Latest updated CCNA 200-301 dumps from Lead4Pass

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Read CCNA 200-301 dumps exam questions and answers online:

Number of exam questionsRelease timeExam nameFromPrevious issue
15Sep 20, 2022Implementing and Administering Cisco Solutions (CCNA)Lead4PassSep 2, 2022
New Question 1:

DRAG DROP

A network engineer is configuring an OSPFv2 neighbor adjacency. Drag and drop the parameters from the left onto their required categories on the right. Not all parameters are used.

Select and Place:

CCNA 200-301 dumps exam q1

Correct Answer:

CCNA 200-301 dumps exam answer q1

New Question 2:

Drag and drop the threat-mitigation techniques from the left onto the types of threat or attack they mitigate on the right.

Select and Place:

CCNA 200-301 dumps exam q2

Correct Answer:

CCNA 200-301 dumps exam answer q2

Double-Tagging attack:

CCNA 200-301 dumps exam answer q2-1

In this attack, the attacking computer generates frames with two 802.1Q tags. The first tag matches the native VLAN of the trunk port (VLAN 10 in this case), and the second matches the VLAN of a host it wants to attack (VLAN 20).

When the packet from the attacker reaches Switch A, Switch A only sees the first VLAN 10 and it matches with its native VLAN 10 so this VLAN tag is removed. Switch A forwards the frame out all links with the same native VLAN 10. Switch B

receives the frame with a tag of VLAN 20 so it removes this tag and forwards it out to the Victim’s computer.

Note: This attack only works if the trunk (between two switches) has the same native VLAN as the attacker.

To mitigate this type of attack, you can use VLAN access control lists (VACLs, which apply to all traffic within a VLAN. We can use VACL to drop attacker traffic to specific victims/servers) or implement Private VLANs.

ARP attack (like ARP poisoning/spoofing) is a type of attack in which a malicious actor sends falsified ARP messages over a local area network as ARP allows a gratuitous reply from a host even if an ARP request was not received. This

results in the linking of an attacker\’s MAC address with the IP address of a legitimate computer or server on the network. This is an attack based on ARP which is at Layer 2. Dynamic ARP inspection (DAI) is a security feature that validates ARP packets in a network which can be used to mitigate this type of attack.

New Question 3:

Drag and drop the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller security settings from the left onto the correct security mechanism categories on the right.

Select and Place:

CCNA 200-301 dumps exam q3

Correct Answer:

CCNA 200-301 dumps exam answer q3

Layer 2 Security Mechanism includes WPA+WPA2, 802.1X, Static WEP, and CKIP while Layer 3 Security Mechanisms (for WLAN) includes IPSec, VPN Pass-Through, Web Passthrough …

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless/4400-series-wireless-lan-controllers/106082-wlc-compatibility-matrix.html

New Question 4:

Drag and drop the network protocols from the left onto the correct transport services on the right.

Select and Place:

CCNA 200-301 dumps exam q4

Correct Answer:

CCNA 200-301 dumps exam answer q4

New Question 5:

DRAG DROP

Refer to the exhibit.

CCNA 200-301 dumps exam q5

Drag and drop the networking parameters from the left onto the correct values on the right.

Select and Place:

CCNA 200-301 dumps exam q1-1

Correct Answer:

CCNA 200-301 dumps exam answer q1

The “IP route” and “IP addr show eth1” are Linux commands.

1.

“IP route”: display the routing table

2.

“IP addr show eth1”: get depth information (only on eth1 interface) about your network interfaces like IP Address, MAC Address information

New Question 6:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the AAA functions from the left onto the correct AAA services on the right.

Select and Place:

CCNA 200-301 dumps exam q6

Correct Answer:

CCNA 200-301 dumps exam answer q6

New Question 7:

Drag and drop the IPv4 network subnets from the left onto the correct usable host ranges on the right.

Select and Place:

CCNA 200-301 dumps exam q7

Correct Answer:

CCNA 200-301 dumps exam answer q7

This subnet question requires us to grasp how to subnet very well. To quickly find out the subnet range, we have to find out the increment and the network address of each subnet. Let\’s take an example with the subnet 172.28.228.144/18:

From the /18 (= 1100 0000 in the 3rd octet), we find out the increment is 64. Therefore the network address of this subnet must be the greatest multiple of the increment but not greater than the value in the 3rd octet (228). We can find out the 3rd octet of the network address is 192 (because 192 = 64 * 3 and 192 < 228) -> The network address is 172.28.192.0. So the first usable host should be 172.28.192.1 and it matches with the 5th answer on the right. In this case, we don\’t need to calculate the broadcast address because we found the correct answer.

Let\’s take another example with subnet 172.28.228.144/23 -> The increment is 2 (as /23 = 1111 1110 in 3rd octet) -> The 3rd octet of the network address is 228 (because 228 is the multiply of 2 and equal to the 3rd octet) -> The network address is 172.28.228.0 -> The first usable host is 172.28.228.1. It is not necessary but if we want to find out the broadcast address of this subnet, we can find out the next network address, which is 172.28. (228 + the increment number).0 or

172.28.230.0 then reduce 1 bit -> 172.28.229.255 is the broadcast address of our subnet. Therefore the last usable host is 172.28.229.254.

New Question 8:

Drag and drop the descriptions of file-transfer protocols from the left onto the correct protocols on the right.

Select and Place:

CCNA 200-301 dumps exam q8

Correct Answer:

CCNA 200-301 dumps exam answer q8

New Question 9:

Drag-drop the descriptions from the left onto the correct configuration-management technologies on the right.

Select and Place:

CCNA 200-301 dumps exam q9

Correct Answer:

CCNA 200-301 dumps exam answer q9

The focus of Ansible is to be streamlined and fast and to require no node agent installation. Thus, Ansible performs all functions over SSH. Ansible is built on Python, in contrast to the Ruby foundation of Puppet and Chef.

TCP port 10002 is the command port. It may be configured in the Chef Push Jobs configuration file. This port allows Chef Push Jobs clients to communicate with the Chef Push Jobs server.

Puppet is an open-source configuration management solution, which is built with Ruby and offers custom Domain Specific Language (DSL) and Embedded Ruby (ERB) templates to create custom Puppet language files, offering a declarative-

paradigm programming approach.

A Puppet piece of code is called a manifest and is a file with a .pp extension.

New Question 10:

Drag and drop the WLAN components from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right.

Select and Place:

CCNA 200-301 dumps exam q10

Correct Answer:

CCNA 200-301 dumps exam answer q10

The service port can be used for management purposes, primarily for out-of-band management. However, AP management traffic is not possible across the service port. In most cases, the service port is used as a “last resort” means of accessing the controller GUI for management purposes. For example, in the case where the system distribution ports on the controller are down or their communication to the wired network is otherwise degraded.

A dynamic interface with the Dynamic AP Management option enabled is used as the tunnel source for packets from the controller to the access point and as the destination for CAPWAP packets from the access point to the controller. The virtual interface is used to support mobility management, Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) relay, and embedded Layer 3 security such as guest web authentication. It also maintains the DNS gateway hostname used by Layer 3 security and mobility managers to verify the source of certificates when Layer 3 web authorization is enabled.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/8-5/config-guide/b_cg85/ports_and_interfaces.html

New Question 11:

Drag and drop the functions from the left onto the correct network components on the right.

Select and Place:

CCNA 200-301 dumps exam q11

Correct Answer:

CCNA 200-301 dumps exam answer q11

Refer to the exhibit.

CCNA 200-301 dumps exam answer q11-1

New Question 12:

Drag and drop the routing table components on the left onto the corresponding letter from the exhibit on the right. not all options are used.

Select and Place:

CCNA 200-301 dumps exam q12

Correct Answer:

CCNA 200-301 dumps exam answer q12

New Question 13:

Drag and drop each broadcast IP address on the left to the Broadcast Address column on the right. Not all options are used.

Select and Place:

CCNA 200-301 dumps exam q13

Correct Answer:

CCNA 200-301 dumps exam answer q13

New Question 14:

An interface has been configured with the access list that is shown below.

CCNA 200-301 dumps exam q14

On the basis of that access list, drag each information packet on the left to the appropriate category on the right.

