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QUESTION 1

cisco 300-915 exam questions q1

Refer to the exhibit. The code snippet provides information about the packet captures within a network.
How can the most used source IP addresses within a specific time be visualized?

A. line graph
B. bar histogram
C. scatter plot
D. heatmap

 

QUESTION 2

Which connector is southbound?

A. horizontal connector
B. cloud connector
C. device connector
D. universal connector

 

QUESTION 3

How does the Cisco router (IR) and switch (IE) portfolio support edge data services?

A. Edge data services can be run and managed as containers using Cisco IOx.
B. Edge data services can run only in virtual machines on a separate compute layer.
C. Edge data services are aliases for IR/IE configuration services.
D. Edge data services run as separate instances only on virtual machines.

 

QUESTION 4

A customer is deploying sensors with Cisco IR829 routers in moving trucks to continuously monitor the health of
engines using a cloud application.
Which data extraction and processing strategy is best suited in this environment?

A. No need to store data locally, upload in real time to the cloud for processing.
B. Generate local alerts and create reports at the edge, and upload to the cloud at the end of the day.
C. Use the store and forward mechanism to upload the information at the earliest to cloud.
D. Ensure that data is stored for a longer duration locally and upload to the cloud every week.

 

QUESTION 5

cisco 300-915 exam questions q5

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. That is a heatmap projected on top of a geographic map.
B. That is a treemap projected on top of a geographic map.
C. The color red usually stands for lower values and the color blue usually stands for higher values.
D. Another suitable visualization technique for this image would be line graphs.
E. The color blue usually stands for lower values and the color red usually stands for higher values.

 

QUESTION 6

What are two functionalities of edge data services? (Choose two.)

A. creating a machine learning data model
B. supporting many interfaces and APIs
C. applying advanced data analytics
D. filtering, normalizing and aggregating data
E. saving data for a prolonged time period

 

QUESTION 7

A company is collecting data from several thousand machines globally. Which software component in the overall
architecture is the next destination of the dataflow after the data has been gathered and normalized on the edge data
software?

A. relational database: MySQL
B. historian database: influxDB
C. message broker: Apache Kafka
D. dashboard: Node.js web app

 

QUESTION 8

cisco 300-915 exam questions q8

Refer to the exhibit. Approximately 4000 oil platforms, each with 400 sensors, are spread in the Gulf of Mexico and all of their data must come together into one dashboard. Which general architecture should be selected to connect them?
A. 4-tier: sensor ?edge device (Intel Atom CPU) ?fog device (Intel Xeon CPU) ?cloud
B. 5-tier: intelligent sensor?edge device (Intel Atom CPU) ?fog device (Intel Xeon CPU) ?edge data center (Intel Xeon
CPU)
C. 2-tier: intelligent sensor ?cloud
D. 3-tier: sensor ?edge device (Intel Atom CPU) ?cloud

Reference: https://www.itu.int/en/ITU-D/RegionalPresence/Africa/Documents/Internet%20of%20Things%20-%20Cisco%27s%20Vision%20and%20Approach.pdf

 

QUESTION 9

Which element ensures that PKI is used to establish the identity of IoT devices?

A. unique device identifier
B. encryption key
C. air gap
D. hashed routes

 

QUESTION 10

After an application is deployed, potential issues arise around connectivity. As part of the troubleshooting process, the
IP address must be determined to ensure end-to-end communication.
Which method provides the required details using the Cisco IOx CLI?

A. ioxclient application status
B. ioxclient application metrics
C. ioxclient application getconfig
D. ioxclient application info

 

QUESTION 11

As part of an IoT project, an organization is developing an application that will share multiple clients using a REST API.
Based on the software development process, what are two valid technical activities that can be suggested to secure the
REST API that is developed during the development of the software? (Choose two.)

A. Respond to request failures in detail to allow users for easier troubleshooting.
B. Implement HTTP whitelisting to only methods that are allowed.
C. Implement and review audit logs for security-related events.
D. Reject HTTP methods that are invalid with an error code 404.
E. Implement physical firewalling and access control to the resources.

 

QUESTION 12

When constructing a Python script for data extraction using GMM APIs on a Cisco Kinetic Cloud platform, how should
the API authentication be implemented?

A. Generate the API keys once and edit the permissions as needed.
B. Generate and use the API keys for the required access level from the Kinetic Cloud application.
C. Use a complex username and password with 128-bit encryption.
D. Use a complex username with an auto-generated password from the Kinetic Cloud application.

 

QUESTION 13

cisco 300-915 exam questions q13

Refer to the exhibit. The code and the error message that are received when the code is run is presented.
What causes issues authenticating with Cisco GMM API using the web-generated API key?

A. firewall that blocks authentication ports
B. incorrect username and password
C. incorrect GMM Cluster selection
D. incorrect key size and data encryption

 

QUESTION 14

DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the Dockerfile instructions from the left onto the correct arguments on the right.
Select and Place:

cisco 300-915 exam questions q14

Correct Answer:

cisco 300-915 exam questions q14-1

 

QUESTION 15

As part of an IoT project, an organization is developing an edge application that will run on a gateway to securely
transmit sensor information it receives into an IoT cloud. Based on the Agile software development lifecycle, the
development team is planning to implement a CI/CD pipeline.
Which two methods should be suggested to make the software development lifecycle more secure during the
implementation and testing? (Choose two.)

A. Perform automated code reviews prior to deployment.
B. Implement auto-provisioning security inspection for the code.
C. Perform on-going penetration testing on the system.
D. Perform a GAP analysis on current security activities and policies.
E. Train members of the team in a secure software development lifecycle methodology such as OWASP.

Verify answer:

Q1Q2Q3Q4Q5Q6Q7Q8Q9Q10Q11Q12Q13Q14Q15
BCCBAEDEBBADBDBBIMAGEDE

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QUESTION 1

What is the goal of an incident response plan?

A. to identify critical systems and resources in an organization

B. to ensure systems are in place to prevent an attack

C. to determine security weaknesses and recommend solutions

D. to contain an attack and prevent it from spreading

Reference: https://www.forcepoint.com/cyber-edu/incident-response

QUESTION 2

cisco 300-215 exam questions q2

Refer to the exhibit. Which two determinations should be made about the attack from the Apache access logs? (Choose two.)

A. The attacker used r57 exploit to elevate their privilege.

B. The attacker uploaded the word press file manager trojan.

C. The attacker performed a brute force attack against word press and used SQL injection against the backend
database.

D. The attacker used the word press file manager plugin to upload r57.php.

E. The attacker logged on normally to word press admin page.

QUESTION 3

cisco 300-215 exam questions q3

Refer to the exhibit. A company that uses only the Unix platform implemented an intrusion detection system. After the
initial configuration, the number of alerts is overwhelming, and an engineer needs to analyze and classify the alerts. The highest number of alerts were generated from the signature shown in the exhibit. Which classification should the
engineer assign to this event?

A. True Negative alert

B. False Negative alert

C. False Positive alert

D. True Positive alert

QUESTION 4

A threat actor attempts to avoid detection by turning data into a code that shifts numbers to the right four times. Which anti-forensics technique is being used?

A. encryption

B. tunneling

C. obfuscation

D. poisoning

Reference: https://www.vadesecure.com/en/malware-analysis-understanding-code-obfuscationtechniques/#:~:text=Obfuscation%20of%20character%20strings%20is,data%20when%20the%20code%20executes.

QUESTION 5

DRAG-DROP
Drag and drop the capabilities on the left onto the Cisco security solutions on the right.
Select and Place:

cisco 300-215 exam questions q5

Correct Answer:

cisco 300-215 exam questions q5-1

QUESTION 6

An engineer is investigating a ticket from the accounting department in which a user discovered an unexpected
application on their workstation. Several alerts are seen from the intrusion detection system of unknown outgoing
internet traffic from this workstation. The engineer also notices a degraded processing capability, which complicates the analysis process. Which two actions should the engineer take? (Choose two.)

