Cisco CCT Data Center 010-151 exam dumps best resources, easily pass 010-151 exam

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010-151 DCTECH – Cisco:https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/dctech.html

The Cisco Certified Technician (CCT) for Data Center validates a technician’s competency in the following areas;

  • Basic Cisco NX-OS configuration
  • Cisco Data Center products and hardware components with an emphasis on the Cisco Unified Computing System (UCS).

The curriculum covers remedial services (HW break-fix) on Cisco Data Center products, including hardware replacement, software, and configuration backup and restores, check the safety and environmental requirement, recognize connection type and cable requirement,
and perform basic physical layer troubleshooting. The Cisco Certified Technician (CCT) should be competent in the following areas;
basic Cisco NX-OS configuration, Cisco Data Center products, and hardware components.

The Cisco Certified Technician should be able to perform remedial services (HW break-fix) on Cisco Data Center products, including software and configuration backup and restore, check the safety and environmental requirement, recognize connection type and cable requirement, and perform basic physical layer troubleshooting.

Latest updates Cisco 010-151 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
What is the maximum number of supervisor modules that the Cisco MDS 9710 Switch supports?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6
E. 8
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which two statements about DIMM replacement in Cisco UCS Servers are true? (Choose two.)
A. In blade servers, DIMMs can be installed in either 1, 2, 4, or 8 DIMMs per channel.
B. Rack-mount and blade servers have memory fault LEDs that indicate which DIMM requires attention.
C. In servers that require pairs of DIMMs, the pairs must be identical (manufacturer, size, part #, and so on).
D. If the memory in a server is not fully populated, you can install DIMMs in any open slot.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 3
Which two statements about the Ethernet media are true? (Choose two.)
A. A twisted-pair cable system has each pair of wires twisted together to reduce electromagnetic interference.
B. Compared to multimode fiber, the single-mode fiber is designed for shorter distances with higher cost.
C. 40 Gigabit Ethernet twinax cables deploy Enhanced Quad Small Form Factor Pluggable (QSFP+) connectors.
D. The twinax cables can be found in either a shielded twisted-pair or an unshielded twisted-pair variation.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 4
Which Cisco NX-OS command displays kernel uptime?
A. show module
B. show version
C. show license
D. show boot
E. show interface
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which command-line interface mode is best described by this prompt?
UCS-switch-A (nxos)#
A. maintenance mode
B. EXEC mode
C. local management mode
D. global configuration mode
E. Cisco IOS mode
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
What is the maximum distance that the 40GBASE-LR4 Ethernet standard can span?
A. 550 m
B. 10 km
C. 40 km
D. 80 km
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 010-151 exam question q7

Where is the best place to see the power supply status of the blade server enclosure?
A. A – Chassis 1
B. B – Chassis 1 – PSUs
C. C – Chassis1 – Servers
D. D – Rack-Mounts – Servers
E. E – Fabric Interconnects A – PSUs
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which Cisco Nexus 5000 Series model supports 1/10G BASE-T ports?
A. Cisco Nexus 5548P
B. Cisco Nexus 5548UP
C. Cisco Nexus 5596UP
D. Cisco Nexus 5596T
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 9
Which two statements about the Cisco Nexus 5596UP switch are true? (Choose two.)
A. Its power supplies and fan trays are hot-swappable.
B. It supports unified ports.
C. It is offered in a one-rack-unit form factor.
D. It has one expansion slot.
E. It supports up to 96 10G BASE-T ports.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 010-151 exam question q10

Which Cisco MDS chassis supports the 48-Port 16-Gbps Fibre Channel Switching Module?
A. MDS 9509
B. MDS 9513
C. MDS 9710
D. MDS 9506
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
The Ethernet specification details several different fiber optic media types. What is the wire transmission speed for
100BASE-FX Ethernet?
A. 10 Mb/s
B. 100 Mb/s
C. 1000 Mb/s
D. 10000 Mb/s
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which device provides analysis of Fibre Channel traffic without any network disruption?
A. Cisco MDS 9000 Data Analyzer Adapter
B. Cisco MDS 9000 Port Analyzer Adapter
C. Cisco MDS 9000 Channel Analyzer Device
D. Cisco MDS 9000 Channel Analyzer Adapter
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which action should the administrator take before physically removing a blade server for maintenance or replacement?
A. Force the server to shut down.
B. Disassociate the service profile.
C. Decommission the server.
D. Perform a graceful shutdown of the server.
Correct Answer: C

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Cisco 400-051 exam exercise questions, 400-051 dumps easy to prepare for passing exams

CCIE Collaboration Written Exam” Exam 400-051. Here you can get the latest free 400-051 exam exercise questions and answers for free and easily improve your skills!

400-051 exam

This exam validates that candidates have the skills to plan, design, implement, operate, and troubleshoot enterprise collaboration and communication networks.

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Free Cisco 400-051 Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
When using LDAP synchronization to automatically create and synchronize Cisco Unified Communications Manager
end users, which two LDAP attributes can be synchronized to directory URI? (Choose two.)
A. emailaddress
B. msRTCSIPuseraddress
C. mail
D. msRTCSIPprimaryuseraddress
E. email
Correct Answer: CD

 

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit. Which option is the MOS value in this Cisco IOS snippet?lead4pass 400-051 exam question q2

A. 0.0000
B. 3.7001
C. 3
D. 4.1320
E. 1.0000
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 3
Which device pool configuration setting will override the device-level settings only when a device is roaming within a
device mobility group?
A. SRST Reference
B. Media Resource Group List
C. Region
D. Calling Party Transformation CSS
E. Location
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 4
Which three Software Licensing transport setting types are available on UCM 12.0 for license management? (Choose
three)
A. Smart Licence Manager Proxy
B. Prime Licences Manager
C. HTTP/HTTPS proxy
D. Direct
E. Transport gateway
F. Enterprise License Manager
Correct Answer: CDE

 

QUESTION 5
Company ABC has implemented Cisco Meeting Server (CMS) WebRTC feature using CMS Single Combined
deployment model. When testing this implementation, they found that users can login using WebRTC but are unable to
join a Space meeting and the “Join Call” option for guests is not available. What is the root cause of this issue?
A. CMS Webbridge is not able to connect to XMPP component
B. TURN media ports are blocked between CMS Webbridge and User PC
C. CMS Webbridge http-redirect configuration is not enabled
D. CMS Webbridge does not trust Callbridge certificate
E. CMS Callbridge cannot connect to XMPP component
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 6
Which Cisco Unity Connection call handler greeting, when enable, overrides all other greetings?
A. Alternate
B. Busy
C. Closed
D. Holiday
E. Internal
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 7
Which three statements about configuring partitioned intradomain federation to Lync are true? (Choose three)
A. Intradomain federation to Lync is only possible using SIP
B. IMandP and Lync should federate to any required remote domains
C. You must update the URIs of any users migrated from Lync to IMandP to match the Cisco Unified Presence server
SIP URI format
D. A static route must be added to point the local presence domain to the Lync server
E. Microsoft RCC must be enabled
F. The Enable use of Email Address when Federating option can be turned on if SIP URIs are different between IMandP
and Lync
Correct Answer: ACD

 

QUESTION 8
Which Cisco Unified Contact Center Express data store contains user scripts, grammars, and documents?
A. configuration data store
B. repository data store
C. agent data store
D. historical data store
E. script data store
Correct Answer: B
Unified CCX applications might use auxiliary files that interact with callers, such as scripts, pre-recorded prompts,
grammars, and custom Java classes. Depending on each implementation, Unified CCX applications use some or all of
the following file types. The Unified CCX Server\\’s local disk prompt, grammar, and document files are synchronized
with the central repository during Unified CCX engine startup and during run-time when the Repository datastore is
modified.

