a webserver and after the traffic is captured, the capture tool shows an ICMP packet that reports “communication administratively prohibited”. What is the cause of this webserver access issue?
A. An access list along the path is blocking the traffic.
B. Users must authenticate on the webserver to access it.
C. A router along the path is overloaded and thus dropping traffic.
D. The traffic is not allowed to be translated with NAT and dropped.
Correct Answer: A
New Question 8:
What is an advantage of a version control system?
A. facilitates resolving conflicts when merging code
B. ensures that unit tests are written
C. prevents over-writing code or configuration files
D. forces the practice of trunk-based development
Correct Answer: A
New Question 9:
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the result of executing this Ansible playbook?
A. The playbook copies a new start-up configuration to CISCO_ROUTER_01
B. The playbook copies a new running configuration to CISCO_ROUTER_01
C. The playbook backs up the running configuration of CISCO_ROUTER_01
D. The playbook backs up the start-up configuration of CISCO_ROUTER_01
Correct Answer: D
New Question 10:
A 401 HTTP response code is returned when calling a REST API. What is the error state identified by this response code?
A. The server cannot process the request as it has detected an issue in the request syntax or body.
B. The request has not been accepted because it requires authentication.
C. The sever accepted the request but the client is not authorized for this content.
D. The server cannot find the requested resource because the path specified is incorrect.
Correct Answer: B
New Question 11:
What is the first development task in test-driven development?
A. Write code that implements a desired function.
B. Write a failing test case for a desired function.
C. Reverse engineer the code for a desired function.
What is the purpose of a firewall in application deployment?
A. adds TLS support to an application that does not support it natively
B. limits traffic to only ports required by the application
C. provides translation for an application\’s hostname to its IP address
D. forwards traffic to a pool of instances of the application
Correct Answer: B
New Question 13:
A small company has 5 servers and 50 clients. What are two reasons an engineer should split this network into separate client and server subnets? (Choose two.)
A. Subnets will split domains to limit failures.
B. A router will limit the traffic types between the clients and servers.
C. Subnets provide more IP address space for clients and servers.
D. A router will bridge the traffic between clients and servers.
E. Internet access to the servers will be denied on the router.
Correct Answer: AB
New Question 14:
How does a developer create and switch to a new branch called “my-bug-fix” to develop a product fix?
What operation is performed with YANG model-driven programmability in NX-OS?
A. configure a device with native and OpenConfig-based models
B. bootstrap a device that has a factory-default configuration
C. send CLI commands to a device and retrieve output in JSON format
D. run Linux commands natively on the device
Correct Answer: A
…
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