A. Restore to a system recovery point.

B. Replace the faulty CPU.

C. Disconnect from the network.

D. Format the workstation drives.

E. Take an image of the workstation.

QUESTION 7

An incident response team is recommending changes after analyzing a recent compromise in which:
a large number of events and logs were involved;
team members were not able to identify the anomalous behavior and escalate it in a timely manner;
several network systems were affected as a result of the latency in detection;
security engineers were able to mitigate the threat and bring systems back to a stable state; and
the issue reoccurred shortly after and systems became unstable again because the correct information was not
gathered during the initial identification phase.

Which two recommendations should be made for improving the incident response process? (Choose two.)

A. Formalize reporting requirements and responsibilities to update management and internal stakeholders throughout
the incident-handling process effectively.

B. Improve the mitigation phase to ensure causes can be quickly identified, and systems returned to a functioning state.

C. Implement an automated operation to pull systems events/logs and bring them into an organizational context.

D. Allocate additional resources for the containment phase to stabilize systems in a timely manner and reduce an
attack\’s breadth.

E. Modify the incident handling playbook and checklist to ensure alignment and agreement on roles, responsibilities,
and steps before an incident occurs.

QUESTION 8

A network host is infected with malware by an attacker who uses the host to make calls for files and shuttle traffic to
bots. This attack went undetected and resulted in a significant loss. The organization wants to ensure this does not
happen in the future and needs a security solution that will generate alerts when command and control communication from an infected device is detected. Which network security solution should be recommended?

A. Cisco Secure Firewall ASA

B. Cisco Secure Firewall Threat Defense (Firepower)

C. Cisco Secure Email Gateway (ESA)

D. Cisco Secure Web Appliance (WSA)

QUESTION 9

An attacker embedded a macro within a word processing file opened by a user in an organization\’s legal department.
The attacker used this technique to gain access to confidential financial data. Which two recommendations should a
security expert make to mitigate this type of attack? (Choose two.)

A. controlled folder access

B. removable device restrictions

C. signed macro requirements

D. firewall rules creation

E. network access control

QUESTION 10

cisco 300-215 exam questions q10

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is analyzing a TCP stream in a Wireshark after a suspicious email with a URL. What
should be determined about the SMB traffic from this stream?

A. It is redirecting to a malicious phishing website,

B. It is exploiting redirect vulnerability

C. It is requesting authentication on the user site

D. It is sharing access to files and printers.

QUESTION 11

Over the last year, an organization\’s HR department has accessed data from its legal department on the last day of
each month to create a monthly activity report. An engineer is analyzing suspicious activity alerted by a threat
intelligence platform that an authorized user in the HR department has accessed legal data daily for the last week. The
engineer pulled the network data from the legal department\’s shared folders and discovered above average-size data
dumps. Which threat actor is implied from these artifacts?

A. privilege escalation

B. internal user errors

C. malicious insider

D. external exfiltration

QUESTION 12

cisco 300-215 exam questions q12

Refer to the exhibit. According to the SNORT alert, what is the attacker performing?

A. brute-force attack against the web application user accounts

B. XSS attack against the target webserver

C. brute-force attack against directories and files on the target webserver

D. SQL injection attack against the target webserver

QUESTION 13

cisco 300-215 exam questions q13

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is analyzing a . LNK (shortcut) file recently received as an email attachment and
blocked by email security as suspicious. What is the next step an engineer should take?

A. Delete the suspicious email with the attachment as the file is a shortcut extension and does not represent any threat.

B. Upload the file to a virus checking engine to compare with well-known viruses as the file is a virus disguised as a
legitimate extension.

C. Quarantine the file within the endpoint antivirus solution as the file is ransomware which will encrypt the documents
of a victim.

D. Open the file in a sandbox environment for further behavioral analysis as the file contains a malicious script that runs on execution.

QUESTION 14

cisco 300-215 exam questions q14

Refer to the exhibit. Which encoding technique is represented by this HEX string?

A. Unicode

B. Binary

C. Base64

D. Charcode

Reference: https://www.suse.com/c/making-sense-hexdump/

QUESTION 15

cisco 300-215 exam questions q15

Refer to the exhibit. Which two actions should be taken as a result of this information? (Choose two.)

A. Update the AV to block any file with hash “cf2b3ad32a8a4cfb05e9dfc45875bd70”.

B. Block all emails sent from an @state.gov address.

C. Block all emails with pdf attachments.

D. Block emails sent from [email protected] with an attached pdf file with md5 hash
“cf2b3ad32a8a4cfb05e9dfc45875bd70”.

E. Block all emails with subject containing “cf2b3ad32a8a4cfb05e9dfc45875bd70”.

Publish the answer:

Q1Q2Q3Q4Q5Q6Q7Q8Q9Q10Q11Q12Q13Q14Q15
DCDCCimageAECEBACBCCDBAB

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  • Cisco Data Center products and hardware components with an emphasis on the Cisco Unified Computing System (UCS).

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and perform basic physical layer troubleshooting. The Cisco Certified Technician (CCT) should be competent in the following areas;
basic Cisco NX-OS configuration, Cisco Data Center products, and hardware components.

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Latest updates Cisco 010-151 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
What is the maximum number of supervisor modules that the Cisco MDS 9710 Switch supports?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6
E. 8
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which two statements about DIMM replacement in Cisco UCS Servers are true? (Choose two.)
A. In blade servers, DIMMs can be installed in either 1, 2, 4, or 8 DIMMs per channel.
B. Rack-mount and blade servers have memory fault LEDs that indicate which DIMM requires attention.
C. In servers that require pairs of DIMMs, the pairs must be identical (manufacturer, size, part #, and so on).
D. If the memory in a server is not fully populated, you can install DIMMs in any open slot.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 3
Which two statements about the Ethernet media are true? (Choose two.)
A. A twisted-pair cable system has each pair of wires twisted together to reduce electromagnetic interference.
B. Compared to multimode fiber, the single-mode fiber is designed for shorter distances with higher cost.
C. 40 Gigabit Ethernet twinax cables deploy Enhanced Quad Small Form Factor Pluggable (QSFP+) connectors.
D. The twinax cables can be found in either a shielded twisted-pair or an unshielded twisted-pair variation.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 4
Which Cisco NX-OS command displays kernel uptime?
A. show module
B. show version
C. show license
D. show boot
E. show interface
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which command-line interface mode is best described by this prompt?
UCS-switch-A (nxos)#
A. maintenance mode
B. EXEC mode
C. local management mode
D. global configuration mode
E. Cisco IOS mode
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
What is the maximum distance that the 40GBASE-LR4 Ethernet standard can span?
A. 550 m
B. 10 km
C. 40 km
D. 80 km
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 010-151 exam question q7

Where is the best place to see the power supply status of the blade server enclosure?
A. A – Chassis 1
B. B – Chassis 1 – PSUs
C. C – Chassis1 – Servers
D. D – Rack-Mounts – Servers
E. E – Fabric Interconnects A – PSUs
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which Cisco Nexus 5000 Series model supports 1/10G BASE-T ports?
A. Cisco Nexus 5548P
B. Cisco Nexus 5548UP
C. Cisco Nexus 5596UP
D. Cisco Nexus 5596T
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 9
Which two statements about the Cisco Nexus 5596UP switch are true? (Choose two.)
A. Its power supplies and fan trays are hot-swappable.
B. It supports unified ports.
C. It is offered in a one-rack-unit form factor.
D. It has one expansion slot.
E. It supports up to 96 10G BASE-T ports.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 010-151 exam question q10