 

QUESTION 9
When Cisco Unity Connection users attempt to connect using Web Inbox and receive a Site Is Unavailable error
message, which service status should be verified?
A. Tomcat
B. Connection Exchange Notification Web Service
C. Connection Voicemail Web Service
D. Connection Administration
E. Secured Web Server
Correct Answer: A
Cisco Tomcat service, as the name suggests, is used by the Web Server of CUCM and helps display the administration,
operating system, disaster recovery, and other GUI interfaces of CUCM. The service leverages a built-in CA for Tomcat
in that it redirects the incoming HTTP requests to HTTPS using the default self-signed certificate.

 

QUESTION 10
Which statement describes the supported integration method when Cisco Unity Connection and Cisco Unified
Communications Manager are installed on the same server as Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business
Edition?
A. Only SCCP integration is supported.
B. Only SIP integration is supported.
C. Both SCCP or SIP integration are supported, but you must choose one or the other.
D. Q-Sig integration is supported through a voice-enabled Cisco ISR router.
E. Circuit-switched integration is supported through PIMG.
Correct Answer: A
When installed on the same server there is no way to create trunk that is why sccp is the only way Cisco Unity
Connection and Cisco Unified Communications Manager are installed on the same server.

 

QUESTION 11
A Company that is using the Cisco Unified Contact Center Express Enhanced version requires that selected types of
agent calls are automatically recorded.
Which call recording operation can be used to satisfy this requirement?
A. Instruct agents to use the Record button on Cisco IPPA to trigger recording
B. Instruct supervisors to use the Record button on Cisco Agent Desktop to trigger recording
C. Instruct supervision to use the Record button on Cisco supervisor Desktop to trigger recording
D. Configure the Cisco Agent Desktop workflow to trigger recording
E. Recording s not supported on the Cisco Unified CCX Enhanced version. It is supported only on the Premium
version.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 12
Which Cisco ISO-XE dial-peer command has the highest preference for inbound H.323 dial- peer matching?
A. Incoming calling-number e164-pattren-map
B. Destination-pattern
C. Incoming URI to
D. Answer-address
E. Incoming called-number
Correct Answer: E


QUESTION 13
Which option is the default Cisco Wireless Unified Communications endpoints marking for video media traffic or video
RTP traffic?
A. DSCP 8
B. DSCP 24
C. DSCP 34
D. DSCP 46
Correct Answer: C
When configuring network-level quality of service (QoS), Cisco video endpoints (including Cisco Unified IP Phone 8900
and 9900 Series and Cisco TelePresence System EX Series devices) generally mark traffic at Layer 3 according to
Cisco general QoS guidelines related to voice and video packet marking (video media as DSCP 34 or PHB AF41; call
signaling as DSCP 24 or PHB CS3) and therefore these devices can be trusted.

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Q

UESTION 1
What happens if location-based CAC is used and there is no bandwidth available when a remote caller is placed on
hold?
A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager sends TOH rather than MOH.
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager terminates the call.
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager plays default MOH.
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager attempts to reconnect the call immediately.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 2
Which statement best describes globalized call routing in Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. All incoming calling numbers on the phones are displayed as an E.164 with the + prefix.
B. Call routing is based on numbers represented as an E.164 with the + prefix format.
C. All called numbers sent out to the PSTN are in E.164 with the + prefix format.
D. The CSS of all phones contain partitions assigned to route patterns that are in global format.
E. All phone directory numbers are configured as an E.164 with the + prefix.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Incorrect answer: ACDE For the destination to be represented in a global form common to all cases, we
must adopt a global form of the destination number from which all local forms can be derived. The + sign is the
mechanism used by the ITU\\’s E.164 recommendation to represent any PSTN number in a global, unique way. This
form is sometimes referred to as a fully qualified PSTN number. Link:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/srnd/7x/dialplan.html#wp1153205

 

QUESTION 3
On which Cisco Unified Communications Manager configuration parameter does the CODEC that a Cisco IP Phone
uses for a call depend?
A. enterprise parameters
B. media resources
C. physical location
D. region
E. location
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 4
What are two important considerations when implementing TEHO to reduce long-distance cost? (Choose two.)
A. on-net calling patterns
B. E911 calling
C. number of route patterns
D. caller ID
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 5
An engineer is setting up a Cisco VCS Cluster with SIP endpoints only. While configuring the Cisco VCS peers, which
signaling protocol is used between peers to determine the best route for calls?
A. SIP
B. H.323
C. SCCP
D. MGCP
Correct Answer: B
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/telepresence/infrastructure/vcs/config_guide/X8 7/Cisco-VCS-Cluster-Creation-and-Maintenance-Deployment-Guide-X8-7.pdf (page 4, basic configuration is done, third point)

 

QUESTION 6
You want to avoid unnecessary interworking in Cisco TelePresence Video Communication Server, such as where a call
between two H.323 endpoints is made over SIP, or vice versa. Which setting is recommended?
A. H.323 – SIP interworking mode. Reject
B. H.323 – SIP interworking mode. On
C. H.323 – SIP interworking mode. Registered only
D. H.323 – SIP interworking mode. Off
E. H.323 – SIP interworking mode. Variable
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 7
Which statement about Enhanced Locationbased CAC on a Cisco Unified Communications Managerbased voice
network
A. E-LCAC can adjust its knowledge of effective paths due to link failures and reconfigurations.
B. Every cluster that participates in LBM requires the location be locally configured for location to device association
C. Each cluster requires a complete view of the modeled topology.
D. Each cluster should be configured with the immediate neighboring locations such that the topology of each cluster
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 8
Company X has a primary and a backup Cisco Unified Communications Manager instance. The administrator had to do
maintenance on the primary node and did a shutdown, which resulted in a failover to the backup node. What happens
when the primary node comes back online?
A. The primary node becomes the backup node.
B. Endpoints detect that the primary is back and reregisters automatically.
C. The backup node must be shut down first to allow the endpoints to realize that the primary node is online again.
D. Nothing, the endpoints only failover when the node they lose connection to their registered node.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 9
What impact do roaming-sensitive settings and Device Mobility settings have on call routing?
A. Device Mobility settings have no impact on call routing, but roaming-sensitive settings modify the AAR group, AAR
CSS, and device CSS.
B. Device Mobility settings modify the device CSS and the roaming-sensitive settings modify the AAR group and AAR
CSS.
C. Device Mobility settings modify the AAR group and the AAR CSS, the roaming-sensitive settings modify the device
CSS.
D. Roaming-sensitive settings are settings that do not have an impact on call routing. Device Mobility settings, on the
other hand, may have an impact on call routing because they modify the device CSS, AAR group, and AAR CSS.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 10
When an H.323 trunk is added for Call Control Discovery, which statement is true?
A. The H.323 trunk is added by selecting Inter-Cluster Trunk (Non-Gatekeeper Controlled) and Device Protocol Inter-
Cluster Trunk. The Enable SAF check box should be selected in the trunk configuration.
B. The H.323 trunk is added by selecting Inter-Cluster Trunk (Non-Gatekeeper Controlled) and Device Protocol Inter-
Cluster Trunk. The Trunk Service Type should be Call Control Discovery.
C. The H.323 trunk is added by selecting Call Control Discovery Trunk and then selecting
D. 323 as the protocol to be used.
E. The H.323 trunk is added by selecting H.323 Trunk, and selecting Inter-Cluster Trunk as the Device Protocol. The
destination IP address field is configured as `SAF\\’ to indicate that this trunk is used for SAF.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 300-075 exam question q11