Select and Place:

CCNA 200-301 dumps exam answer q14

Correct Answer:

CCNA 200-301 dumps exam answer q14-1

New Question 15:

Order the DHCP message types as they would occur between a DHCP client and a DHCP server.

Select and Place:

CCNA 200-301 dumps exam q15

Correct Answer:

CCNA 200-301 dumps exam answer q15

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Cisco 300-425 ENWLSD exam candidates can successfully pass the exam with the latest version of the 300-425 dumps

The latest version of 300-425 dumps released today, proven, correct, and effective, candidates can use the PDF and VCE exam tools provided by Lead4Pass to help you practice all exam questions, guaranteeing you 100% success in passing the Cisco 300-425 ENWLSD exam (Designing Cisco Enterprise Wireless Networks).

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The latest Cisco 300-425 Dumps exam questions and answers are shared online:

Number of exam questionsUpdate timeExamPrevious issue
15Sep 13, 2022Designing Cisco Enterprise Wireless Networks (ENWLSD) (300-425)
Question 1:

Which UDP port numbers are used for exchanging mobility packets in an AireOS wireless deployment?

A. UDP 16666 for the control plane, EoIP (IP protocol 97) for the data plane

B. UDP 16668 for control plane, UDP 16667 for data plane

C. UDP 16667 for control plane, UDP 16666 for data plane

D. UDP 16666 for control plane, UDP 16667 for data plane

Correct Answer: D

Reference:

300-425 dumps questions 1

Question 2:

A customer asks an engineer to explain the concept of mobility domains and mobility groups. Which statement does the engineer respond with?

A. A mobility group does not constrain the distribution of the security context of a client and also does not constrain AP fail-over between controllers when the WLC is in the same mobility domain.

B. If WLCs are in the same mobility domain, they communicate with each other but, if an anchor WLC is present it must be in the same mobility domain for communication to be possible.

C. If WLCs are in the same mobility domain, they communicate with each other. Mobility groups constrain the distribution of the security context of a client and also constrain AP fail-over between controllers.

D. WLCs do not need to be in the same mobility domain to communicate with each other. Mobility groups constrain the distribution of the security context of a client and also constrain AP fail-over between controllers.

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/8-0/configuration-guide/b_cg80/b_cg80_chapter_010011.html

Question 3:

An engineer is designing a wireless deployment for a university auditorium. Which two features can be used to help deal with the issues introduced by high AP count? (Choose two.)

A. TSPEC

B. RXSOP

C. TPC

D. LSS

E. DFS

Correct Answer: CE

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless-mobility/80211/200069-Overview-on-802-11h-Transmit-Power-Cont.html

Question 4:

A wireless engineer is designing a wireless network to support real-time applications over wireless. Which IEEE protocol must the engineer enable on the WLC so that the number of packets that are exchanged between an access point and client is reduced and fast roaming occurs?

A. 802.11w

B. 802.11r

C. 802.11i

D. 802.11k

Correct Answer: B

Reference:

300-425 dumps questions 4

Question 5:

A network administrator of a global organization is collapsing all controllers to a single cluster located in central Europe. Which concern must be addressed?

A. Some channels may not be available consistently across the organization.

B. Different RF policies per office are not available in this configuration.

C. Syslog must be configured to the time zone of the NMS platform.

D. Centralized controllers cannot uniformly authenticate global users.

Correct Answer: C

Reference:

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/technotes/86/b_Cisco_Wireless_LAN_ Controller_Configuration_Best_Practices.html

Question 6:

An engineer must ensure that the new wireless LAN deployment can support seamless roaming between access points using a standard based on an amendment to the 802.11 protocol. Which protocol must the engineer select?

A. 802.11i

B. 802.11ac

C. 802.11r

D. 802.11e

Correct Answer: C

Reference:

300-425 dumps questions 6

Question 7:

A network engineer is preparing for an office site survey with a height of 2.5 meters. Which three components are recommended to complete the survey? (Choose three.)

A. Use a battery pack to power APs B. Use a drawing of the office space to draw AP and client placements.

C. Use DoS attack on APs while measuring the throughput.

D. Use APs with directional antennas.

E. Use APs with external antennas.

F. Use APs with built-in antennas.

Correct Answer: ABF

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/technology/mesh/8-4/b_mesh_84/Site_Preparation_and_Planning.html#ID3405

Question 8:

A wireless engineer must optimize RF performance for multiple buildings with multiple types of construction and user density. Which two actions must be taken? (Choose two.)

A. Configure Flexconnect groups for each building.

B. Configure WMM profiles for each building.

C. Configure AP groups for each area type.

D. Configure RF profiles for each area type.

E. Enable DTPC on the network.

Correct Answer: CD

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/8-10/config-guide/b_cg810/configuring_ap_groups.html

Question 9:

A wireless engineer is hired to design a network for a technology company. The company campus has four buildings and a warehouse with access points that provide full wireless coverage as well as a pair of WLCs located in the core of the network. Which type of wireless architecture is being used?

A. unified deployment

B. autonomous deployment

C. centralized deployment

D. distributed deployment

Correct Answer: C

Reference:

300-425 dumps questions 9

Question 10:

Refer to the exhibit.

300-425 dumps questions 10

What is the main reason why the Wi-Fi design engineer took a different approach than installing the APs in the offices, even though that installation provides better coverage?

A. aesthetics

B. transmit power considerations

C. antenna gain

D. power supply considerations

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Mobility/emob30dg/RFDesign.html#wp10 00551

Question 11:

Where must the APs be mounted when used in a high-density wireless network to provide 6 dB to 20 dB of attenuation to a cell?

A. in the aisle

B. under the seat

C. above the stage

D. under the stage

Correct Answer: B

Reference:

300-425 dumps questions 11

Question 12:

A company wants to replace its existing PBX system with a new VoIP System that will include wireless IP phones. The CIO has concerns about whether the company\’s existing wireless network can support the new system. Which tool in Cisco Prime can help ensure that the current network will support the new phone system?

A. Location Readiness

B. Site Calibration

C. Map Editor

D. Voice Readiness

Correct Answer: D

Reference:

300-425 dumps questions 12

Question 13:

A rapidly expanding company has tasked its network engineer with wirelessly connecting a new cubicle area with Cisco workgroup bridges until the wired network is complete. Each of the 42 new users has a computer and VoIP phone. How many APs for workgroup bridging must be ordered to keep costs at a minimum while connecting all devices?

A. 4

B. 5

C. 6

D. 7

Correct Answer: A

Reference:

300-425 dumps questions 13

So, each AP will have 25 clients. Minimum 4 APs are sufficient.

Question 14:

Which two considerations must a network engineer have when planning for voice-over wireless roaming? (Choose two.)

A. Full reauthentication introduces gaps in a voice conversation.

B. Roaming time increases when using 802.1x + Cisco Centralized Key Management.

C. Roaming occurs when the phone has seen at least four APs.

D. Roaming occurs when the phone has reached 80 dBs or below.

E. Roaming with only 802.1x authentication requires full reauthentication.

Correct Answer: AE

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Mobility/vowlan/41dg/vowlan41dg-book/vowlan_ch5.html

Question 15:

An engineer is designing a wireless network that will support many different types of wireless clients. When conducting the survey, which client must be used to ensure a consistent experience for all of the wireless clients?

A. the client that has the highest RF properties

B. the client that is used most by the company

C. the client that is used least by the company

D. the client with the worst RF characteristics

Correct Answer: D

Reference:

300-425 dumps questions 15

https://documentation.meraki.com/MR/WiFi_Basics_and_Best_Practices/Conducting_Site_Surveys_ with_MR_Access_Points

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The latest updated 300-910 dumps serve all Cisco 300-910 DEVOPS exam candidates

The newly updated Cisco 300-910 dumps provide 59 exam questions and answers, covering the full range of practice exam questions, for all candidates taking the 300-910 DEVOPS exam.

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Latest Cisco 300-910 Dumps exam questions online practice test

New Question 1:

A DevOps engineer must validate the working state of the network before implementing a CI/CD pipeline model. Which configuration management tool is designed to accomplish this?