Which Cisco MDS chassis supports the 48-Port 16-Gbps Fibre Channel Switching Module?
A. MDS 9509
B. MDS 9513
C. MDS 9710
D. MDS 9506
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
The Ethernet specification details several different fiber optic media types. What is the wire transmission speed for
100BASE-FX Ethernet?
A. 10 Mb/s
B. 100 Mb/s
C. 1000 Mb/s
D. 10000 Mb/s
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which device provides analysis of Fibre Channel traffic without any network disruption?
A. Cisco MDS 9000 Data Analyzer Adapter
B. Cisco MDS 9000 Port Analyzer Adapter
C. Cisco MDS 9000 Channel Analyzer Device
D. Cisco MDS 9000 Channel Analyzer Adapter
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which action should the administrator take before physically removing a blade server for maintenance or replacement?
A. Force the server to shut down.
B. Disassociate the service profile.
C. Decommission the server.
D. Perform a graceful shutdown of the server.
Correct Answer: C

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Free Cisco 400-051 Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
When using LDAP synchronization to automatically create and synchronize Cisco Unified Communications Manager
end users, which two LDAP attributes can be synchronized to directory URI? (Choose two.)
A. emailaddress
B. msRTCSIPuseraddress
C. mail
D. msRTCSIPprimaryuseraddress
E. email
Correct Answer: CD

 

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit. Which option is the MOS value in this Cisco IOS snippet?lead4pass 400-051 exam question q2

A. 0.0000
B. 3.7001
C. 3
D. 4.1320
E. 1.0000
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 3
Which device pool configuration setting will override the device-level settings only when a device is roaming within a
device mobility group?
A. SRST Reference
B. Media Resource Group List
C. Region
D. Calling Party Transformation CSS
E. Location
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 4
Which three Software Licensing transport setting types are available on UCM 12.0 for license management? (Choose
three)
A. Smart Licence Manager Proxy
B. Prime Licences Manager
C. HTTP/HTTPS proxy
D. Direct
E. Transport gateway
F. Enterprise License Manager
Correct Answer: CDE

 

QUESTION 5
Company ABC has implemented Cisco Meeting Server (CMS) WebRTC feature using CMS Single Combined
deployment model. When testing this implementation, they found that users can login using WebRTC but are unable to
join a Space meeting and the “Join Call” option for guests is not available. What is the root cause of this issue?
A. CMS Webbridge is not able to connect to XMPP component
B. TURN media ports are blocked between CMS Webbridge and User PC
C. CMS Webbridge http-redirect configuration is not enabled
D. CMS Webbridge does not trust Callbridge certificate
E. CMS Callbridge cannot connect to XMPP component
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 6
Which Cisco Unity Connection call handler greeting, when enable, overrides all other greetings?
A. Alternate
B. Busy
C. Closed
D. Holiday
E. Internal
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 7
Which three statements about configuring partitioned intradomain federation to Lync are true? (Choose three)
A. Intradomain federation to Lync is only possible using SIP
B. IMandP and Lync should federate to any required remote domains
C. You must update the URIs of any users migrated from Lync to IMandP to match the Cisco Unified Presence server
SIP URI format
D. A static route must be added to point the local presence domain to the Lync server
E. Microsoft RCC must be enabled
F. The Enable use of Email Address when Federating option can be turned on if SIP URIs are different between IMandP
and Lync
Correct Answer: ACD

 

QUESTION 8
Which Cisco Unified Contact Center Express data store contains user scripts, grammars, and documents?
A. configuration data store
B. repository data store
C. agent data store
D. historical data store
E. script data store
Correct Answer: B
Unified CCX applications might use auxiliary files that interact with callers, such as scripts, pre-recorded prompts,
grammars, and custom Java classes. Depending on each implementation, Unified CCX applications use some or all of
the following file types. The Unified CCX Server\\’s local disk prompt, grammar, and document files are synchronized
with the central repository during Unified CCX engine startup and during run-time when the Repository datastore is
modified.

 

QUESTION 9
When Cisco Unity Connection users attempt to connect using Web Inbox and receive a Site Is Unavailable error
message, which service status should be verified?
A. Tomcat
B. Connection Exchange Notification Web Service
C. Connection Voicemail Web Service
D. Connection Administration
E. Secured Web Server
Correct Answer: A
Cisco Tomcat service, as the name suggests, is used by the Web Server of CUCM and helps display the administration,
operating system, disaster recovery, and other GUI interfaces of CUCM. The service leverages a built-in CA for Tomcat
in that it redirects the incoming HTTP requests to HTTPS using the default self-signed certificate.

 

QUESTION 10
Which statement describes the supported integration method when Cisco Unity Connection and Cisco Unified
Communications Manager are installed on the same server as Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business
Edition?
A. Only SCCP integration is supported.
B. Only SIP integration is supported.
C. Both SCCP or SIP integration are supported, but you must choose one or the other.
D. Q-Sig integration is supported through a voice-enabled Cisco ISR router.
E. Circuit-switched integration is supported through PIMG.
Correct Answer: A
When installed on the same server there is no way to create trunk that is why sccp is the only way Cisco Unity
Connection and Cisco Unified Communications Manager are installed on the same server.

 

QUESTION 11
A Company that is using the Cisco Unified Contact Center Express Enhanced version requires that selected types of
agent calls are automatically recorded.
Which call recording operation can be used to satisfy this requirement?
A. Instruct agents to use the Record button on Cisco IPPA to trigger recording
B. Instruct supervisors to use the Record button on Cisco Agent Desktop to trigger recording
C. Instruct supervision to use the Record button on Cisco supervisor Desktop to trigger recording
D. Configure the Cisco Agent Desktop workflow to trigger recording
E. Recording s not supported on the Cisco Unified CCX Enhanced version. It is supported only on the Premium
version.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 12
Which Cisco ISO-XE dial-peer command has the highest preference for inbound H.323 dial- peer matching?
A. Incoming calling-number e164-pattren-map
B. Destination-pattern
C. Incoming URI to
D. Answer-address
E. Incoming called-number
Correct Answer: E


QUESTION 13
Which option is the default Cisco Wireless Unified Communications endpoints marking for video media traffic or video
RTP traffic?
A. DSCP 8
B. DSCP 24
C. DSCP 34
D. DSCP 46
Correct Answer: C
When configuring network-level quality of service (QoS), Cisco video endpoints (including Cisco Unified IP Phone 8900
and 9900 Series and Cisco TelePresence System EX Series devices) generally mark traffic at Layer 3 according to
Cisco general QoS guidelines related to voice and video packet marking (video media as DSCP 34 or PHB AF41; call
signaling as DSCP 24 or PHB CS3) and therefore these devices can be trusted.

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Latest Cisco CCNP Collaboration 300-075 Practice Questions and Answers

Q

UESTION 1
What happens if location-based CAC is used and there is no bandwidth available when a remote caller is placed on
hold?
A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager sends TOH rather than MOH.
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager terminates the call.
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager plays default MOH.
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager attempts to reconnect the call immediately.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 2
Which statement best describes globalized call routing in Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. All incoming calling numbers on the phones are displayed as an E.164 with the + prefix.
B. Call routing is based on numbers represented as an E.164 with the + prefix format.
C. All called numbers sent out to the PSTN are in E.164 with the + prefix format.
D. The CSS of all phones contain partitions assigned to route patterns that are in global format.
E. All phone directory numbers are configured as an E.164 with the + prefix.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Incorrect answer: ACDE For the destination to be represented in a global form common to all cases, we
must adopt a global form of the destination number from which all local forms can be derived. The + sign is the
mechanism used by the ITU\\’s E.164 recommendation to represent any PSTN number in a global, unique way. This
form is sometimes referred to as a fully qualified PSTN number. Link:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/srnd/7x/dialplan.html#wp1153205

 