The remote site needs to run multicast MOH from flash. Which statement about the MOH server configuration in Cisco
Unified Communications Manager is true?
A. The MOH server must be enabled for G.729 in the Cisco IP Voice Media Streaming Application service parameters.
B. Multicast MOH can use only G.711. So you must configure the command codec G711ulaw under the call-manager-
fallback configuration at the remote site router.
C. The MOH for the remote site is a standalone configuration. No extra configuration is required on the Cisco Unified
Communications Manager MOH server.
D. Configure a separate region for the MOH server. The codec between the MOH region and all other regions should be
specified as G.711. Apply the MOH region through a device pool at the MOH server configuration page.
E. Configure the location setting for the MOH server to 80 Kbps. This configuration forces the MOH server to use G.711
for the remote site.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit.
The HQ site uses area code 650. The BR1 site uses area code 408. The long distance national code for PSTN dialing is
1. To make a long distance national call, an HQ or BR1 user dials access code 9, followed by 1, and then the 10-digit
number. Both sites use MGCP gateways. AAR must use globalized call routing using a single route pattern. Assume
that all outgoing PSTN numbers are localized at the egress gateway as shown in the exhibit. Which statement is true?lead4pass 300-075 exam question q12

A. The AAR group system must be configured on the device configuration of the phones.
B. The AAR group system must be configured on the line configuration of the phones.
C. The single AAR group system cannot be used. A second AAR group must be configured in order to have source and
destination AAR groups.
D. The AAR group system must be configured under the AAR service parameters.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 13
The network administrator of Enterprise X receives reports that at peak hours, some calls between remote offices are
not passing through. Investigation shows no connectivity problems. The network administrator wants to estimate the
volume of calls being affected by this issue.
Which two RTMT counters can give more information on this? (Choose two.)
A. CallsRingNoAnswer
B. OutOfResources
C. LocationOutOfResources
D. RequestsThrottled
E. CallsAttempted
Correct Answer: BC

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QUESTION 1
Which option is a BFD design consideration?
A. BFD should not be used with RSVP-TE backup tunnels.
B. BFD echo mode may reduce convergence time.
C. BFD does not support sessions over MPLS LSPs.
D. BFD is supported on indirectly connected peers.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 352-001 exam question q2

As part of your design to monitor reachable services, a route health injector has just been deployed on the network. The
route health injector injects /32 host routes into BGP with the next hop of 192.18.0.2, but the /32 routes are not being
installed into the RIB or FIB of Router A. Which BGP feature must be deployed to make be deployed to make the design
to work?
A. BGP community attributes
B. MP-BGP
C. BGP AS-Path prepending
D. eBGP multihop attribute
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 3
A mobile service provider wants to design and deploy an Ethernet service with similar physical link failover/failback
characteristics on the active/backup links as APS/MSP SONET. Which Layer 2 service addresses this design
requirement?
A. Ethernet Pseudowires
B. FlexLink
C. MLPPP
D. Port-Channel
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 4
Which two statements about AToM are true? (Choose two)
A. It encapsulates Layer 2 frames at the egress PE
B. When using AToM, the IP precedence filed is not copied to the MPLS packet
C. AToM supports connecting different L2 technologies using interworking option
D. The loopback address of the PE router must be either /24 or /32
E. It provides support for L2VPN features on ATM interfaces
Correct Answer: CE


QUESTION 5
Which network management tool should a network manager consult in order to pinpoint the cause of a routing recursion
error?
A. debug (for BGP output)
B. syslog (for BGP errors)
C. RMON events group
D. SNMP routing traps
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 6
What are two reasons to choose L2TPv3 over other technologies for a VPN solution? (Choose two.)
A. The VPN solution does not contain MPLS on the network core.
B. The VPN solution should support Frame Relay to Ethernet pseudowire connections.
C. The VPN solution requires multipoint Ethernet LAN service.
D. The VPN solution should be industry-standard.
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 7
You are designing an IEEE 802.1X solution for a customer, where the network supports a large number of IP phones
and printers.
You plan to configure MAC address bypass for the phones and printers. What is your primary design and security
concern?
A. the additional AAA traffic on the network
B. the placement of the AAA server
C. the potential of MAC address spoofing
D. the scaling of the MAC address database
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 8
What is a characteristic of traffic shaping?
A. It minimizes traffic transmission intervals.
B. It remarks excess packets above the committed rates.
C. It delays and can drop excess traffic.
D. It classifies traffic based on certain characteristics.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 9
An enterprise company needs to transport multicast traffic between its hub-and-spoke WAN routers over an MPLS
Layer 3 VPN provider that does not currently support multicast. Which option describes how this enterprise how this
enterprise can achieve this requirement in a cost-effective way?
A. Use MSDP over the WAN.
B. Enable multicast routing on the WAN physical and tunnel interfaces.
C. Create multicast-enabled GRE tunnels over the WAN between the hub-and-spoke routers.
D. Provide an Internet link to each site and use DMVPN over the Internet.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 10
Which three options are important functions of IPv6 first-hop security? (Choose three.)
A. implements a broadcast-control mechanism
B. limits IPv6 route advertisement in the network
C. suppresses excessive multicast neighbor discovery
D. prevents IPv6 packet fragmentation
E. prevents rogue DHCP servers from assigning IPv6 addresses
Correct Answer: BCE


QUESTION 11
The Database team will deploy a new clustering technology that uses IPv4, multicast- based data replication, where the
servers listen and transmit at the same time on multiple groups. Multicast is not being run on the current network and
there are no plans to enable it. New Layer 2 switches will be purchased to connect new servers in order to keep
multicast traffic off the existing network. Which two features should the new switches support to provide good multicast
performance? (Choose two.)
A. IGMP snooping
B. PIM snooping
C. MLD snooping
D. IGMP querier
E. Bidirectional PIM
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 12
A Company has these requirements for access to their wireless and wired corporate LANs using 802.1x
Clients devices that corporate assets and have joined the active directory domain are allowed access
Personal devices must be not allowed access
Clients and access servers must be mutually authenticated.
Which solution meets these requirements?
A. Protected EAP/Microsoft CHAP v2 with user authentication
B. EAP-TLS with machine authentication
C. EAP-TLS with user authentication
D. Protected EAP/Microsoft CHAP v2 with Machine authentication
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 13
What are two reasons for instrumenting your network and network devices to collect performance data? (Choose two.)
A. to determine the impact of jitter and latency on application performance
B. to enable capacity planning decisions
C. to route traffic around constrained choke points in the network
D. to determine the locations at which QoS needs to be implemented
Correct Answer: BD

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This exam focuses on the technologies used to strengthen security of a network perimeter such as Network Address Translation (NAT), ASA policy and application inspect, and a zone-based firewall on Cisco routers.