A. Jenkins

B. Genie CLI

C. Travis CI

D. Python YAML data libraries

Check answer

New Question 2:

A CI/CD pipeline that builds infrastructure components using Terraform must be designed. A step in the pipeline is needed that checks for errors in any of the .tf files in the working directory. It also checks the existing state of the defined infrastructure.

Which command does the pipeline run to accomplish this goal?

A. terraform plan

B. terraform check

C. terraform fmt

D. terraform validate

Check answer

New Question 3:
cisco 300-910 exam questions 3
cisco 300-910 exam questions 3

Refer to the exhibit. How should the Jenkins job be troubleshot based on the error provided?

A. Verify what the responding file created.

B. Update pip.

C. Install dependencies.

D. Place the code in a container and run the job again.

Check answer

New Question 4:

Which description of a canary deployment is true?

A. deployment by accident

B. deployment that is rolled back automatically after a configurable amount of minutes

C. deployment relating to data mining development

D. deployment to a limited set of servers or users

Check answer

New Question 5:
cisco 300-910 exam questions 5

Refer to the exhibit. What is causing the requests code to fail?

A. Rython3 is not compatible with requests.

B. The requests library is not imported.

C. The requests library is not installed.

D. The requests coming into stdin fail because device_ip cannot be parsed.

Check answer

New Question 6:

Which two actions help limit the attack surface of your Docker container? (Choose two.)

A. Run only a single service in each container.

B. Run all services in a single image.

C. Use version tags for base images and dependencies.

D. Use Kali Linux as a base image.

E. Download images over HTTPS supporting sites.

Check answer

New Question 7:

A DevOps engineer has built a container to host a web server and it must run as an executable. Which command must be configured in a Dockerfile to accomplish this goal?

A. ENTRYPOINT

B. ENTRYPOINT [“/usr/sbin/apache2ctl”, “-D”, “FOREGROUND”]

C. ENTRYPOINT [“BACKGROUND”, “-D”, “/usr/sbin/apache2ctl”]

D. ENTRYPOINT {usr/sbin/apache2ctl}

Check answer

New Question 8:

A company has experienced serious growth and the hosted applications are getting more and more hits. Based on the increased workload, applications have started to show signs of reduced performance, which is affecting the user experience.

Which two server metrics should be tracked to ensure that the customer experience remains within acceptable limits? (Choose two.)

A. application feature sprawl

B. CPU peak usage

C. CPU average usage

D. microservices count

E. CPU frequency

Check answer

New Question 9:
cisco 300-910 exam questions 9

Refer to the exhibit. What is the reason for this error message?

A. The required dependencies for the urllib3 module are not installed.

B. The requests module is not installed.

C. The required dependencies for the requests module are not installed.

D. The site-packages directory has been corrupted.

Check answer

New Question 10:
cisco 300-910 exam questions 10

Refer to the exhibit. What is the user doing with Drone in this automated test?

A. testing Alpine Linux versus Ubuntu Linux

B. testing a PostgreSQL DB against multiple architectures

C. testing only the amd64 architecture

D. testing PostgreSQL deployment in an Alpine Linux VM

Check answer

New Question 11:

An interface on a router as a Layer 3 link has been configured to another device by updating an Ansible playbook that is executed via a CI/CD pipeline. The Ansible playbook was written to push the configuration change using the ios_config module.

Which automated test validates that the interface is functioning as it should?

A. Add a pipeline step that runs the playbook a second type. If it does not modify the device on the second run, then the interface is correctly configured.

B. Automated testing is already built in because the playbook execution is successful only after Ansible validates that it applied the change.

C. Add a pipeline step that captures and parses the packet flow for the interface.

D. Add a pipeline step that captures and parses the show IP interface output so that the operational state can be referenced.

Check answer

New Question 12:

Which two characteristics of a build tool that is used in an automated build pipeline? (Choose two.)

A. It runs unit tests against code that is committed.

B. It builds your software in the production environment.

C. It builds your software when changes are committed.

D. It builds your software every 500 milliseconds.

E. It must have a plug-in for Puppet and Maven.

Check answer

New Question 13:
cisco 300-910 exam questions 13

Refer to the exhibit. A developer needs to scale the existing pods within the worked nodes. Which object should be edited to achieve this goal?

A. ReplicaSet

B. PriorityClass

C. Deployment

D. Pod

Check answer

New Question 14:

When static routes are added to a router in a network using a CI/CD pipeline, an Ansible playbook is used to make these changes. Which steps must be added to the pipeline to validate that the changes have the intended effect on the traffic flow?

A. Add a step to run the debug IP routing command before the change, and add a step after the change to issue the no debug IP routing command.

B. Add a step to capture the routing table before the change, and add a step after the change to capture it again. Calculate the difference between the two for review.

C. Add a step to ping a host on each of the static routes before the change, and a step after to repeat the same check. Calculate the difference between the two checks for review.

D. Add a step to run the same playbook again with the debug option enabled and use grep on the log output to ensure that the commands are not applied again.

Check answer

New Question 15:

A DevOps engineer is supporting a containerized application with multiple components running across the Kubernetes cluster. Metrics from the container (CPU and memory) and application (requests per second and heap size) are being collected by Prometheus and displayed with Grafana. Users report transaction timeout problems with the application, but the metric graphs all look within normal levels.

Which type of failure would prevent the engineer from seeing the problem using the captured metrics?

A. Grafana has lost connectivity to Prometheus, which causes graphs to display only the cached data.

B. CPU and memory metrics from Kubernetes nodes are not accurate due to the way that containers share resources.

C. Some containers are crashing regularly and being restarted automatically by Kubernetes.

D. The metric beat agent has crashed and is no longer sending new data to Prometheus, so the metrics are not updating.

Check answer

Verify answer:

Numbers:Q1Q2Q3Q4Q5Q6Q7Q8Q9Q10Q11Q12Q13Q14Q15
Answers:ADADBCEBBCBDBACABD

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Cisco 200-901 dumps: serves all 200-901 DEVASC exam candidates

Cisco 200-901 dumps

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https://drive.google.com/file/d/1hqDUcvc1vHJMiDa15KhDD1Jjp3q8j0hA/

Share the latest Cisco 200-901 dumps exam questions and answers for free

New Question 1:

How does requesting a synchronous API operation differ from requesting an asynchronous API operation?

A. clients receive responses with a task id for further processing

B. clients subscribe to a webhook for operation results

C. clients poll for the status of the execution of operations

D. clients can access the results immediately

Correct Answer: C


New Question 2:

What are two advantages of YANG-based approaches for infrastructure automation? (Choose two.)

A. multi-platform vendor abstraction

B. compiles to executables that run on network devices

C. designed to reflect networking concepts

D. directly maps to JavaScript

E. command line driven interface

Correct Answer: AC


New Question 3:

Which device is used to transport traffic from one broadcast domain to another broadcast domain?

A. layer 2 switch

B. proxy server

C. router

D. load balancer

Correct Answer: C


New Question 4:

Which service provides a directory lookup for IP addresses and host names?

A. DNS

B. NAT

C. SNMP

D. DHCP

Correct Answer: A


New Question 5:

Users cannot access a webserver and after the traffic is captured, the capture tool shows an ICMP packet that reports “time exceeded in-transit”. What is the cause of this webserver access issue?

A. A router along the path has the wrong time.

B. A router along the path is misrouting the packets in the wrong direction.

C. The server is too loaded and the connection could not be handled in time.

D. The server is too far away and the packets require too much time to reach it.

Correct Answer: B


New Question 6:

What is used in Layer 2 switches to direct packet transmission to the intended recipient?

A. MAC address

B. IPv6 address

C. spanning tree D. IPv4 address

Correct Answer: A


New Question 7:

Users cannot access a webserver and after the traffic is captured, the capture tool shows an ICMP packet that reports “communication administratively prohibited”. What is the cause of this webserver access issue?

A. An access list along the path is blocking the traffic.

B. Users must authenticate on the webserver to access it.

C. A router along the path is overloaded and thus dropping traffic.

D. The traffic is not allowed to be translated with NAT and dropped.

Correct Answer: A


New Question 8:

What is an advantage of a version control system?