QUESTION 3
On which Cisco Unified Communications Manager configuration parameter does the CODEC that a Cisco IP Phone
uses for a call depend?
A. enterprise parameters
B. media resources
C. physical location
D. region
E. location
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 4
What are two important considerations when implementing TEHO to reduce long-distance cost? (Choose two.)
A. on-net calling patterns
B. E911 calling
C. number of route patterns
D. caller ID
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 5
An engineer is setting up a Cisco VCS Cluster with SIP endpoints only. While configuring the Cisco VCS peers, which
signaling protocol is used between peers to determine the best route for calls?
A. SIP
B. H.323
C. SCCP
D. MGCP
Correct Answer: B
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/telepresence/infrastructure/vcs/config_guide/X8 7/Cisco-VCS-Cluster-Creation-and-Maintenance-Deployment-Guide-X8-7.pdf (page 4, basic configuration is done, third point)

 

QUESTION 6
You want to avoid unnecessary interworking in Cisco TelePresence Video Communication Server, such as where a call
between two H.323 endpoints is made over SIP, or vice versa. Which setting is recommended?
A. H.323 – SIP interworking mode. Reject
B. H.323 – SIP interworking mode. On
C. H.323 – SIP interworking mode. Registered only
D. H.323 – SIP interworking mode. Off
E. H.323 – SIP interworking mode. Variable
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 7
Which statement about Enhanced Locationbased CAC on a Cisco Unified Communications Managerbased voice
network
A. E-LCAC can adjust its knowledge of effective paths due to link failures and reconfigurations.
B. Every cluster that participates in LBM requires the location be locally configured for location to device association
C. Each cluster requires a complete view of the modeled topology.
D. Each cluster should be configured with the immediate neighboring locations such that the topology of each cluster
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 8
Company X has a primary and a backup Cisco Unified Communications Manager instance. The administrator had to do
maintenance on the primary node and did a shutdown, which resulted in a failover to the backup node. What happens
when the primary node comes back online?
A. The primary node becomes the backup node.
B. Endpoints detect that the primary is back and reregisters automatically.
C. The backup node must be shut down first to allow the endpoints to realize that the primary node is online again.
D. Nothing, the endpoints only failover when the node they lose connection to their registered node.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 9
What impact do roaming-sensitive settings and Device Mobility settings have on call routing?
A. Device Mobility settings have no impact on call routing, but roaming-sensitive settings modify the AAR group, AAR
CSS, and device CSS.
B. Device Mobility settings modify the device CSS and the roaming-sensitive settings modify the AAR group and AAR
CSS.
C. Device Mobility settings modify the AAR group and the AAR CSS, the roaming-sensitive settings modify the device
CSS.
D. Roaming-sensitive settings are settings that do not have an impact on call routing. Device Mobility settings, on the
other hand, may have an impact on call routing because they modify the device CSS, AAR group, and AAR CSS.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 10
When an H.323 trunk is added for Call Control Discovery, which statement is true?
A. The H.323 trunk is added by selecting Inter-Cluster Trunk (Non-Gatekeeper Controlled) and Device Protocol Inter-
Cluster Trunk. The Enable SAF check box should be selected in the trunk configuration.
B. The H.323 trunk is added by selecting Inter-Cluster Trunk (Non-Gatekeeper Controlled) and Device Protocol Inter-
Cluster Trunk. The Trunk Service Type should be Call Control Discovery.
C. The H.323 trunk is added by selecting Call Control Discovery Trunk and then selecting
D. 323 as the protocol to be used.
E. The H.323 trunk is added by selecting H.323 Trunk, and selecting Inter-Cluster Trunk as the Device Protocol. The
destination IP address field is configured as `SAF\\’ to indicate that this trunk is used for SAF.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 300-075 exam question q11

The remote site needs to run multicast MOH from flash. Which statement about the MOH server configuration in Cisco
Unified Communications Manager is true?
A. The MOH server must be enabled for G.729 in the Cisco IP Voice Media Streaming Application service parameters.
B. Multicast MOH can use only G.711. So you must configure the command codec G711ulaw under the call-manager-
fallback configuration at the remote site router.
C. The MOH for the remote site is a standalone configuration. No extra configuration is required on the Cisco Unified
Communications Manager MOH server.
D. Configure a separate region for the MOH server. The codec between the MOH region and all other regions should be
specified as G.711. Apply the MOH region through a device pool at the MOH server configuration page.
E. Configure the location setting for the MOH server to 80 Kbps. This configuration forces the MOH server to use G.711
for the remote site.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit.
The HQ site uses area code 650. The BR1 site uses area code 408. The long distance national code for PSTN dialing is
1. To make a long distance national call, an HQ or BR1 user dials access code 9, followed by 1, and then the 10-digit
number. Both sites use MGCP gateways. AAR must use globalized call routing using a single route pattern. Assume
that all outgoing PSTN numbers are localized at the egress gateway as shown in the exhibit. Which statement is true?lead4pass 300-075 exam question q12

A. The AAR group system must be configured on the device configuration of the phones.
B. The AAR group system must be configured on the line configuration of the phones.
C. The single AAR group system cannot be used. A second AAR group must be configured in order to have source and
destination AAR groups.
D. The AAR group system must be configured under the AAR service parameters.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 13
The network administrator of Enterprise X receives reports that at peak hours, some calls between remote offices are
not passing through. Investigation shows no connectivity problems. The network administrator wants to estimate the
volume of calls being affected by this issue.
Which two RTMT counters can give more information on this? (Choose two.)
A. CallsRingNoAnswer
B. OutOfResources
C. LocationOutOfResources
D. RequestsThrottled
E. CallsAttempted
Correct Answer: BC

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Free test Cisco CCDE 352-001 Exam questions and Answers

QUESTION 1
Which option is a BFD design consideration?
A. BFD should not be used with RSVP-TE backup tunnels.
B. BFD echo mode may reduce convergence time.
C. BFD does not support sessions over MPLS LSPs.
D. BFD is supported on indirectly connected peers.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 352-001 exam question q2

As part of your design to monitor reachable services, a route health injector has just been deployed on the network. The
route health injector injects /32 host routes into BGP with the next hop of 192.18.0.2, but the /32 routes are not being
installed into the RIB or FIB of Router A. Which BGP feature must be deployed to make be deployed to make the design
to work?
A. BGP community attributes
B. MP-BGP
C. BGP AS-Path prepending
D. eBGP multihop attribute
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 3
A mobile service provider wants to design and deploy an Ethernet service with similar physical link failover/failback
characteristics on the active/backup links as APS/MSP SONET. Which Layer 2 service addresses this design
requirement?
A. Ethernet Pseudowires
B. FlexLink
C. MLPPP
D. Port-Channel
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 4
Which two statements about AToM are true? (Choose two)
A. It encapsulates Layer 2 frames at the egress PE
B. When using AToM, the IP precedence filed is not copied to the MPLS packet
C. AToM supports connecting different L2 technologies using interworking option
D. The loopback address of the PE router must be either /24 or /32
E. It provides support for L2VPN features on ATM interfaces
Correct Answer: CE