Free test Cisco CCNP Security 300-206 Exam questions and Answers

QUESTION 1
Which two web browsers are supported for the Cisco ISE GUI? (Choose two.)
A. HTTPS-enabled Mozilla Firefox version 3.x
B. Netscape Navigator version 9
C. Microsoft Internet Explorer version 8 in Internet Explorer 8-only mode
D. Microsoft Internet Explorer version 8 in all Internet Explorer modes
E. Google Chrome (all versions)
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 2
You are the administrator of a Cisco ASA 9.0 firewall and have been tasked with ensuring that the Firewall Admins
Active Directory group has full access to the ASA configuration. The Firewall Operators Active Directory group should
have a
more limited level of access.
Which statement describes how to set these access levels?
A. Use Cisco Directory Agent to configure the Firewall Admins group to have privilege level 15 access. Also configure
the Firewall Operators group to have privilege level 6 access.
B. Use TACACS+ for Authentication and Authorization into the Cisco ASA CLI, with ACS as the AAA server. Configure
ACS CLI command authorization sets for the Firewall Operators group. Configure level 15 access to be assigned to
members of the Firewall Admins group.
C. Use RADIUS for Authentication and Authorization into the Cisco ASA CLI, with ACS as the AAA server. Configure
ACS CLI command authorization sets for the Firewall Operators group. Configure level 15 access to be assigned to
members of the Firewall Admins group.
D. Active Directory Group membership cannot be used as a determining factor for accessing the Cisco ASA CLI.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 3
When you install a Cisco ASA AIP-SSM, which statement about the main Cisco ASDM home page is true?
A. It is replaced by the Cisco AIP-SSM home page.
B. It must reconnect to the NAT policies database.
C. The administrator can manually update the page.
D. It displays a new Intrusion Prevention panel.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 4
You moved your servers from physical to virtual infrastructure, how to defend it ?
A. Cisco V
B. Cisco ASA 1000V
C. VXLAN
D. VSG
Correct Answer: BD
Cisco VSG and the ASA 1000V provide complementary functionalities. The VSG provides virtual machine context-
aware and zone-based security capabilities. The ASA 1000V provides tenant edge security and default gateway
functionalities.
Together, they provide a trusted and comprehensive virtual and cloud security Portfolio.
From: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/switches/virtual-security-gateway/index.html Second – you moved your
servers from physical to virtual infrastructure, how to defend it – Cisco V, Cisco ASA 1000V, VXLAN, VSG


QUESTION 5
About User identity with domain (there is a screen), if user is not in domain, what identity will be?
A. local
B. default
Correct Answer: A
ASA Identity Firewal:
The default domain is used for all users and user groups when a domain has not been explicitly configured for those
users or groups. When a default domain is not specified, the default domain for users and groups is LOCAL.
Additionally, the
Identity Firewall uses the LOCAL domain for all locally defined user groups or locally defined users (users who log in
and authenticate by using a VPN or web portal).


QUESTION 6
Which statement about Dynamic ARP Inspection is true ?
A. In a typical network, you make all ports as trusted expect for the ports connection to switches , which are untrusted
B. DAI associates a trust state with each switch
C. DAI determines the validity of an ARP packet based on valid IP to MAC address binding from the DHCP snooping
database
D. DAI intercepts all ARP requests and responses on trusted ports only E. DAI cannot drop invalid ARP packets
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 7
Which Cisco Security Manager form factor is recommended for deployments with fewer than 25 devices?
A. only Cisco Security Manager Standard
B. only Cisco Security Manager Professional
C. only Cisco Security Manager UCS Server Bundle
D. both Cisco Security Manager Standard and Cisco Security Manager Professional
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 8
Which of the following that Cisco engineer must secure a current monitoring environment? (Choose Two)
A. RSA-SIG
B. MD5
C. AES
D. 3DES
E. DES
Correct Answer: CD


QUESTION 9
Which Cisco ASA (8.4.1 and later) CLI command is the best command to use for troubleshooting SSH connectivity from
the Cisco ASA appliance to the outside 192.168.1.1 server?
A. telnet 192.168.1.1 22
B. ssh -l username 192.168.1.1
C. traceroute 192.168.1.1 22
D. ping tcp 192.168.1.1 22
E. packet-tracer input inside tcp 10.0.1.1 2043 192.168.4.1 ssh
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 10
What is needed for the successful synchronization between NTP servers with enabled authentication?
A. NTP Trusted Key
B. TLS certification (NTP certificates)
C. Stratum hash
D. Something else
Correct Answer: A
You can configure the Cisco CG-OS router to authenticate the time sources to which the local clock synchronizes.
When you enable NTP authentication, the Cisco CG-OS router synchronizes to a time source only if the source carries
one of the authentication keys specified by the ntp trusted-key command. The Cisco CG-OS router drops any packets
that fail the authentication check and prevents them from updating the local clock.


QUESTION 11
On the Cisco ASA, tcp-map can be applied to a traffic class using which MPF CLI configuration command?
A. inspect
B. sysopt connection
C. tcp-options
D. parameters
E. set connection advanced-options
Correct Answer: E


QUESTION 12
A. choosed to use udp as answer
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 13
Which command enables uRPF on ASA interface?
A. ip protection source
B. ip source guard enable
C. ip reverse-path verify reachable-via any
D. ip verify unicast source reachable-via interface_name
E. ip verify reverse-path interface interface_name
Correct Answer: E

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Latest effective Cisco 300-370 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
A WLAN was installed at a high AP density. DTPC is lowering the transmit power of many APs too low.
Which change m the DTPC transmit power threshold must be made to allow APs to globally increase AP transmit power
by 3dBm?
A. from 70 dBm to 73 dBm
B. from -70 dBm to -73 dBm
C. from 70 dBm to 67 dBm
D. from -70 dBm to -67 dBm
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 2
A Cisco WLC v7.0 is not seeing an AP join. Which starting prefix debug command can help determine a combination of
discovery/join and DHCP process status?
A. debug capwap events – from Cisco WLC
B. debug capwap events – from the AP
C. debug ip udp – from Cisco WLC
D. debug ip udp – from the AP
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 3
An engineer is troubleshooting non-802.11 interference and observes the shown output. Which interference signature is
the most harmful to Wi-Fi? Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 300-370 exam question - q3A. cordless phone
B. microwave oven
C. 2 4 GHz wideband jammer
D. FHSS Bluetooth
E. analog video camera
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 4
A company consists of two adjacent buildings, each with its own Cisco 5508 Wireless Controller with APs joined to the
controller in the building. The two controllers are configured identically except for interface IP addresses. Only one SSID
is
being used in both buildings. The clients in building A are not experiencing any connectivity issues, but (he clients in
building B report poor connections An engineer performs a site survey and finds co-channel interference, yet discovers
mac
Transmit Power Control was never performed on the APs and that Radio Resource Management is not functioning like it
does in building A Furthermore, the controllers are in the same RF group and controller A is elected RF leader.
Which action will improve client connections in building B?
A. Ensure WMM is enabled on the SSID
B. Manually select controller B as RF group leader.
C. Configure controller B to be in a separate RF group.
D. Doable the low data rates on the a radio and the b/g radio in building B.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 5
Which visual cue accurately describes a characteristic of the zone of impact displayed in Cisco Prime Infrastructure?
A. The closer the cirlce is to blue, the more localized the impact is.
B. The smaller the circle, the more localized the impact is.
C. The larger the circle, the more severe the impact is.
D. The more translucent the circle is, the more localized the impact is.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 6
A VoWLAN has been deployed at a customer site. and users report that audio is choppy in some areas The exhibit
captures a voice exchange between one phone that is associated to the AP at the end of the corridor (172.31 255 101)
and
another phone that is positioned in a conference room nearby. Which action enhances the voice application quality of
experience?
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 300-370 exam question - q6A. Change the basic rate configuration on the WLC to include 54 Mbps.
B. Change the WLAN QoS profile to platinum.
C. Decrease the AP power level.
D. Disable higher data rates on the controller.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 7
The AP is unable to join the controller. What is the cause of this error? Refer to the exhibit.
A. The controller code version is lower than the code of the AP attempting to join.
B. AP code is not the same as the controller and must download firmware.
C. AP model % not compatible with the controller code version.
D. The AP is riot conjured in the controller auth-list of acceptable APs.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 300-370 exam question - q8