A. facilitates resolving conflicts when merging code

B. ensures that unit tests are written

C. prevents over-writing code or configuration files

D. forces the practice of trunk-based development

Correct Answer: A


New Question 9:

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the result of executing this Ansible playbook?

A. The playbook copies a new start-up configuration to CISCO_ROUTER_01

B. The playbook copies a new running configuration to CISCO_ROUTER_01

C. The playbook backs up the running configuration of CISCO_ROUTER_01

D. The playbook backs up the start-up configuration of CISCO_ROUTER_01

Correct Answer: D


New Question 10:

A 401 HTTP response code is returned when calling a REST API. What is the error state identified by this response code?

A. The server cannot process the request as it has detected an issue in the request syntax or body.

B. The request has not been accepted because it requires authentication.

C. The sever accepted the request but the client is not authorized for this content.

D. The server cannot find the requested resource because the path specified is incorrect.

Correct Answer: B


New Question 11:

What is the first development task in test-driven development?

A. Write code that implements a desired function.

B. Write a failing test case for a desired function.

C. Reverse engineer the code for a desired function.

D. Write a passing test case for existing code.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://technologyconversations.com/2013/12/20/test-driven-development-tdd-example- walkthrough/


New Question 12:

What is the purpose of a firewall in application deployment?

A. adds TLS support to an application that does not support it natively

B. limits traffic to only ports required by the application

C. provides translation for an application\’s hostname to its IP address

D. forwards traffic to a pool of instances of the application

Correct Answer: B


New Question 13:

A small company has 5 servers and 50 clients. What are two reasons an engineer should split this network into separate client and server subnets? (Choose two.)

A. Subnets will split domains to limit failures.

B. A router will limit the traffic types between the clients and servers.

C. Subnets provide more IP address space for clients and servers.

D. A router will bridge the traffic between clients and servers.

E. Internet access to the servers will be denied on the router.

Correct Answer: AB


New Question 14:

How does a developer create and switch to a new branch called “my-bug-fix” to develop a product fix?

A. git checkout -b my-bug-fix

B. git branch -b my-bug-fix

C. git branch my-bug-fix

D. git checkout my-bug-fix

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.dnnsoftware.com/community-blog/cid/155105


New Question 15:

What operation is performed with YANG model-driven programmability in NX-OS?

A. configure a device with native and OpenConfig-based models

B. bootstrap a device that has a factory-default configuration

C. send CLI commands to a device and retrieve output in JSON format

D. run Linux commands natively on the device

Correct Answer: A

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[Updated 2022]Cisco CCT Data Center 010-151 exam dumps best resources, easily pass 010-151 exam

Where do I get the Cisco 010-151 exam questions? ExamineeVeryThing shares the latest and most effective Cisco CCT Data Center 010-151 exam questions and answers, online practice tests, and the most authoritative Cisco exam experts update 010-151 exam questions throughout the year.
Get the full 010-151 exam dumps selection: https://www.lead4pass.com/010-151.html (72 Q&As)[Updated 2022 Total Questions: 136 Q&A]. Pass the exam with ease!

Cisco 010-151 Exam Video

Table of Contents:

Latest Cisco CCT Data Center 010-151 google drive

[PDF] Free Cisco 010-151 pdf dumps download from Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1q-BVVW4uYdXXeS_wL1gZQPx3m3tYgvEV

010-151 DCTECH – Cisco:https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/dctech.html

The Cisco Certified Technician (CCT) for Data Center validates a technician’s competency in the following areas;

  • Basic Cisco NX-OS configuration
  • Cisco Data Center products and hardware components with an emphasis on the Cisco Unified Computing System (UCS).

The curriculum covers remedial services (HW break-fix) on Cisco Data Center products, including hardware replacement, software, and configuration backup and restores, check the safety and environmental requirement, recognize connection type and cable requirement,
and perform basic physical layer troubleshooting. The Cisco Certified Technician (CCT) should be competent in the following areas;
basic Cisco NX-OS configuration, Cisco Data Center products, and hardware components.

The Cisco Certified Technician should be able to perform remedial services (HW break-fix) on Cisco Data Center products, including software and configuration backup and restore, check the safety and environmental requirement, recognize connection type and cable requirement, and perform basic physical layer troubleshooting.

[Updated 2022] 010-151 Dumps exam questions and answers

Question 1:

Which method does FCIP use to enable connectivity of geographically distributed Fibre Channel SANs over IP?

A. routing

B. tunneling

C. handshaking

D. transporting

Correct Answer: B

Question 2:

Which fiber optic cable type is used most often with a Subscriber connector?

A. dual-mode

B. single-mode

C. straight-mode

D. multi-mode

E. subscriber-mode

Correct Answer: B

Question 3:

Which type of connection across the network does a SAN allow for multiple servers to access an unlimited amount of storage devices?

A. any-to-many

B. many-to-any

C. any-to-any

D. any-to-one

E. one-to-any

F. one-to-one

Correct Answer: C

Question 4:

Which two statements about PCIe are true? (Choose two.)

A. The PCIe link is built around dedicated unidirectional couples of serial, point-to-point connections known as lanes.

B. You can install a PCI Express x8 adapter into an x4 slot.

C. The PCIe standard is a bus-based system in which all the devices share the same bidirectional, 32-bit or 64-bit, parallel signal path.

D. The PCIe 1.0 standard doubles the transfer rate compared to PCIe 2.0.

E. A link that is composed of four lanes is called an x4 link.

Correct Answer: AE

Question 5:

Where do you find the model number of a Cisco MDS 9200 Series chassis?

A. on the top front of the chassis next to the serial number

B. on the bottom front of the chassis next to the Cisco logo

C. on the top front of the chassis next to the Cisco logo

D. on the bottom front of the chassis next to the serial number

Correct Answer: C

[Updated 2022] Get more Cisco 010-151 exam questions and answers

Latest updates Cisco 010-151 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
What is the maximum number of supervisor modules that the Cisco MDS 9710 Switch supports?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6
E. 8
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which two statements about DIMM replacement in Cisco UCS Servers are true? (Choose two.)
A. In blade servers, DIMMs can be installed in either 1, 2, 4, or 8 DIMMs per channel.
B. Rack-mount and blade servers have memory fault LEDs that indicate which DIMM requires attention.
C. In servers that require pairs of DIMMs, the pairs must be identical (manufacturer, size, part #, and so on).
D. If the memory in a server is not fully populated, you can install DIMMs in any open slot.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 3
Which two statements about the Ethernet media are true? (Choose two.)
A. A twisted-pair cable system has each pair of wires twisted together to reduce electromagnetic interference.
B. Compared to multimode fiber, the single-mode fiber is designed for shorter distances with higher cost.
C. 40 Gigabit Ethernet twinax cables deploy Enhanced Quad Small Form Factor Pluggable (QSFP+) connectors.
D. The twinax cables can be found in either a shielded twisted-pair or an unshielded twisted-pair variation.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 4
Which Cisco NX-OS command displays kernel uptime?
A. show module
B. show version
C. show license
D. show boot
E. show interface
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which command-line interface mode is best described by this prompt?
UCS-switch-A (nxos)#
A. maintenance mode
B. EXEC mode
C. local management mode
D. global configuration mode
E. Cisco IOS mode
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
What is the maximum distance that the 40GBASE-LR4 Ethernet standard can span?
A. 550 m
B. 10 km
C. 40 km
D. 80 km
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 010-151 exam question q7

Where is the best place to see the power supply status of the blade server enclosure?
A. A – Chassis 1
B. B – Chassis 1 – PSUs
C. C – Chassis1 – Servers
D. D – Rack-Mounts – Servers
E. E – Fabric Interconnects A – PSUs
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which Cisco Nexus 5000 Series model supports 1/10G BASE-T ports?
A. Cisco Nexus 5548P
B. Cisco Nexus 5548UP
C. Cisco Nexus 5596UP
D. Cisco Nexus 5596T
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which two statements about the Cisco Nexus 5596UP switch are true? (Choose two.)
A. Its power supplies and fan trays are hot-swappable.
B. It supports unified ports.
C. It is offered in a one-rack-unit form factor.
D. It has one expansion slot.
E. It supports up to 96 10G BASE-T ports.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 010-151 exam question q10

Which Cisco MDS chassis supports the 48-Port 16-Gbps Fibre Channel Switching Module?
A. MDS 9509
B. MDS 9513
C. MDS 9710
D. MDS 9506
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
The Ethernet specification details several different fiber optic media types. What is the wire transmission speed for
100BASE-FX Ethernet?
A. 10 Mb/s
B. 100 Mb/s
C. 1000 Mb/s
D. 10000 Mb/s
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which device provides analysis of Fibre Channel traffic without any network disruption?
A. Cisco MDS 9000 Data Analyzer Adapter
B. Cisco MDS 9000 Port Analyzer Adapter
C. Cisco MDS 9000 Channel Analyzer Device
D. Cisco MDS 9000 Channel Analyzer Adapter
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which action should the administrator take before physically removing a blade server for maintenance or replacement?
A. Force the server to shut down.
B. Disassociate the service profile.
C. Decommission the server.
D. Perform a graceful shutdown of the server.
Correct Answer: C

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Pass the 300-920 DEVWBX exam using the 300-920 dumps

Use the 300-920 Dumps as your preparation plan to help you pass the 300-920 DEVWBX exam with ease.