QUESTION 5
Which network management tool should a network manager consult in order to pinpoint the cause of a routing recursion
error?
A. debug (for BGP output)
B. syslog (for BGP errors)
C. RMON events group
D. SNMP routing traps
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 6
What are two reasons to choose L2TPv3 over other technologies for a VPN solution? (Choose two.)
A. The VPN solution does not contain MPLS on the network core.
B. The VPN solution should support Frame Relay to Ethernet pseudowire connections.
C. The VPN solution requires multipoint Ethernet LAN service.
D. The VPN solution should be industry-standard.
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 7
You are designing an IEEE 802.1X solution for a customer, where the network supports a large number of IP phones
and printers.
You plan to configure MAC address bypass for the phones and printers. What is your primary design and security
concern?
A. the additional AAA traffic on the network
B. the placement of the AAA server
C. the potential of MAC address spoofing
D. the scaling of the MAC address database
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 8
What is a characteristic of traffic shaping?
A. It minimizes traffic transmission intervals.
B. It remarks excess packets above the committed rates.
C. It delays and can drop excess traffic.
D. It classifies traffic based on certain characteristics.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 9
An enterprise company needs to transport multicast traffic between its hub-and-spoke WAN routers over an MPLS
Layer 3 VPN provider that does not currently support multicast. Which option describes how this enterprise how this
enterprise can achieve this requirement in a cost-effective way?
A. Use MSDP over the WAN.
B. Enable multicast routing on the WAN physical and tunnel interfaces.
C. Create multicast-enabled GRE tunnels over the WAN between the hub-and-spoke routers.
D. Provide an Internet link to each site and use DMVPN over the Internet.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 10
Which three options are important functions of IPv6 first-hop security? (Choose three.)
A. implements a broadcast-control mechanism
B. limits IPv6 route advertisement in the network
C. suppresses excessive multicast neighbor discovery
D. prevents IPv6 packet fragmentation
E. prevents rogue DHCP servers from assigning IPv6 addresses
Correct Answer: BCE


QUESTION 11
The Database team will deploy a new clustering technology that uses IPv4, multicast- based data replication, where the
servers listen and transmit at the same time on multiple groups. Multicast is not being run on the current network and
there are no plans to enable it. New Layer 2 switches will be purchased to connect new servers in order to keep
multicast traffic off the existing network. Which two features should the new switches support to provide good multicast
performance? (Choose two.)
A. IGMP snooping
B. PIM snooping
C. MLD snooping
D. IGMP querier
E. Bidirectional PIM
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 12
A Company has these requirements for access to their wireless and wired corporate LANs using 802.1x
Clients devices that corporate assets and have joined the active directory domain are allowed access
Personal devices must be not allowed access
Clients and access servers must be mutually authenticated.
Which solution meets these requirements?
A. Protected EAP/Microsoft CHAP v2 with user authentication
B. EAP-TLS with machine authentication
C. EAP-TLS with user authentication
D. Protected EAP/Microsoft CHAP v2 with Machine authentication
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 13
What are two reasons for instrumenting your network and network devices to collect performance data? (Choose two.)
A. to determine the impact of jitter and latency on application performance
B. to enable capacity planning decisions
C. to route traffic around constrained choke points in the network
D. to determine the locations at which QoS needs to be implemented
Correct Answer: BD

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Free test Cisco CCNP Security 300-206 Exam questions and Answers

QUESTION 1
Which two web browsers are supported for the Cisco ISE GUI? (Choose two.)
A. HTTPS-enabled Mozilla Firefox version 3.x
B. Netscape Navigator version 9
C. Microsoft Internet Explorer version 8 in Internet Explorer 8-only mode
D. Microsoft Internet Explorer version 8 in all Internet Explorer modes
E. Google Chrome (all versions)
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 2
You are the administrator of a Cisco ASA 9.0 firewall and have been tasked with ensuring that the Firewall Admins
Active Directory group has full access to the ASA configuration. The Firewall Operators Active Directory group should
have a
more limited level of access.
Which statement describes how to set these access levels?
A. Use Cisco Directory Agent to configure the Firewall Admins group to have privilege level 15 access. Also configure
the Firewall Operators group to have privilege level 6 access.
B. Use TACACS+ for Authentication and Authorization into the Cisco ASA CLI, with ACS as the AAA server. Configure
ACS CLI command authorization sets for the Firewall Operators group. Configure level 15 access to be assigned to
members of the Firewall Admins group.
C. Use RADIUS for Authentication and Authorization into the Cisco ASA CLI, with ACS as the AAA server. Configure
ACS CLI command authorization sets for the Firewall Operators group. Configure level 15 access to be assigned to
members of the Firewall Admins group.
D. Active Directory Group membership cannot be used as a determining factor for accessing the Cisco ASA CLI.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 3
When you install a Cisco ASA AIP-SSM, which statement about the main Cisco ASDM home page is true?
A. It is replaced by the Cisco AIP-SSM home page.
B. It must reconnect to the NAT policies database.
C. The administrator can manually update the page.
D. It displays a new Intrusion Prevention panel.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 4
You moved your servers from physical to virtual infrastructure, how to defend it ?
A. Cisco V
B. Cisco ASA 1000V
C. VXLAN
D. VSG
Correct Answer: BD
Cisco VSG and the ASA 1000V provide complementary functionalities. The VSG provides virtual machine context-
aware and zone-based security capabilities. The ASA 1000V provides tenant edge security and default gateway
functionalities.
Together, they provide a trusted and comprehensive virtual and cloud security Portfolio.
From: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/switches/virtual-security-gateway/index.html Second – you moved your
servers from physical to virtual infrastructure, how to defend it – Cisco V, Cisco ASA 1000V, VXLAN, VSG


QUESTION 5
About User identity with domain (there is a screen), if user is not in domain, what identity will be?
A. local
B. default
Correct Answer: A
ASA Identity Firewal:
The default domain is used for all users and user groups when a domain has not been explicitly configured for those
users or groups. When a default domain is not specified, the default domain for users and groups is LOCAL.
Additionally, the
Identity Firewall uses the LOCAL domain for all locally defined user groups or locally defined users (users who log in
and authenticate by using a VPN or web portal).


QUESTION 6
Which statement about Dynamic ARP Inspection is true ?
A. In a typical network, you make all ports as trusted expect for the ports connection to switches , which are untrusted
B. DAI associates a trust state with each switch
C. DAI determines the validity of an ARP packet based on valid IP to MAC address binding from the DHCP snooping
database
D. DAI intercepts all ARP requests and responses on trusted ports only E. DAI cannot drop invalid ARP packets
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 7
Which Cisco Security Manager form factor is recommended for deployments with fewer than 25 devices?
A. only Cisco Security Manager Standard
B. only Cisco Security Manager Professional
C. only Cisco Security Manager UCS Server Bundle
D. both Cisco Security Manager Standard and Cisco Security Manager Professional
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 8
Which of the following that Cisco engineer must secure a current monitoring environment? (Choose Two)
A. RSA-SIG
B. MD5
C. AES
D. 3DES
E. DES
Correct Answer: CD


QUESTION 9
Which Cisco ASA (8.4.1 and later) CLI command is the best command to use for troubleshooting SSH connectivity from
the Cisco ASA appliance to the outside 192.168.1.1 server?
A. telnet 192.168.1.1 22
B. ssh -l username 192.168.1.1
C. traceroute 192.168.1.1 22
D. ping tcp 192.168.1.1 22
E. packet-tracer input inside tcp 10.0.1.1 2043 192.168.4.1 ssh
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 10
What is needed for the successful synchronization between NTP servers with enabled authentication?
A. NTP Trusted Key
B. TLS certification (NTP certificates)
C. Stratum hash
D. Something else
Correct Answer: A
You can configure the Cisco CG-OS router to authenticate the time sources to which the local clock synchronizes.
When you enable NTP authentication, the Cisco CG-OS router synchronizes to a time source only if the source carries
one of the authentication keys specified by the ntp trusted-key command. The Cisco CG-OS router drops any packets
that fail the authentication check and prevents them from updating the local clock.