A client reports being unable to log into the wireless network According to the output, which network information should
be verified?
A. the Failed Attempts log on the authentication server
B. that the AP has IP connectivity to the authentication server
C. that the user has an account on the authentication server
D. that the authentication and accounting configuration are correct
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 9
You have successfully configured HA and SSO using two Cisco 5508 Wireless LAN Controllers. You are able to access
the Active Primary WLC but are unable to access the Secondary Standby WLC. Which two methods will allow you to
access the standby unit? (Choose two.)
A. Via SSH to the Redundancy Management Interface.
B. Via Service Port Interface.
C. Via SSH to the Management Interface.
D. Via console connection.
Correct Answer: CD


QUESTION 10
An engineer is troubleshooting AP join issues on a wireless infrastructure. While gathering debugs, the engineer notices
that one of the commands may generate an excessive an excessive amount of data on the console. Which command
causes this to occur?
A. debug capwap detail enable
B. debug capwap errors enable
C. debug capwap info enable
D. debug capwap events enable
E. debug capwap packet enable
F. debug capwap payload enable
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 11
Which two statements about the WLAN are true? (Choose two)lead4pass 300-370 exam question - q11Refer to the exhibit. lead4pass 300-370 exam question - q11-1A. The client has a 5 GHz connection.
B. The client has authenticated.
C. The client is 802.11n capable.
D. The Cisco device is a 3600 series AP.
E. 802 11b data rates are disabled in this WLAN
Correct Answer: CE


QUESTION 12
Employees upgraded company issued OS devices. Which are configured to authenticate to the network using WPA2-
Eniefpnse 802 lx with LEAP As a result, the devices are no longer able to authenticate. Which action must the engineer
do
10 resolve the issue?
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 300-370 exam question - q12A. Redeploy the existing configuration profile.
B. Change LEAP certificate on the ACS server.
C. Reset the network settings on the devices.
D. Rejoin the enterprise network manually.
E. Deploy a new configuration profile with LEAP enabled
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 13
An engineer must open a support case with Cisco TAC. Which two commands verify the model and serial number of a
controller?(Choose two)
A. show sysinfo
B. show udi
C. show inventory
D. show boot
E. show tech-support
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 14
A client is failing EAP authentication and a debug shows that the server is sending an Access-Reject message. Which
action must you take to resolve authentication?
A. Verify that the Validate server certificate on the client is disabled.
B. Verify that the client certificates are from the proper CA and server certificate.
C. Verify that the client server certificate has the proper Windows OlDs.
D. Verify that the user account is the same in the client certificate.
E. Verify that the user is using the same password that is on the server
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 15
An engineer is using various techniques to discover and isolate rogues on the network. For which technique must the
engineer consider legal ramifications?
A. rogue AP containment
B. RF detection
C. switch port tracing
D. wire detection
E. Cisco Prime Infrastructure location services
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 16
A WLC receives a coverage hole detection alert from an AP. What two conditions must occur for the controller to
dynamically mitigate the situation? (Choose two.)
A. The AP serving the troubled client must currently have a power level 2 or lower.
B. The client must be able to dynamically raise its power level to match the new AP power.
C. The AP must be RF visible to additional APs on the other side of the coverage hole for calibration.
D. The client must have WMM-PS disabled to allow for the increased power usage.
E. The AP serving the troubled client must currently have a power level higher than 2.
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 17
A user reports being unable to connect to a server with a certain program while connected to wireless. Which
troubleshooting methodology can be used to begin the troubleshooting process?
A. top-down
B. shoot from the hip
C. follow the path
D. bottom-up
E. divide and conquer
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 18
Which statement about the join process of the access point is true? Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 300-370 exam question - q18A. The AP failed to join because the self-signed certificate of the AP was not correct on the controller.
B. The time on the controller is outside of the certificates validity time interval so the join phase failed.
C. The AP moved from this controller to its primary controller.
D. The AP successfully joined the controller.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 19
An engineer is troubleshooting access point placement issues and suspects that poor placement is causing connectivity
issues When running the show client detail command, the engineer notices this output Which option indicates
poor access point placement?
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 300-370 exam question - q19

A. excessive number of bytes sent compared to bytes received
B. high signal-to-noise ratio
C. excessive number of data retries
D. low ratio signal strength indicator
E. duplicate received packets
F. poor statistics for the last 90 seconds
Correct Answer: CD


QUESTION 20
Which three steps would a network engineer use to troubleshoot an AP join problem? (Choose three.)
A. Validate the STP configuration. 
B. Verify the ping AP from the controller.
C. Verify the ping AP from the client.
D. Verify that the AP is getting an address from the DHCP server.
E. I Validate the SNMP configuration.
F. Verify the authentication configuration parameters.
Correct Answer: ABF

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QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer has determined that Cisco 7925 phones are roaming between 2.4 6Hz and 5 6Hz
radios on the same access points, which results in poor audio performance Which action must the engineer take to
mitigate this issue?
A. Enable TPCv2 to normalize the RF environment.
B. Configure EDCA parameters for Voice Optimized.
C. Configure the Cisco 7925 phone to only use 5 6Hz.
D. Enable Band Select on the WLAN
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 2
A Cisco 7925 phone at a client\\’s location is not registering with CUCM. The engineer analyzes a packet capture, sees
that the phone receives an IP, and downloads the proper configuration file from TFTP successfully. What type of
messages should the phone be sending at this point?
A. H.245
B. H.323
C. MCGP
D. SCCP
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 3
Which two options describe best practices that must be completed after a wireless installation is finished? (Choose
two.)
A. Make sure that there are no spaces between the devices on the rack that the Wireless Lan Controller isinstalled.
B. Consult with the customer to ensure that the IT staff has a complete set of design and installationdocuments.
C. Make sure the customer is aware that they should consider purchasing a support contract immediately afterthe
installation is complete.
D. Spend time with the customer to show them the controller GUI and inform them how they can reach theCisco TAC if
they have any problems.
E. Test all the customer\\’s wireless devices and applications to ensure they are working properly.
Correct Answer: BE


QUESTION 4
A customer is preparing to deploy a wireless network in a stadium and is identifying coverage area requirement for the
patrons in suite areas. Which two attributes are relevant to determining these coverage requirements? (Choose two.)
A. hours d operon
B. encryption type
C. authentication type
D. number of uses
E. device types
Correct Answer: CE


QUESTION 5
An engineer is assigned to assist a customer by estimating the number of access points needed to provide voice-grade
wireless coverage in a carpeted office space. How many access points should be estimated to cover this space of
roughly 38,000 square feet?
A. 17
B. 10
C. 6
D. 13
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 6
A customer has restricted the AP and antenna combinations for a design to be limited to one model integrated antenna
AP for carpeted spaces and one model external antenna AP, with high gain antennas for industrial, maintenance, or
storage areas. When moving between a carpeted area to an industrial area, the engineer forgets to change survey
devices and surveys several APs. Which option is the best to reduce the negative impact of the design?
A. Deploy the specified access points per area type.
B. Resurvey and adjust the design.
C. Increase the Tx power on incorrectly surveyed access points.
D. Deploy unsurveyed access points to the design.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 7
An engineer is preparing for an active site survey of a hospital and is informed that he or she should not enter any active
surgery suites. Which option describes how the engineer should address this restriction?
A. Conduct a passive wireless survey in the restricted areas.
B. Use the predictive AP placement tool on the wireless controller
C. Skip the area and estimate where to place the access points.
D. Arrange to perform survey activities after hours.
Correct Answer: A
Passive Survey
Passive surveys are surveys that are performed with a listen-only mode. The survey client never associates to the
access point (AP). Such surveys can be helpful when you look for rogue devices or you want a good gauge of downlink
RF
coverage from the infrastructure devices.
These can be accomplished with a passive survey:


QUESTION 8
An engineer is implementing Q0S for a new wireless voice network. Which two considerations should be identified first?
(Choose two.)
A. QoS marking
B. policing
C. QoS requirements
D. data traffic usage
E. traffic classification
Correct Answer: CE


QUESTION 9
A customer has deployed an N+N redundant wireless infrastructure. In this deployment, the access points have been
salt and peppered between controllers. What configuration would be necessary to cut down on the use of mobility
tunnels for voice clients?
A. mobility anchor
B. KIS based CAC
C. media session snooping
D. re-anchor roamed voice clients
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 10
An engineer is determining powering requirements for a P2P wireless link using Cisco Aironet 1572EC access points.
Which power method is valid for the access point?
A. 802.3af Power over Ethernet
B. Power over Cable
C. Cisco Inline Power
D. 802.3at Power over Ethernet
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 11
An engineer receives a digital image scanned from the floor plans of a facility to be surveyed for wireless survey and
imported it into Air Magnet Pro. However, the document contains no scale. Which action can the engineer take to most
accurately calibrate the size of the floor plan in Air Magnet?
A. Mark the length of a hallway, then count the ceiling tiles, multiply that number by 2 and enter that value.
B. Zoom in and mark across a hallway, then count the floor tiles across that hallway and enter that value.
C. Zoom in and mark a doorway, then size it at 3 feet because most doorways are 36 inches.
D. Mark the entire longest dimension of the floorplan, then use Google Earth to measure the correspondingoutside
dimension and enter that value.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 12
A wireless engineer is hired to troubleshoot wireless network issues and discovers that the customer is using 802 11 ac
access points with 80 MHz-wide channels in a high-density environment. Which solution addresses these issues?
A. Disable RRM on the WLC.
B. Disable TPC on the WLC
C. Decrease the channel width.
D. Increase the minimum data rate supported
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 13
When conducting a wireless survey at a customer facility, signal attenuation in an area that is surrounded by thick glass
walls is noted as 2dB. When configuring Cisco Prime Infrastructure, which obstacle should be placed in a map editor to
represent the impact the glass wall will have on the RF signal in the facility?
A. heavy door
B. thick wall
C. glass
D. light wall
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 14
IEEE 802.llk-2008 is an amendment to IEEE 80211-2007 standard for radio resource management. A wireless engineer
is designing a wireless network to support real time applications over wireless. Which IEEE protocol must the engineer
enable on the WLC so that neighbor list radio management packets are sent to the wireless devices?
A. 802.1 1r
B. 802.1 1w
C. 802.1 1i
D. 802.1 1k
Correct Answer: D
You can optimize roaming for non-802.11k clients by generating a prediction neighbor list for each client without sending
an 802.11k neighbor list request. When prediction based roaming enables a WLAN, after each successful client
association/re-association, the same neighbor list optimization applies on the non- 802.11k client to generate and store
the neighbor list in the mobile station software data structure. Clients at different locations have different lists because
the client probes are seen with different RSSI values by the different neighbors as the clients usually probe before any
association or re-association. This list is created with the most updated probe data and predicts the next AP that the
client is likely to roam to. https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/8-1/Enterprise-Mobility-8-1-Design-
Guide/Enter prise_Mobility_8-1_Deployment_Guide/Chapter-11.html


QUESTION 15
An engineer is assigned to replace an older data-grade autonomous wireless network with a Cisco controllerbased
wireless network to meet Voice over WLAN needs. The customer also wants all existing cable infrastructure to be
reused and
no new cable be specified.
How should the engineer respond to the customer\\’s requirements?
A. Implement the wireless network with the restraints and decrease the TPC neighbor threshold to increase Txpower to
provide overlapping cell coverage at sufficient SNR to provide for Voice over WLAN service.
B. Implement the wireless network with the restraints and utilize high-gain antenna to provide overlapping cellcoverage
at sufficient SNR to provide for Voice over WLAN service.
C. Inform the customer that the network will not likely function as desired and a post install survey with thepossibility of
some new cable would be recommended.
D. Inform the customer that it is not possible to provide coverage and quality for Voice over WLAN usingexisting AP
locations and an entire overbuild will be necessary.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 16
When designing a WLAN, AP placement is important. Which option describes how to rank the density of APs needed to
support location services versus data and voice services?
A. Data services have the lowest density of APs compared to location services, which has the highest density.
B. Data services have a lower density of APs compared to location services, but more than voice.
C. Voice services have the highest density of APs over location and data services.
D. Voice and data services require a higher density of APs than location services.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 17
You have a customer that is building a new campus of four 3-story buildings that you have just completed the site
survey for. The customer is interested in the mount of rack space they will need to allocate in either the building MDF or
in the
data center for controllers. Each building is going to require 75 APs to support voice and data.
How should the controllers be deployed to provide the least number of controllers, the highest redundancy, and the
easiest management?
A. Use the centralized deployment method in the data center with the N + N redundancy method.
B. Use the centralized deployment method in the data center with the N + 1 redundancy method
C. Use the centralized deployment method in the data center with the 1 + 1 redundancy method and clientSSO.
D. Use the distributed deployment method in each building MDF with the N + 1 redundancy method.
E. Use the distributed deployment method in each building MDF with the N + N + 1 redundancy method.
F. Use the distributed deployment method in each building MDF with the N + N redundancy method.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 18
An engineer is performing a predictive wireless design for a Parts Distribution Center, which requires data and location
services. Which three requirements are inputs to the design? (Choose three.)
A. access points with directional antennas
B. continuous -67 dBm coverage from one access point
C. overlapping -75 dBm coverage from three access points
D. overlapping -67 dBm coverage from two access points
E. access points in IPS mode
F. continuous -72 dBm coverage from one access point
G. access points in corners and along perimeters
Correct Answer: BCG


QUESTION 19
A customer is deploying a mesh outdoor wireless network based on FCC standards where spectrum analysis shows
significant radar energy propagating throughout the coverage area from a local weather station. Which channel must be
excluded from the access points RRM calculation to avoid network disruption due to weather radar activity?
A. 132
B. 44
C. 11
D. 36
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 20
Which infrastructure issue needs to be verified and potentially resolved before deploying a centralized 802.11n WLAN?
A. That all the access layer switches that the 802.11n APs will connect to support 802.3af power.
B. That all the access layer switches that the 802.11n APs will connect to contain 10/100/1000 Ethernet ports.
C. The location of application and authentication servers.
D. The proposed location for the WDS server.
E. The proposed location for the WCS.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 21
A customer has determined that a cable run for a low-throughput RF design is not economically feasible to install. Which
two access point modes can alleviate these customer concerns? (Choose two.)
A. bridge
B. sniffer
C. Flex+Bridge
D. FlexConnect
E. local
Correct Answer: BC


QUESTION 22
When implementing video teleconferencing over a wireless network, which three attributes should be considered when
cell planning? (Choose three.)
A. latency
B. jitter
C. throughput
D. packet loss
E. client association
F. number of users on the network
Correct Answer: ABD


QUESTION 23
An engineer is tuning RRM parameters to improve client connectivity. Which channel band results in the best 802.11n
client compatibility?
A. UNII-2
B. UNII-2e
C. UNII-3
D. UNII
E. UNII-1
Correct Answer: E