Lead4Pass 300-920 dumps https://www.lead4pass.com/300-920.html, contains 60 newly updated exam questions and answers. You can go to the 300-920 dumps page to use PDF or VCE study tools to help you Easy Learning 300-920 DEVWBX Exam core content to help you successfully pass the 300-920 DEVWBX exam on your first attempt.
The 300-920 dumps questions are reviewed by Cisco subject matter experts, are authentic, and have a 99.1% exam pass rate, ensuring you pass the 300-920 DEVWBX exam with ease.

300-920 DEVWBX exam details you must know:

Vendor: Cisco
Exam Code: 300-920
Exam Name: Developing Applications for Cisco Webex and Webex Devices (DEVWBX)
Certification: Cisco Certified DevNet Professional
Duration: 90 minutes
Languages: English
Price: $300 USD

Experience a portion of 300-920 Free Dumps online:

QUESTION 1:

DRAG-DROP
Drag and drop the code to complete the JavaScript snippet so that it:
1.
retrieves the details of an individual user
2.
checks what licenses they have already
3.
updates their account with a new license Options can be used more than once.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 2:

DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the definitions from the left onto the correct Webex Teams REST API HTTP response status codes on the right.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Reference: https://developer.webex.com/docs/api/basics

QUESTION 3:

A company wants to adopt Webex Teams as a messaging platform and use REST APIs to automate the creation of teams and rooms. Which sequence of REST API requests is needed to create and populate a new Webex team and create a populated Webex room for the team?

A. POST /teams, POST /memberships, POST /rooms
B. POST /teams, POST /people, POST /rooms
C. POST /teams, POST /team/memberships, POST /rooms
D. POST /teams, POST /team/memberships, POST /rooms, POST /memberships

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://developer.webex.com/docs/api/basics

QUESTION 4:

Refer to the exhibit. A macro and a UI extension (also called In-Room Control) are being developed. What is the reason for the error displayed in the console?

A. Widgets of type “Slider” are not supported on the device.
B. The UI extension was not exported to the device.
C. The name of the widget in the macro and the UI extension must match.
D. Promises are not supported for this device.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/telepresence/endpoint/ce99/webex-board-administrator-guide-ce99.pdf

QUESTION 5:

Refer to the exhibit. Which code for blank lines 26, 27, and 28 gives invitees 900 seconds before the scheduled time to join the meeting, sets the meeting to last for 30 minutes, and sets the meeting timezone to Pacific US?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://github.com/cisco-ie/webex-api-client

QUESTION 6:

Which XML snippet does an admin use with a Webex Meetings XML API request to retrieve info on multiple users?

A. .*
B. .*
C.
D.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://developer.cisco.com/docs/webex-xml-api-reference-guide/#!getuser

QUESTION 7:

Which code adds a Space Widget in an HTML script that uses the CSS Webex CDN?

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://developer.webex.com/docs/widgets

QUESTION 8:

Refer to the exhibit. An end-user reports that the speed dial button is not working on their Webex Device, and when loading into the Macro Editor, this error was presented. On which line is the incorrect syntax?

A. line 4
B. line 14
C. line 15
D. line 22

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://community.cisco.com/t5/telepresence-and-video/ce9-2-1-macro-framework-discussions/td-p/3220093

QUESTION 9:

DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the code snippets onto the exhibit to create a valid Webex Meetings API request allowing Jane (an admin) to reset John\’s PMR pin. Not all options are used.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 10:

Which expression is a valid Webex Teams webhook filter?

A. [email protected]+roomId=abc123
B. [email protected]=abc123
C. [email protected]=abc123
D. [email protected],roomId=abc123

Correct Answer: C

You can also use more than one filter in a webhook. To use multiple filters, combine them with the “and” symbol. For example, to create a webhook that only sends notifications when a specific person performs an action in a specific room, such as sending a message or creating a membership, combine the personEmail and roomId filters.

Reference: https://developer.webex.com/docs/api/guides/webhooks

QUESTION 11:

Which two statements about Webex Teams refresh tokens are true? (Choose two.)

A. The refresh token is useless without the client ID and client secret.
B. An attacker can use the refresh token to send messages on behalf of the user.
C. The refresh token is used to generate a new access token.
D. A new refresh token cannot be granted until the client ID is invalidated.
E. The refresh token does not expire.

Correct Answer: BC

Reference: https://auth0.com/learn/refresh-tokens/

QUESTION 12:

Refer to the exhibit. The Node.js script shown uses the Webex Meetings XML API to print “Here!” to the console.

Which statement is a correct observation about the results of the script?

A. The was not complex enough.
B. The credential was expired.
C. The WebexMeetings XML API service processed the request.
D. The meeting was created successfully.

Correct Answer: C

The password, although not that good, has a capital letter and numbers. Therefore, it is okay. SessionTicket credential is not expired because the error function doesn\’t check that. We are not sure if the meeting was created successfully however, there is no wrong in the code, therefore, webexmeetings XML API service has processed the request.

QUESTION 13:

Refer to the exhibit. A Webex Teams REST API response is shown with the HTTP Header missing. Which HTTP header expected in this response?

A. Push
B. Link
C. Patch
D. Put

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://developer-portal-intb.ciscospark.com/docs/api/basics

……

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300-610 dumps update | Cisco 300-610 DCID exam material

300-610 dumps have been updated to be the real material for the Cisco 300-610 DCID exam, one of the most popular exams in Cisco today.

The newly updated 300-610 dumps file contains 145 exam questions and answers, you can study the Cisco 300-610 DCID exam material using the PDF files provided on the page and any of the study tools of the VCE exam engine, To help you pass the exam successfully. Use the 300-610 dumps address provided on this site: https://www.lead4pass.com/300-610.html, complete your Cisco 300-610 DCID exam, and guarantee your first attempt to pass successfully take an exam.

300-610 DCID Exam Tips:

Whether you’re a novice or a candidate, next I’ll share more information you need to know before taking the Cisco 300-610 DCID exam, because it’s important.

300-610 is the Designing Cisco Data Center Infrastructure exam code, and DCID is the Designing Cisco Data Center Infrastructure exam shortened name, the following will show more exam details:

Vendor: Cisco
Exam Code: 300-610
Exam Name: Designing Cisco Data Center Infrastructure (DCID)
Certification: CCNP Data Center
Duration: 90 minutes
Languages: English
Price: $300 USD
300-610 DCID Exam Core: Network, Compute, Storage network, Automation
Schedule an exam: In-person, Online(Pearson VUE)

How to Qualify for CCNP Data Center:

Above I have provided the 300-610 dumps download address, you can use our recommendations to help you succeed in the Cisco 300-610 DCID exam. If you want to qualify for the CCNP data center, you need to pass two exams: the core exam and The data center of your choice concentrates the exam.
You can understand everything with the pictures below.

The Cisco 300-610 DCID exam is one of the data center intensive exams that focus on emerging and industry-specific topics. So you can choose whatever industry-specific topics you want.