QUESTION 11
On the Cisco ASA, tcp-map can be applied to a traffic class using which MPF CLI configuration command?
A. inspect
B. sysopt connection
C. tcp-options
D. parameters
E. set connection advanced-options
Correct Answer: E


QUESTION 12
A. choosed to use udp as answer
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 13
Which command enables uRPF on ASA interface?
A. ip protection source
B. ip source guard enable
C. ip reverse-path verify reachable-via any
D. ip verify unicast source reachable-via interface_name
E. ip verify reverse-path interface interface_name
Correct Answer: E

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Latest effective Cisco 300-370 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
A WLAN was installed at a high AP density. DTPC is lowering the transmit power of many APs too low.
Which change m the DTPC transmit power threshold must be made to allow APs to globally increase AP transmit power
by 3dBm?
A. from 70 dBm to 73 dBm
B. from -70 dBm to -73 dBm
C. from 70 dBm to 67 dBm
D. from -70 dBm to -67 dBm
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 2
A Cisco WLC v7.0 is not seeing an AP join. Which starting prefix debug command can help determine a combination of
discovery/join and DHCP process status?
A. debug capwap events – from Cisco WLC
B. debug capwap events – from the AP
C. debug ip udp – from Cisco WLC
D. debug ip udp – from the AP
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 3
An engineer is troubleshooting non-802.11 interference and observes the shown output. Which interference signature is
the most harmful to Wi-Fi? Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 300-370 exam question - q3A. cordless phone
B. microwave oven
C. 2 4 GHz wideband jammer
D. FHSS Bluetooth
E. analog video camera
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 4
A company consists of two adjacent buildings, each with its own Cisco 5508 Wireless Controller with APs joined to the
controller in the building. The two controllers are configured identically except for interface IP addresses. Only one SSID
is
being used in both buildings. The clients in building A are not experiencing any connectivity issues, but (he clients in
building B report poor connections An engineer performs a site survey and finds co-channel interference, yet discovers
mac
Transmit Power Control was never performed on the APs and that Radio Resource Management is not functioning like it
does in building A Furthermore, the controllers are in the same RF group and controller A is elected RF leader.
Which action will improve client connections in building B?
A. Ensure WMM is enabled on the SSID
B. Manually select controller B as RF group leader.
C. Configure controller B to be in a separate RF group.
D. Doable the low data rates on the a radio and the b/g radio in building B.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 5
Which visual cue accurately describes a characteristic of the zone of impact displayed in Cisco Prime Infrastructure?
A. The closer the cirlce is to blue, the more localized the impact is.
B. The smaller the circle, the more localized the impact is.
C. The larger the circle, the more severe the impact is.
D. The more translucent the circle is, the more localized the impact is.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 6
A VoWLAN has been deployed at a customer site. and users report that audio is choppy in some areas The exhibit
captures a voice exchange between one phone that is associated to the AP at the end of the corridor (172.31 255 101)
and
another phone that is positioned in a conference room nearby. Which action enhances the voice application quality of
experience?
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 300-370 exam question - q6A. Change the basic rate configuration on the WLC to include 54 Mbps.
B. Change the WLAN QoS profile to platinum.
C. Decrease the AP power level.
D. Disable higher data rates on the controller.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 7
The AP is unable to join the controller. What is the cause of this error? Refer to the exhibit.
A. The controller code version is lower than the code of the AP attempting to join.
B. AP code is not the same as the controller and must download firmware.
C. AP model % not compatible with the controller code version.
D. The AP is riot conjured in the controller auth-list of acceptable APs.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 300-370 exam question - q8

A client reports being unable to log into the wireless network According to the output, which network information should
be verified?
A. the Failed Attempts log on the authentication server
B. that the AP has IP connectivity to the authentication server
C. that the user has an account on the authentication server
D. that the authentication and accounting configuration are correct
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 9
You have successfully configured HA and SSO using two Cisco 5508 Wireless LAN Controllers. You are able to access
the Active Primary WLC but are unable to access the Secondary Standby WLC. Which two methods will allow you to
access the standby unit? (Choose two.)
A. Via SSH to the Redundancy Management Interface.
B. Via Service Port Interface.
C. Via SSH to the Management Interface.
D. Via console connection.
Correct Answer: CD


QUESTION 10
An engineer is troubleshooting AP join issues on a wireless infrastructure. While gathering debugs, the engineer notices
that one of the commands may generate an excessive an excessive amount of data on the console. Which command
causes this to occur?
A. debug capwap detail enable
B. debug capwap errors enable
C. debug capwap info enable
D. debug capwap events enable
E. debug capwap packet enable
F. debug capwap payload enable
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 11
Which two statements about the WLAN are true? (Choose two)lead4pass 300-370 exam question - q11Refer to the exhibit. lead4pass 300-370 exam question - q11-1A. The client has a 5 GHz connection.
B. The client has authenticated.
C. The client is 802.11n capable.
D. The Cisco device is a 3600 series AP.
E. 802 11b data rates are disabled in this WLAN
Correct Answer: CE


QUESTION 12
Employees upgraded company issued OS devices. Which are configured to authenticate to the network using WPA2-
Eniefpnse 802 lx with LEAP As a result, the devices are no longer able to authenticate. Which action must the engineer
do
10 resolve the issue?
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 300-370 exam question - q12A. Redeploy the existing configuration profile.
B. Change LEAP certificate on the ACS server.
C. Reset the network settings on the devices.
D. Rejoin the enterprise network manually.
E. Deploy a new configuration profile with LEAP enabled
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 13
An engineer must open a support case with Cisco TAC. Which two commands verify the model and serial number of a
controller?(Choose two)
A. show sysinfo
B. show udi
C. show inventory
D. show boot
E. show tech-support
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 14
A client is failing EAP authentication and a debug shows that the server is sending an Access-Reject message. Which
action must you take to resolve authentication?
A. Verify that the Validate server certificate on the client is disabled.
B. Verify that the client certificates are from the proper CA and server certificate.
C. Verify that the client server certificate has the proper Windows OlDs.
D. Verify that the user account is the same in the client certificate.
E. Verify that the user is using the same password that is on the server
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 15
An engineer is using various techniques to discover and isolate rogues on the network. For which technique must the
engineer consider legal ramifications?
A. rogue AP containment
B. RF detection
C. switch port tracing
D. wire detection
E. Cisco Prime Infrastructure location services
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 16
A WLC receives a coverage hole detection alert from an AP. What two conditions must occur for the controller to
dynamically mitigate the situation? (Choose two.)
A. The AP serving the troubled client must currently have a power level 2 or lower.
B. The client must be able to dynamically raise its power level to match the new AP power.
C. The AP must be RF visible to additional APs on the other side of the coverage hole for calibration.
D. The client must have WMM-PS disabled to allow for the increased power usage.
E. The AP serving the troubled client must currently have a power level higher than 2.
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 17
A user reports being unable to connect to a server with a certain program while connected to wireless. Which
troubleshooting methodology can be used to begin the troubleshooting process?
A. top-down
B. shoot from the hip
C. follow the path
D. bottom-up
E. divide and conquer
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 18
Which statement about the join process of the access point is true? Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 300-370 exam question - q18A. The AP failed to join because the self-signed certificate of the AP was not correct on the controller.
B. The time on the controller is outside of the certificates validity time interval so the join phase failed.
C. The AP moved from this controller to its primary controller.
D. The AP successfully joined the controller.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 19
An engineer is troubleshooting access point placement issues and suspects that poor placement is causing connectivity
issues When running the show client detail command, the engineer notices this output Which option indicates
poor access point placement?
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 300-370 exam question - q19

A. excessive number of bytes sent compared to bytes received
B. high signal-to-noise ratio
C. excessive number of data retries
D. low ratio signal strength indicator
E. duplicate received packets
F. poor statistics for the last 90 seconds
Correct Answer: CD


QUESTION 20
Which three steps would a network engineer use to troubleshoot an AP join problem? (Choose three.)
A. Validate the STP configuration. 
B. Verify the ping AP from the controller.
C. Verify the ping AP from the client.
D. Verify that the AP is getting an address from the DHCP server.
E. I Validate the SNMP configuration.
F. Verify the authentication configuration parameters.
Correct Answer: ABF