QUESTION 24
An engineer has performed a post-deployment site survey and noticed that access points were installed in suboptimal
locations due to physical restrictions and obstacles. Which action must the engineer take to resolve this deployment
issue?
A. Set DCA Channel Assignment Method to freeze.
B. Set all Auto RE parameters to factory default
C. Set TPC maximum and minimum power levels.
D. Set static channels on all AP radios.
Correct Answer: C
Suspect poor coverage/not enough AP density — If AP transmit power is already at the maximum, you can enable the
lower data rates to allow clients to connect from farther away. This has a negative impact on performance, but it can
help the customer understand that additional APs might be necessary. https://
www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless/5500-series-wireless-controllers/116057-site-survey -guidelines-
wlan-00.html


QUESTION 25
An access point will be partially exposed to the outdoor environment in a loading dock of a factory. How should this
access point be deployed in a cost-effective manner?
A. indoor AP with an external leaky coaxial cable
B. outdoor mesh AP utilizing the 5-GHz band
C. outdoor bridge AP pointing its antenna toward the factory
D. indoor-based AP inside a NEMA-rated enclosure
Correct Answer: B
Because mesh radio waves have very high frequency in the 5-GHz band, the radio wavelength is small; therefore, the
radio waves do not travel as far as radio waves on lower frequencies, given the same amount of power. This higher
frequency range makes the mesh ideal for unlicensed use because the radio waves do not travel far unless a high-gain
antenna is used to tightly focus the radio waves in a given direction. https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/
technology/mesh/7-0MR1/design/guide/MeshAP_70MR1 .html#wp1849065


QUESTION 26
Which two factors influence the density of APs in a data-only WLAN environment? (Choose two.)
A. Channel reuse and WLAN bandwidth
B. The type of controller chosen.
C. The defined coverage area and customer needs.
D. The number of clients that will roam through the facility.
E. The number of APs dedicated to voice services.
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 27
A customer has determined that aesthetics is a primary concern for their upcoming guest deployment. Which design
consideration can be leveraged to address this concern?
A. Paint the access point to cover the LED from being noticeable
B. Use enclosures to hide the wireless infrastructure in the surrounding environment
C. Deploy environmentally friendly cabling components to blend into the environment.
D. Use AIR-AP-BRACKET-1 to allow for greater mounting locations
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 28
An engineer is deploying an outdoor Mesh network. Which four major factors should be considered? (Choose four.)
A. power
B. buildings
C. traffic lights
D. satellite dishes
E. line of sight
F. network connectivity
G. power lines
H. mounting
Correct Answer: AEFH


QUESTION 29
You are planning the coverage for wireless VoIP by using Ekahau. Which signal strength does Ekahau recommend
using for VoIP?
A. -84 dBm
B. -76 dBm
C. -67 dBm
D. -53 dBm
Correct Answer: C
Each vendor has their own recommended signal strength for a given data rate or application. For instance, one vendor
may recommend designing their VoIP solution at -67 dBm (perhaps the most widely-used value for VoIP deployment if I
had to choose one), while another may say -70 dBm. In most cases the values will differ only by a couple dB.
https://www.ekahau.com/blog/2015/01/13/ekahau-site-survey-heatmap-visualizations-part-2-signal-stren gth/


QUESTION 30
Which two factors influence the density of APs in a data-only WLAN environment? (Choose two.)
A. the number of clients that will roam through the facility
B. the type of controller chosen
C. the defined coverage area and customer needs
D. the number of APs dedicated to voice services
E. channel reuse and WLAN bandwidth
Correct Answer: CE

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QUESTION 1
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Drag the attributes on the left to the types of VLAN designs that they describe on the right.
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New Cisco CCNP Security 300-210 Dumps Exam Questions & Answers (1-30)