But to qualify for the CCNP Data Center, the core exam is required, and there is only one option, the 350-601 DCCOR exam. I can’t stop stressing the importance of the 350-601 DCCOR exam material as well.
Click here to get it. (Hint: Passing the core exam will qualify candidates to schedule and participate in CCIE labs during the validity period of their core exam)

Read some Cisco 300-610 DCID exam questions and answers online:

QUESTION 1:

What are two functions of a Network Services Orchestrator in an NFV environment? (Choose two.)

A. It operates at the resource-facing services layer and provides overall lifecycle management at the network service level.

B. It provides an API-based northbound interface for transparent integration with systems that operate at the resource-facing services layer.

C. It provides a standards-based southbound interface for transparent integration with systems that operate at the customer-facing services layer.

D. It provides a standards-based northbound interface for transparent integration with systems that operate at the customer-facing services layer.

E. It operates at the customer-facing services layer and provides the management interface for the virtual network devices.

Correct Answer: AB

Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/net_mgmt/msx/3_4/solution_overview/Cisco_VMS_Sol_Overview.pdf

QUESTION 2:

DRAG-DROP
Drag and drop the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch resources from the left onto the correct groups on the right.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/nx-os/virtual_device_context/configuration/guide/b-7k-Cisco-Nexus-7000-Series-NX-OS-Virtual-Device-Context-Configuration-Guide/creating-vdc.html

QUESTION 3:

What can be implemented on Cisco Nexus 5600 Series Switches for link redundancy within a Fibre Channel fabric?

A. vPC+
B. E-Trunk
C. SAN port-channel
D. LACP port-channel

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4:

After experiencing traffic disruptions from the failure of a single router, a customer asks an engineer to design a solution that will prevent this from occurring in the future.

While examining the customer\’s environment, the engineer discovers that the routers are manufactured by a variety of different vendors, and they have varying amounts of CPU and memory resources. Additionally, several of the customer\’s applications require the ability to fine-tune the load-balancing parameters between multiple gateway routers.

Which solution should be used to meet these requirements?

A. VRRP
B. FHRP
C. HSRP
D. GLBP

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5:

Where does Cisco UCS handle Fibre Channel traffic failover?

A. on a Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect ASIC in Fibre Channel switching mode
B. on the host, by using multipathing software
C. in the hardware on the Cisco UCS VIC 12xx adapter or later
D. in the hardware on any Cisco UCS VIC adapter

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/data-center-virtualization/unified-
computing/whitepaper_c11-701962.html

QUESTION 6:

A network engineer must design a data center network with four Cisco Nexus 7706 switches. The switches will be installed in primary and secondary data centers in vPC domains. The two data centers must be connected via Layer 2 links and provide the maximum throughput, and redundancy, and avoid port-blocking spanning-tree design.

Which deployment model meets these requirements?

A. dual-sided single vPC
B. single-sided dual vPC
C. dual-sided dual vPC
D. single-sided single vPC

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7:

An engineer designs a Cisco UCS solution that must provide guaranteed and deterministic bandwidth to a specific server in the environment. The solution must apply to the network and storage traffic of C-Series and B-Series servers.

Which solution should be included to meet these requirements?

A. Pin the vNICs and the vHBAs of the service profile to dedicated uplink ports.
B. Pin the IOM ports of the service profile to dedicated server ports.
C. Pin the server ports of the service profile to dedicated uplink ports.
D. Pin the vNICs and vHBAs of the service profile to dedicated server ports.

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/global/en_uk/products/servers-unified-
computing/CiscoUCSSolutionOverviewUKIWeb.pdf

QUESTION 8:

What is the disadvantage of asynchronous storage replication as compared to synchronous storage replication in a disaster recovery design?

A. reduction in application performance
B. distance limitations
C. specific backup requirements
D. potential data loss

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.evidian.com/products/high-availability-software-for-application-clustering/synchronous-replication-vs-asynchronous-replication/

QUESTION 9:

An engineer must choose the World Wide Port Name for the Cisco UCS Fibre Channel virtual host bus adapter. Which identifier must be used?

A. naa.600a09840691712159764d
B. fe80::314e:4566:8702:bf3d
C. iqn.2021-08.com.acme:3xxx
D. 20:00:00:25:B5:97:c3:ac

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10:

A database administrator experiences delay when performing storage replication between primary and secondary data centers. The data centers are located 20 kilometers apart and are connected using a 500 Mbps link. The deployment was implemented using an FCIP tunnel and a pair of Cisco MDS 9250 Series Switches. The network engineer decided to enable QoS to prioritize replication traffic. Which QoS model must be used to resolve the performance issues?

A. Resource Reservation Protocol
B. weighted round-robin
C. differentiated services
D. strict priority queuing

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11:

A network consultant must design a high availability interconnection of a clustered Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect toward two upstream Layer 2 switches. The Ethernet interconnection must use all redundant links and have no impact on the STP domain size.

Which connectivity solution must be used?

A. Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect in switch mode with dual uplinks distributed evenly to the upstream switches

B. Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect in switch mode with a single uplink toward each upstream switch to eliminate any change to the STP domain size

C. Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect in end-host mode with a single uplink toward each upstream switch to eliminate any change to the STP domain size

D. Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect in end-host mode with dual uplinks distributed evenly to the upstream switches

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12:

Which technology enables Layer 2 extension between remote data center sites?

A. FCIP
B. GRE
C. DMVPN
D. OTV

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://netcraftsmen.com/spanning-layer-2-between-data-centers/

QUESTION 13:

An engineer must use OTV for Layer 2 connectivity between data centers to support virtual machine mobility between the customer sites. To support this requirement, the engineer must ensure the existence of the same default gateway on both sites. Additionally, the operations team reports high bandwidth utilization on site A and wants to optimize the outbound traffic flows to use a local DC exit point.

Which feature must be used to meet these requirements?

A. data group
B. FHRP filter
C. ARP filter
D. control group

Correct Answer: D

……

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The answer is obtained at the end of the article

QUESTION 1

cisco 300-915 exam questions q1

Refer to the exhibit. The code snippet provides information about the packet captures within a network.
How can the most used source IP addresses within a specific time be visualized?

A. line graph
B. bar histogram
C. scatter plot
D. heatmap

 

QUESTION 2

Which connector is southbound?

A. horizontal connector
B. cloud connector
C. device connector
D. universal connector

 

QUESTION 3

How does the Cisco router (IR) and switch (IE) portfolio support edge data services?

A. Edge data services can be run and managed as containers using Cisco IOx.
B. Edge data services can run only in virtual machines on a separate compute layer.
C. Edge data services are aliases for IR/IE configuration services.
D. Edge data services run as separate instances only on virtual machines.

 

QUESTION 4

A customer is deploying sensors with Cisco IR829 routers in moving trucks to continuously monitor the health of
engines using a cloud application.
Which data extraction and processing strategy is best suited in this environment?

A. No need to store data locally, upload in real time to the cloud for processing.
B. Generate local alerts and create reports at the edge, and upload to the cloud at the end of the day.
C. Use the store and forward mechanism to upload the information at the earliest to cloud.
D. Ensure that data is stored for a longer duration locally and upload to the cloud every week.

 

QUESTION 5

cisco 300-915 exam questions q5

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. That is a heatmap projected on top of a geographic map.
B. That is a treemap projected on top of a geographic map.
C. The color red usually stands for lower values and the color blue usually stands for higher values.
D. Another suitable visualization technique for this image would be line graphs.
E. The color blue usually stands for lower values and the color red usually stands for higher values.

 

QUESTION 6

What are two functionalities of edge data services? (Choose two.)

A. creating a machine learning data model
B. supporting many interfaces and APIs
C. applying advanced data analytics
D. filtering, normalizing and aggregating data
E. saving data for a prolonged time period

 

QUESTION 7

A company is collecting data from several thousand machines globally. Which software component in the overall
architecture is the next destination of the dataflow after the data has been gathered and normalized on the edge data
software?