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Latest effective Cisco 300-360 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer has determined that Cisco 7925 phones are roaming between 2.4 6Hz and 5 6Hz
radios on the same access points, which results in poor audio performance Which action must the engineer take to
mitigate this issue?
A. Enable TPCv2 to normalize the RF environment.
B. Configure EDCA parameters for Voice Optimized.
C. Configure the Cisco 7925 phone to only use 5 6Hz.
D. Enable Band Select on the WLAN
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 2
A Cisco 7925 phone at a client\\’s location is not registering with CUCM. The engineer analyzes a packet capture, sees
that the phone receives an IP, and downloads the proper configuration file from TFTP successfully. What type of
messages should the phone be sending at this point?
A. H.245
B. H.323
C. MCGP
D. SCCP
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 3
Which two options describe best practices that must be completed after a wireless installation is finished? (Choose
two.)
A. Make sure that there are no spaces between the devices on the rack that the Wireless Lan Controller isinstalled.
B. Consult with the customer to ensure that the IT staff has a complete set of design and installationdocuments.
C. Make sure the customer is aware that they should consider purchasing a support contract immediately afterthe
installation is complete.
D. Spend time with the customer to show them the controller GUI and inform them how they can reach theCisco TAC if
they have any problems.
E. Test all the customer\\’s wireless devices and applications to ensure they are working properly.
Correct Answer: BE


QUESTION 4
A customer is preparing to deploy a wireless network in a stadium and is identifying coverage area requirement for the
patrons in suite areas. Which two attributes are relevant to determining these coverage requirements? (Choose two.)
A. hours d operon
B. encryption type
C. authentication type
D. number of uses
E. device types
Correct Answer: CE


QUESTION 5
An engineer is assigned to assist a customer by estimating the number of access points needed to provide voice-grade
wireless coverage in a carpeted office space. How many access points should be estimated to cover this space of
roughly 38,000 square feet?
A. 17
B. 10
C. 6
D. 13
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 6
A customer has restricted the AP and antenna combinations for a design to be limited to one model integrated antenna
AP for carpeted spaces and one model external antenna AP, with high gain antennas for industrial, maintenance, or
storage areas. When moving between a carpeted area to an industrial area, the engineer forgets to change survey
devices and surveys several APs. Which option is the best to reduce the negative impact of the design?
A. Deploy the specified access points per area type.
B. Resurvey and adjust the design.
C. Increase the Tx power on incorrectly surveyed access points.
D. Deploy unsurveyed access points to the design.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 7
An engineer is preparing for an active site survey of a hospital and is informed that he or she should not enter any active
surgery suites. Which option describes how the engineer should address this restriction?
A. Conduct a passive wireless survey in the restricted areas.
B. Use the predictive AP placement tool on the wireless controller
C. Skip the area and estimate where to place the access points.
D. Arrange to perform survey activities after hours.
Correct Answer: A
Passive Survey
Passive surveys are surveys that are performed with a listen-only mode. The survey client never associates to the
access point (AP). Such surveys can be helpful when you look for rogue devices or you want a good gauge of downlink
RF
coverage from the infrastructure devices.
These can be accomplished with a passive survey:


QUESTION 8
An engineer is implementing Q0S for a new wireless voice network. Which two considerations should be identified first?
(Choose two.)
A. QoS marking
B. policing
C. QoS requirements
D. data traffic usage
E. traffic classification
Correct Answer: CE


QUESTION 9
A customer has deployed an N+N redundant wireless infrastructure. In this deployment, the access points have been
salt and peppered between controllers. What configuration would be necessary to cut down on the use of mobility
tunnels for voice clients?
A. mobility anchor
B. KIS based CAC
C. media session snooping
D. re-anchor roamed voice clients
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 10
An engineer is determining powering requirements for a P2P wireless link using Cisco Aironet 1572EC access points.
Which power method is valid for the access point?
A. 802.3af Power over Ethernet
B. Power over Cable
C. Cisco Inline Power
D. 802.3at Power over Ethernet
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 11
An engineer receives a digital image scanned from the floor plans of a facility to be surveyed for wireless survey and
imported it into Air Magnet Pro. However, the document contains no scale. Which action can the engineer take to most
accurately calibrate the size of the floor plan in Air Magnet?
A. Mark the length of a hallway, then count the ceiling tiles, multiply that number by 2 and enter that value.
B. Zoom in and mark across a hallway, then count the floor tiles across that hallway and enter that value.
C. Zoom in and mark a doorway, then size it at 3 feet because most doorways are 36 inches.
D. Mark the entire longest dimension of the floorplan, then use Google Earth to measure the correspondingoutside
dimension and enter that value.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 12
A wireless engineer is hired to troubleshoot wireless network issues and discovers that the customer is using 802 11 ac
access points with 80 MHz-wide channels in a high-density environment. Which solution addresses these issues?
A. Disable RRM on the WLC.
B. Disable TPC on the WLC
C. Decrease the channel width.
D. Increase the minimum data rate supported
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 13
When conducting a wireless survey at a customer facility, signal attenuation in an area that is surrounded by thick glass
walls is noted as 2dB. When configuring Cisco Prime Infrastructure, which obstacle should be placed in a map editor to
represent the impact the glass wall will have on the RF signal in the facility?
A. heavy door
B. thick wall
C. glass
D. light wall
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 14
IEEE 802.llk-2008 is an amendment to IEEE 80211-2007 standard for radio resource management. A wireless engineer
is designing a wireless network to support real time applications over wireless. Which IEEE protocol must the engineer
enable on the WLC so that neighbor list radio management packets are sent to the wireless devices?
A. 802.1 1r
B. 802.1 1w
C. 802.1 1i
D. 802.1 1k
Correct Answer: D
You can optimize roaming for non-802.11k clients by generating a prediction neighbor list for each client without sending
an 802.11k neighbor list request. When prediction based roaming enables a WLAN, after each successful client
association/re-association, the same neighbor list optimization applies on the non- 802.11k client to generate and store
the neighbor list in the mobile station software data structure. Clients at different locations have different lists because
the client probes are seen with different RSSI values by the different neighbors as the clients usually probe before any
association or re-association. This list is created with the most updated probe data and predicts the next AP that the
client is likely to roam to. https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/8-1/Enterprise-Mobility-8-1-Design-
Guide/Enter prise_Mobility_8-1_Deployment_Guide/Chapter-11.html


QUESTION 15
An engineer is assigned to replace an older data-grade autonomous wireless network with a Cisco controllerbased
wireless network to meet Voice over WLAN needs. The customer also wants all existing cable infrastructure to be
reused and
no new cable be specified.
How should the engineer respond to the customer\\’s requirements?
A. Implement the wireless network with the restraints and decrease the TPC neighbor threshold to increase Txpower to
provide overlapping cell coverage at sufficient SNR to provide for Voice over WLAN service.
B. Implement the wireless network with the restraints and utilize high-gain antenna to provide overlapping cellcoverage
at sufficient SNR to provide for Voice over WLAN service.
C. Inform the customer that the network will not likely function as desired and a post install survey with thepossibility of
some new cable would be recommended.
D. Inform the customer that it is not possible to provide coverage and quality for Voice over WLAN usingexisting AP
locations and an entire overbuild will be necessary.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 16
When designing a WLAN, AP placement is important. Which option describes how to rank the density of APs needed to
support location services versus data and voice services?
A. Data services have the lowest density of APs compared to location services, which has the highest density.
B. Data services have a lower density of APs compared to location services, but more than voice.
C. Voice services have the highest density of APs over location and data services.
D. Voice and data services require a higher density of APs than location services.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 17
You have a customer that is building a new campus of four 3-story buildings that you have just completed the site
survey for. The customer is interested in the mount of rack space they will need to allocate in either the building MDF or
in the
data center for controllers. Each building is going to require 75 APs to support voice and data.
How should the controllers be deployed to provide the least number of controllers, the highest redundancy, and the
easiest management?
A. Use the centralized deployment method in the data center with the N + N redundancy method.
B. Use the centralized deployment method in the data center with the N + 1 redundancy method
C. Use the centralized deployment method in the data center with the 1 + 1 redundancy method and clientSSO.
D. Use the distributed deployment method in each building MDF with the N + 1 redundancy method.
E. Use the distributed deployment method in each building MDF with the N + N + 1 redundancy method.
F. Use the distributed deployment method in each building MDF with the N + N redundancy method.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 18
An engineer is performing a predictive wireless design for a Parts Distribution Center, which requires data and location
services. Which three requirements are inputs to the design? (Choose three.)
A. access points with directional antennas
B. continuous -67 dBm coverage from one access point
C. overlapping -75 dBm coverage from three access points
D. overlapping -67 dBm coverage from two access points
E. access points in IPS mode
F. continuous -72 dBm coverage from one access point
G. access points in corners and along perimeters
Correct Answer: BCG