A. relational database: MySQL
B. historian database: influxDB
C. message broker: Apache Kafka
D. dashboard: Node.js web app

 

QUESTION 8

cisco 300-915 exam questions q8

Refer to the exhibit. Approximately 4000 oil platforms, each with 400 sensors, are spread in the Gulf of Mexico and all of their data must come together into one dashboard. Which general architecture should be selected to connect them?
A. 4-tier: sensor ?edge device (Intel Atom CPU) ?fog device (Intel Xeon CPU) ?cloud
B. 5-tier: intelligent sensor?edge device (Intel Atom CPU) ?fog device (Intel Xeon CPU) ?edge data center (Intel Xeon
CPU)
C. 2-tier: intelligent sensor ?cloud
D. 3-tier: sensor ?edge device (Intel Atom CPU) ?cloud

Reference: https://www.itu.int/en/ITU-D/RegionalPresence/Africa/Documents/Internet%20of%20Things%20-%20Cisco%27s%20Vision%20and%20Approach.pdf

 

QUESTION 9

Which element ensures that PKI is used to establish the identity of IoT devices?

A. unique device identifier
B. encryption key
C. air gap
D. hashed routes

 

QUESTION 10

After an application is deployed, potential issues arise around connectivity. As part of the troubleshooting process, the
IP address must be determined to ensure end-to-end communication.
Which method provides the required details using the Cisco IOx CLI?

A. ioxclient application status
B. ioxclient application metrics
C. ioxclient application getconfig
D. ioxclient application info

 

QUESTION 11

As part of an IoT project, an organization is developing an application that will share multiple clients using a REST API.
Based on the software development process, what are two valid technical activities that can be suggested to secure the
REST API that is developed during the development of the software? (Choose two.)

A. Respond to request failures in detail to allow users for easier troubleshooting.
B. Implement HTTP whitelisting to only methods that are allowed.
C. Implement and review audit logs for security-related events.
D. Reject HTTP methods that are invalid with an error code 404.
E. Implement physical firewalling and access control to the resources.

 

QUESTION 12

When constructing a Python script for data extraction using GMM APIs on a Cisco Kinetic Cloud platform, how should
the API authentication be implemented?

A. Generate the API keys once and edit the permissions as needed.
B. Generate and use the API keys for the required access level from the Kinetic Cloud application.
C. Use a complex username and password with 128-bit encryption.
D. Use a complex username with an auto-generated password from the Kinetic Cloud application.

 

QUESTION 13

cisco 300-915 exam questions q13

Refer to the exhibit. The code and the error message that are received when the code is run is presented.
What causes issues authenticating with Cisco GMM API using the web-generated API key?

A. firewall that blocks authentication ports
B. incorrect username and password
C. incorrect GMM Cluster selection
D. incorrect key size and data encryption

 

QUESTION 14

DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the Dockerfile instructions from the left onto the correct arguments on the right.
Select and Place:

cisco 300-915 exam questions q14

Correct Answer:

cisco 300-915 exam questions q14-1

 

QUESTION 15

As part of an IoT project, an organization is developing an edge application that will run on a gateway to securely
transmit sensor information it receives into an IoT cloud. Based on the Agile software development lifecycle, the
development team is planning to implement a CI/CD pipeline.
Which two methods should be suggested to make the software development lifecycle more secure during the
implementation and testing? (Choose two.)

A. Perform automated code reviews prior to deployment.
B. Implement auto-provisioning security inspection for the code.
C. Perform on-going penetration testing on the system.
D. Perform a GAP analysis on current security activities and policies.
E. Train members of the team in a secure software development lifecycle methodology such as OWASP.

Verify answer:

Q1Q2Q3Q4Q5Q6Q7Q8Q9Q10Q11Q12Q13Q14Q15
BCCBAEDEBBADBDBBIMAGEDE

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Here: Share free Cisco 300-215 exam practice questions

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QUESTION 1

What is the goal of an incident response plan?

A. to identify critical systems and resources in an organization

B. to ensure systems are in place to prevent an attack

C. to determine security weaknesses and recommend solutions

D. to contain an attack and prevent it from spreading

Reference: https://www.forcepoint.com/cyber-edu/incident-response

QUESTION 2

cisco 300-215 exam questions q2

Refer to the exhibit. Which two determinations should be made about the attack from the Apache access logs? (Choose two.)

A. The attacker used r57 exploit to elevate their privilege.

B. The attacker uploaded the word press file manager trojan.

C. The attacker performed a brute force attack against word press and used SQL injection against the backend
database.

D. The attacker used the word press file manager plugin to upload r57.php.

E. The attacker logged on normally to word press admin page.

QUESTION 3

cisco 300-215 exam questions q3

Refer to the exhibit. A company that uses only the Unix platform implemented an intrusion detection system. After the
initial configuration, the number of alerts is overwhelming, and an engineer needs to analyze and classify the alerts. The highest number of alerts were generated from the signature shown in the exhibit. Which classification should the
engineer assign to this event?

A. True Negative alert

B. False Negative alert

C. False Positive alert

D. True Positive alert

QUESTION 4

A threat actor attempts to avoid detection by turning data into a code that shifts numbers to the right four times. Which anti-forensics technique is being used?

A. encryption

B. tunneling

C. obfuscation

D. poisoning

Reference: https://www.vadesecure.com/en/malware-analysis-understanding-code-obfuscationtechniques/#:~:text=Obfuscation%20of%20character%20strings%20is,data%20when%20the%20code%20executes.

QUESTION 5

DRAG-DROP
Drag and drop the capabilities on the left onto the Cisco security solutions on the right.
Select and Place:

cisco 300-215 exam questions q5

Correct Answer:

cisco 300-215 exam questions q5-1

QUESTION 6

An engineer is investigating a ticket from the accounting department in which a user discovered an unexpected
application on their workstation. Several alerts are seen from the intrusion detection system of unknown outgoing
internet traffic from this workstation. The engineer also notices a degraded processing capability, which complicates the analysis process. Which two actions should the engineer take? (Choose two.)

A. Restore to a system recovery point.

B. Replace the faulty CPU.

C. Disconnect from the network.

D. Format the workstation drives.

E. Take an image of the workstation.

QUESTION 7

An incident response team is recommending changes after analyzing a recent compromise in which:
a large number of events and logs were involved;
team members were not able to identify the anomalous behavior and escalate it in a timely manner;
several network systems were affected as a result of the latency in detection;
security engineers were able to mitigate the threat and bring systems back to a stable state; and
the issue reoccurred shortly after and systems became unstable again because the correct information was not
gathered during the initial identification phase.

Which two recommendations should be made for improving the incident response process? (Choose two.)

A. Formalize reporting requirements and responsibilities to update management and internal stakeholders throughout
the incident-handling process effectively.

B. Improve the mitigation phase to ensure causes can be quickly identified, and systems returned to a functioning state.

C. Implement an automated operation to pull systems events/logs and bring them into an organizational context.

D. Allocate additional resources for the containment phase to stabilize systems in a timely manner and reduce an
attack\’s breadth.

E. Modify the incident handling playbook and checklist to ensure alignment and agreement on roles, responsibilities,
and steps before an incident occurs.

QUESTION 8

A network host is infected with malware by an attacker who uses the host to make calls for files and shuttle traffic to
bots. This attack went undetected and resulted in a significant loss. The organization wants to ensure this does not
happen in the future and needs a security solution that will generate alerts when command and control communication from an infected device is detected. Which network security solution should be recommended?

A. Cisco Secure Firewall ASA

B. Cisco Secure Firewall Threat Defense (Firepower)

C. Cisco Secure Email Gateway (ESA)

D. Cisco Secure Web Appliance (WSA)

QUESTION 9

An attacker embedded a macro within a word processing file opened by a user in an organization\’s legal department.
The attacker used this technique to gain access to confidential financial data. Which two recommendations should a
security expert make to mitigate this type of attack? (Choose two.)

A. controlled folder access

B. removable device restrictions

C. signed macro requirements

D. firewall rules creation

E. network access control

QUESTION 10

cisco 300-215 exam questions q10

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is analyzing a TCP stream in a Wireshark after a suspicious email with a URL. What
should be determined about the SMB traffic from this stream?