QUESTION 19
A customer is deploying a mesh outdoor wireless network based on FCC standards where spectrum analysis shows
significant radar energy propagating throughout the coverage area from a local weather station. Which channel must be
excluded from the access points RRM calculation to avoid network disruption due to weather radar activity?
A. 132
B. 44
C. 11
D. 36
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 20
Which infrastructure issue needs to be verified and potentially resolved before deploying a centralized 802.11n WLAN?
A. That all the access layer switches that the 802.11n APs will connect to support 802.3af power.
B. That all the access layer switches that the 802.11n APs will connect to contain 10/100/1000 Ethernet ports.
C. The location of application and authentication servers.
D. The proposed location for the WDS server.
E. The proposed location for the WCS.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 21
A customer has determined that a cable run for a low-throughput RF design is not economically feasible to install. Which
two access point modes can alleviate these customer concerns? (Choose two.)
A. bridge
B. sniffer
C. Flex+Bridge
D. FlexConnect
E. local
Correct Answer: BC


QUESTION 22
When implementing video teleconferencing over a wireless network, which three attributes should be considered when
cell planning? (Choose three.)
A. latency
B. jitter
C. throughput
D. packet loss
E. client association
F. number of users on the network
Correct Answer: ABD


QUESTION 23
An engineer is tuning RRM parameters to improve client connectivity. Which channel band results in the best 802.11n
client compatibility?
A. UNII-2
B. UNII-2e
C. UNII-3
D. UNII
E. UNII-1
Correct Answer: E


QUESTION 24
An engineer has performed a post-deployment site survey and noticed that access points were installed in suboptimal
locations due to physical restrictions and obstacles. Which action must the engineer take to resolve this deployment
issue?
A. Set DCA Channel Assignment Method to freeze.
B. Set all Auto RE parameters to factory default
C. Set TPC maximum and minimum power levels.
D. Set static channels on all AP radios.
Correct Answer: C
Suspect poor coverage/not enough AP density — If AP transmit power is already at the maximum, you can enable the
lower data rates to allow clients to connect from farther away. This has a negative impact on performance, but it can
help the customer understand that additional APs might be necessary. https://
www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless/5500-series-wireless-controllers/116057-site-survey -guidelines-
wlan-00.html


QUESTION 25
An access point will be partially exposed to the outdoor environment in a loading dock of a factory. How should this
access point be deployed in a cost-effective manner?
A. indoor AP with an external leaky coaxial cable
B. outdoor mesh AP utilizing the 5-GHz band
C. outdoor bridge AP pointing its antenna toward the factory
D. indoor-based AP inside a NEMA-rated enclosure
Correct Answer: B
Because mesh radio waves have very high frequency in the 5-GHz band, the radio wavelength is small; therefore, the
radio waves do not travel as far as radio waves on lower frequencies, given the same amount of power. This higher
frequency range makes the mesh ideal for unlicensed use because the radio waves do not travel far unless a high-gain
antenna is used to tightly focus the radio waves in a given direction. https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/
technology/mesh/7-0MR1/design/guide/MeshAP_70MR1 .html#wp1849065


QUESTION 26
Which two factors influence the density of APs in a data-only WLAN environment? (Choose two.)
A. Channel reuse and WLAN bandwidth
B. The type of controller chosen.
C. The defined coverage area and customer needs.
D. The number of clients that will roam through the facility.
E. The number of APs dedicated to voice services.
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 27
A customer has determined that aesthetics is a primary concern for their upcoming guest deployment. Which design
consideration can be leveraged to address this concern?
A. Paint the access point to cover the LED from being noticeable
B. Use enclosures to hide the wireless infrastructure in the surrounding environment
C. Deploy environmentally friendly cabling components to blend into the environment.
D. Use AIR-AP-BRACKET-1 to allow for greater mounting locations
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 28
An engineer is deploying an outdoor Mesh network. Which four major factors should be considered? (Choose four.)
A. power
B. buildings
C. traffic lights
D. satellite dishes
E. line of sight
F. network connectivity
G. power lines
H. mounting
Correct Answer: AEFH


QUESTION 29
You are planning the coverage for wireless VoIP by using Ekahau. Which signal strength does Ekahau recommend
using for VoIP?
A. -84 dBm
B. -76 dBm
C. -67 dBm
D. -53 dBm
Correct Answer: C
Each vendor has their own recommended signal strength for a given data rate or application. For instance, one vendor
may recommend designing their VoIP solution at -67 dBm (perhaps the most widely-used value for VoIP deployment if I
had to choose one), while another may say -70 dBm. In most cases the values will differ only by a couple dB.
https://www.ekahau.com/blog/2015/01/13/ekahau-site-survey-heatmap-visualizations-part-2-signal-stren gth/


QUESTION 30
Which two factors influence the density of APs in a data-only WLAN environment? (Choose two.)
A. the number of clients that will roam through the facility
B. the type of controller chosen
C. the defined coverage area and customer needs
D. the number of APs dedicated to voice services
E. channel reuse and WLAN bandwidth
Correct Answer: CE

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QUESTION 1
Drag Drop
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300-115 dumps
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300-115 dumps
QUESTION 2
Drag Drop
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300-115 dumps
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300-115 dumps
QUESTION 3
Drag and Drop
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300-115 dumps
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300-115 dumps
QUESTION 4
Drag and Drop
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300-115 dumps
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300-115 dumps
QUESTION 5
Drag and Drop
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300-115 dumps
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300-115 dumps
QUESTION 6
Drag and Drop
Drag the attributes on the left to the types of VLAN designs that they describe on the right.
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300-115 dumps
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300-115 dumps
QUESTION 7
Drag and Drop
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300-115 dumps
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300-115 dumps
QUESTION 8
Drag and Drop
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300-115 dumps
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300-115 dumps
QUESTION 9
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QUESTION 10
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300-115 dumps
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300-115 dumps
QUESTION 11
Drag and Drop
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300-115 dumps
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300-115 dumps
QUESTION 12
Drag and Drop
Match the HSRP states on the left with the correct definition on the right. 300-115 dumps
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300-115 dumps
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300-115 dumps
QUESTION 13
Drag and Drop
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300-115 dumps
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300-115 dumps
QUESTION 14
Drag and Drop
PortFast / BPDU Guard / BPDU Filter.
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300-115 dumps
QUESTION 15
Drag and Drop
PVST+ / Rapid PVST+ / MSTP
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300-115 dumps
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300-115 dumps
QUESTION 16
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STP Timers
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300-115 dumps
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300-115 dumps
QUESTION 17
Drag and Drop
Port Cost / Switch Port Priority / Port Priority
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300-115 dumps
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300-115 dumps
QUESTION 18
Drag and Drop
Guard Root / Guard Loop
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300-115 dumps
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300-115 dumps
QUESTION 19
Drag and Drop
STP Timer Delay
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300-115 dumps
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300-115 dumps
QUESTION 20
Drag and Drop
LLDP-TLV
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300-115 dumps
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300-115 dumps

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