A. It is redirecting to a malicious phishing website,

B. It is exploiting redirect vulnerability

C. It is requesting authentication on the user site

D. It is sharing access to files and printers.

QUESTION 11

Over the last year, an organization\’s HR department has accessed data from its legal department on the last day of
each month to create a monthly activity report. An engineer is analyzing suspicious activity alerted by a threat
intelligence platform that an authorized user in the HR department has accessed legal data daily for the last week. The
engineer pulled the network data from the legal department\’s shared folders and discovered above average-size data
dumps. Which threat actor is implied from these artifacts?

A. privilege escalation

B. internal user errors

C. malicious insider

D. external exfiltration

QUESTION 12

cisco 300-215 exam questions q12

Refer to the exhibit. According to the SNORT alert, what is the attacker performing?

A. brute-force attack against the web application user accounts

B. XSS attack against the target webserver

C. brute-force attack against directories and files on the target webserver

D. SQL injection attack against the target webserver

QUESTION 13

cisco 300-215 exam questions q13

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is analyzing a . LNK (shortcut) file recently received as an email attachment and
blocked by email security as suspicious. What is the next step an engineer should take?

A. Delete the suspicious email with the attachment as the file is a shortcut extension and does not represent any threat.

B. Upload the file to a virus checking engine to compare with well-known viruses as the file is a virus disguised as a
legitimate extension.

C. Quarantine the file within the endpoint antivirus solution as the file is ransomware which will encrypt the documents
of a victim.

D. Open the file in a sandbox environment for further behavioral analysis as the file contains a malicious script that runs on execution.

QUESTION 14

cisco 300-215 exam questions q14

Refer to the exhibit. Which encoding technique is represented by this HEX string?

A. Unicode

B. Binary

C. Base64

D. Charcode

Reference: https://www.suse.com/c/making-sense-hexdump/

QUESTION 15

cisco 300-215 exam questions q15

Refer to the exhibit. Which two actions should be taken as a result of this information? (Choose two.)

A. Update the AV to block any file with hash “cf2b3ad32a8a4cfb05e9dfc45875bd70”.

B. Block all emails sent from an @state.gov address.

C. Block all emails with pdf attachments.

D. Block emails sent from [email protected] with an attached pdf file with md5 hash
“cf2b3ad32a8a4cfb05e9dfc45875bd70”.

E. Block all emails with subject containing “cf2b3ad32a8a4cfb05e9dfc45875bd70”.

Publish the answer:

Q1Q2Q3Q4Q5Q6Q7Q8Q9Q10Q11Q12Q13Q14Q15
DCDCCimageAECEBACBCCDBAB

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Free Cisco 400-051 Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
When using LDAP synchronization to automatically create and synchronize Cisco Unified Communications Manager
end users, which two LDAP attributes can be synchronized to directory URI? (Choose two.)
A. emailaddress
B. msRTCSIPuseraddress
C. mail
D. msRTCSIPprimaryuseraddress
E. email
Correct Answer: CD

 

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit. Which option is the MOS value in this Cisco IOS snippet?lead4pass 400-051 exam question q2

A. 0.0000
B. 3.7001
C. 3
D. 4.1320
E. 1.0000
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 3
Which device pool configuration setting will override the device-level settings only when a device is roaming within a
device mobility group?
A. SRST Reference
B. Media Resource Group List
C. Region
D. Calling Party Transformation CSS
E. Location
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 4
Which three Software Licensing transport setting types are available on UCM 12.0 for license management? (Choose
three)
A. Smart Licence Manager Proxy
B. Prime Licences Manager
C. HTTP/HTTPS proxy
D. Direct
E. Transport gateway
F. Enterprise License Manager
Correct Answer: CDE

 

QUESTION 5
Company ABC has implemented Cisco Meeting Server (CMS) WebRTC feature using CMS Single Combined
deployment model. When testing this implementation, they found that users can login using WebRTC but are unable to
join a Space meeting and the “Join Call” option for guests is not available. What is the root cause of this issue?
A. CMS Webbridge is not able to connect to XMPP component
B. TURN media ports are blocked between CMS Webbridge and User PC
C. CMS Webbridge http-redirect configuration is not enabled
D. CMS Webbridge does not trust Callbridge certificate
E. CMS Callbridge cannot connect to XMPP component
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 6
Which Cisco Unity Connection call handler greeting, when enable, overrides all other greetings?
A. Alternate
B. Busy
C. Closed
D. Holiday
E. Internal
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 7
Which three statements about configuring partitioned intradomain federation to Lync are true? (Choose three)
A. Intradomain federation to Lync is only possible using SIP
B. IMandP and Lync should federate to any required remote domains
C. You must update the URIs of any users migrated from Lync to IMandP to match the Cisco Unified Presence server
SIP URI format
D. A static route must be added to point the local presence domain to the Lync server
E. Microsoft RCC must be enabled
F. The Enable use of Email Address when Federating option can be turned on if SIP URIs are different between IMandP
and Lync
Correct Answer: ACD

 

QUESTION 8
Which Cisco Unified Contact Center Express data store contains user scripts, grammars, and documents?
A. configuration data store
B. repository data store
C. agent data store
D. historical data store
E. script data store
Correct Answer: B
Unified CCX applications might use auxiliary files that interact with callers, such as scripts, pre-recorded prompts,
grammars, and custom Java classes. Depending on each implementation, Unified CCX applications use some or all of
the following file types. The Unified CCX Server\\’s local disk prompt, grammar, and document files are synchronized
with the central repository during Unified CCX engine startup and during run-time when the Repository datastore is
modified.

 

QUESTION 9
When Cisco Unity Connection users attempt to connect using Web Inbox and receive a Site Is Unavailable error
message, which service status should be verified?
A. Tomcat
B. Connection Exchange Notification Web Service
C. Connection Voicemail Web Service
D. Connection Administration
E. Secured Web Server
Correct Answer: A
Cisco Tomcat service, as the name suggests, is used by the Web Server of CUCM and helps display the administration,
operating system, disaster recovery, and other GUI interfaces of CUCM. The service leverages a built-in CA for Tomcat
in that it redirects the incoming HTTP requests to HTTPS using the default self-signed certificate.

 

QUESTION 10
Which statement describes the supported integration method when Cisco Unity Connection and Cisco Unified
Communications Manager are installed on the same server as Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business
Edition?
A. Only SCCP integration is supported.
B. Only SIP integration is supported.
C. Both SCCP or SIP integration are supported, but you must choose one or the other.
D. Q-Sig integration is supported through a voice-enabled Cisco ISR router.
E. Circuit-switched integration is supported through PIMG.
Correct Answer: A
When installed on the same server there is no way to create trunk that is why sccp is the only way Cisco Unity
Connection and Cisco Unified Communications Manager are installed on the same server.

 

QUESTION 11
A Company that is using the Cisco Unified Contact Center Express Enhanced version requires that selected types of
agent calls are automatically recorded.
Which call recording operation can be used to satisfy this requirement?
A. Instruct agents to use the Record button on Cisco IPPA to trigger recording
B. Instruct supervisors to use the Record button on Cisco Agent Desktop to trigger recording
C. Instruct supervision to use the Record button on Cisco supervisor Desktop to trigger recording
D. Configure the Cisco Agent Desktop workflow to trigger recording
E. Recording s not supported on the Cisco Unified CCX Enhanced version. It is supported only on the Premium
version.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 12
Which Cisco ISO-XE dial-peer command has the highest preference for inbound H.323 dial- peer matching?
A. Incoming calling-number e164-pattren-map
B. Destination-pattern
C. Incoming URI to
D. Answer-address
E. Incoming called-number
Correct Answer: E


QUESTION 13
Which option is the default Cisco Wireless Unified Communications endpoints marking for video media traffic or video
RTP traffic?
A. DSCP 8
B. DSCP 24
C. DSCP 34
D. DSCP 46
Correct Answer: C
When configuring network-level quality of service (QoS), Cisco video endpoints (including Cisco Unified IP Phone 8900
and 9900 Series and Cisco TelePresence System EX Series devices) generally mark traffic at Layer 3 according to
Cisco general QoS guidelines related to voice and video packet marking (video media as DSCP 34 or PHB AF41; call
signaling as DSCP 24 or PHB CS3) and therefore these devices can be trusted.

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