QUESTION 1
An engineer wants to improve web traffic performance by proxy caching. Which technology provides this improvement?
A. Firepower
B. FireSIGT
C. WSA
D. ASA
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which cloud-based malware detection engine uses machine-learning detection techniques in the Cisco Advanced Malware Protection cloud?
A. third-party detections
B. Spero
C. Ethos
D. Memcache
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
which two options are the basic parts of a Snort rule? (Choose two)
A. rule policy
B. rule header
C. Rule assignment and ports
D. rule options
E. Rule footer
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 4
Which three statements about Cisco CWS are true’? (Choose three )
A. It provides protection against zero-day threats.
B. Cisco SIO provides it with threat updates in near real time.
C. It supports granular application policies.
D. Its Roaming User Protection feature protects the VPN from malware and data breaches.
E. It supports local content caching.
F. Its Cognitive Threat Analytics feature uses cloud-based analysis and detection to block threats outside the network.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 5
When creating an SSL policy on Cisco FirePOWER, which three options do you have
A. do not decrypt
B. trust
C. allow
D. block with reset
E. block
F. encrypt
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 6
With Cisco FirePOWER Threat Defense software, which interface mode do you configure to passively receive traffic that passes the appliance?
A. transparent
B. routed
C. passive
D. inline set
E. inline tap
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which two statement about Cisco Firepower file and intrusion inspection under control policies are true? 300-210 dumps (Choose two.)
A. File inspection occurs before intrusion prevention.
B. Intrusion Inspection occurs after traffic is blocked by file type.
C. File and intrusion drop the same packet.
D. Blocking by file type takes precedence over malware inspection and blocking
E. File inspection occurs after file discovery
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 8
Which Cisco FirePOWER setting is used to reduce the number of events received in a period of time and avoid being overwhelmed?
A. thresholding
B. rate-limiting
C. limiting
D. correlation
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which Cisco Web Security Appliance feature enables the appliance to block suspicious traffic on all of its ports and IP addresses?
A. explicit forward mode
B. Layer 4 Traffic Monitor
C. transparent mode
D. Secure Web Proxy
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
300-210 dumps
300-210 dumps
300-210 dumps
300-210 dumps
What is the maximum message size that the Cisco Email Security Appliance will accept from the violet.public domain?
A. 1 KB
B. 100 KB
C. 1 MB
D. 10 MB
E. 100 MB
F. Unlimited
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Which option is a benefit of Cisco Email Security virtual appliance over the Cisco ESA appliance?
A. global threat intelligence updates from Talos
B. reduced space and power requirements
C. outbound message protection
D. automated administration
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
An engineer must architect an AMP private cloud deployment. What is the benefit of running in air-gaped mode?
A. Internet connection is not required for disposition.
B. Database sync time is reduced.
C. Disposition queries are done on AMP appliances.
D. A dedicated server is needed to run amp-sync.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Which Cisco ESA predefined sender group uses parameter-matching to reject senders?
A. WHITELIST
B. BLACKLIST
C. UNKNOWNLIST
D. SUSPECTLIST
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
A network engineer wants to deploy a virtual cisco ESA and wants protection against email-based threats, email encryption, and clustering. Which software license bundle must the network engineer purchase to access these components?
A. cisco email security Premium
B. cisco email security Hybrid Essential
C. cisco email security advansed
D. cisco email security Gateway
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
Which type of server is required to communicate with a third-party DLP solution?
A. an ICAP-capable proxy server
B. a PKI certificate server
C. an HTTP server
D. an HTTPS server
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
Which Cisco technology is a customizable web-based alerting service designed to report threats and vulnerabilities?
A. Cisco Security Intelligence Operations
B. Cisco Security IntelliShield Alert Manager Service
C. Cisco Security Optimization Service
D. Cisco Software Application Support Service
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
300-210 dumps
300-210 dumps
Which three statements about the Cisco IPS appliance configurations are true? (Choose three.)
A. The maximum number of denied attackers is set to 10000.
B. The block action duraton is set to 3600 seconds.
C. The Meta Event Generator is globally enabled.
D. Events Summarization is globally disabled.
E. Threat Rating Adjustment is globally disabled.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 18
What is the correct deployment for an IPS appliance in a network where traffic identified as threat traffic should be blocked and all traffic is blocked if the IPS fails? 300-210 dumps
A. Inline; fail open
B. Inline; fail closed
C. Promiscuous; fail open
D. Promiscuous; fail closed
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
300-210 dumps
300-210 dumps
300-210 dumps
Which signature definition is virtual sensor 0 assigned to use?
A. rules0
B. vs0
C. sig0
D. ad0
E. ad1
F. sigl
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
Which port is used for CLI Secure shell access?
A. Port 23
B. Port 25
C. Port 22
D. Port 443
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 21
An ASA with an IPS module must be configured to drop traffic matching IPS signatures and block all traffic if the module fails. Which describes the correct configuration?
A. Inline Mode, Permit Traffic
B. Inline Mode, Close Traffic
C. Promiscuous Mode, Permit Traffic
D. Promiscuous Mode, Close Traffic
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 22
Which Cisco monitoring solution displays information and important statistics for the security devices in a network?
A. Cisco Prime LAN Management
B. Cisco ASDM Version 5.2
C. Cisco Threat Defense Solution
D. Syslog Server
E. TACACS+
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 23
Which three options are valid event actions for a Cisco IPS? (Choose three.)
A. deny-packet-inline
B. deny-attack-reset
C. produce-verbose-alert
D. log-attacker-packets
E. deny-packet-internal
F. request-block-drop-connection
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 24
During initial configuration, the Cisco ASA can be configured to drop all traffic if the ASA CX SSP fails by using which command in a policy-map?
A. cxsc fail
B. cxsc fail-close
C. cxsc fail-open
D. cxssp fail-close
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 25
Which set of commands changes the FTP client timeout when the sensor is communicating with an FTP server?
A. sensor# configure terminal
sensor(config)# service sensor
sensor(config-hos)# network-settings
sensor(config-hos-net)# ftp-timeout 500
B. sensor# configure terminal
sensor(config)# service host sensor(config-hos)# network-settings parameter ftp sensor(config-hos- net)# ftp-timeout 500
C. sensor# configure terminal
sensor(config)# service host
sensor(config-hos)# network-settings
sensor(config-hos-net)# ftp-timeout 500
D. sensor# configure terminal
sensor(config)# service network
sensor(config-hos)# network-settings
sensor(config-hos-net)# ftp-timeout 500
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 26
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300-210 dumps
What is the status of OS Identification?
A. It is only enabled to identify “Cisco IOS” OS using statically mapped OS fingerprinting
B. OS mapping information will not be used for Risk Rating calculations.
C. It is configured to enable OS mapping and ARR only for the 10.0.0.0/24 network.
D. It is enabled for passive OS fingerprinting for all networks.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 27
Which three zones are used for anomaly detection? (Choose three.)
A. Internal zone
B. External zone
C. Illegal zone
D. Inside zone
E. Outside zone
F. DMZ zone
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 28
300-210 dumps What are the initial actions that can be performed on an incoming SMTP session by the workqueue of a Cisco Email Security Appliance?
A. Accept, Reject, Relay, TCPRefuse
B. LDAP Verification, Envelope Sender Verification, Bounce Verification, Alias Table Verification
C. Recipient Access Table Verification, Host DNS Verification, Masquerading, Spam Payload Check
D. SMTP Authentication, SBRS Verification, Sendergroup matching, DNS host verification
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
Which signature engine is responsible for ICMP inspection on Cisco IPS?
A. AIC Engine
B. Fixed Engine
C. Service Engine
D. Atomic IP Engine
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 30
Refer to the exhibit.
300-210 dumps
What are two facts about the interface that you can determine from the given output? (Choose two.)
A. A Cisco Flexible NetFlow monitor is attached to the interface.
B. A quality of service policy is attached to the interface.
C. Cisco Application Visibility and Control limits throughput on the interface.
D. Feature activation array is active on the interface.
Correct Answer: AB

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QUESTION 1
Which option is one way to mitigate symmetric routing on an active/active firewall setup for TCP-based connections?
A. performing packet captures
B. disabling asr-group commands on interfaces that are likely to receive asymetric traffic
C. replacing them with redundant routers and allowing load balancing
D. disabling stateful TCP checks
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which option is invalid when configuring Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding?
A. allow self ping to router
B. allow default route
C. allow based on ACL match
D. source reachable via both
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which traffic characteristic is the reason that UDP traffic that carries voice and video is assigned to the queue only on a link that is at least 768 kbps?
A. typically is not fragmented
B. typically is fragmented
C. causes windowing
D. causes excessive delays for video traffic
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Refer to the following configuration command.
router(config)# ip nat inside source static tcp 172.16.10.8 8080 172.16.10.8 80
Which statement about the command is true? 300-101 dumps
A. Any packet that is received in the inside interface with a source IP port address of 172.16.10.8:80 is translated to 172.16.10.8:8080.
B. Any packet that is received in the inside interface with a source IP port address of 172.16.10.8:8080 is translated to 172.16.10.8:80.
C. The router accepts only a TCP connection from port 8080 and port 80 on IP address 172.16.10.8
D. Any packet that is received in the inside interface with a source IP address of 172.16.10.8 is redirected to port 8080 or port 80.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
What type of IPv6 packet will indicate traffic from single host and single node?
A. multicast
B. unicast
C. broadcast
D. anycast
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about the command output is true?
300-101 dumps
A. The router exports flow information to 10.10.10.1 on UDP port 5127.
B. The router receives flow information from 10.10.10.2 on UDP port 5127.
C. The router exports flow information to 10.10.10.1 on TCP port 5127.
D. The router receives flow information from 10.10.10.2 on TCP port 5127.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which three IP SLA performance metrics can you use to monitor enterprise-class networks? (Choose three.)
A. Packet loss
B. Delay
C. bandwidth
D. Connectivity
E. Reliability
F. traps
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 8
What is the administrative distance for EBGP?
A. 200
B. 30
C. 70
D. 20
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
A network engineer is configuring the router for NetFlow data exporting. What is required in order for NDE to begin exporting data?
A. Source
B. Flow mask
C. Destination
D. Interface type
E. Traffic type
F. NetFlow version
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
A network administrator creates a static route that points directly to a multi-access interface, instead of the next-hop IP address. 300-101 dumps The administrator notices that Cisco Express Forwarding ARP requests are being sent to all destinations. Which issue might this configuration create?
A. Low bandwidth usage
B. High memory usage
C. Cisco Express Forwarding routing loop
D. High bandwidth usage
E. IP route interference
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.
300-101 dumps
The DHCP client is unable to receive a DHCP address from the DHCP server. Consider the following output:
hostname RouterB
!
interface fastethernet 0/0
ip address 172.31.1.1 255.255.255.0
interface serial 0/0
ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.252
!
ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 10.1.1.2
Which configuration is required on the Router B fastethernet 0/0 port in order to allow the DHCP client to successfully receive an IP address from the DHCP server?
A. RouterB(config-if)# ip helper-address 172.16.1.2
B. RouterB(config-if)# ip helper-address 172.16.1.1
C. RouterB(config-if)# ip helper-address 172.31.1.1
D. RouterB(config-if)# ip helper-address 255.255.255.255
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which is the asymmetric Rotuing?
A. active/active firewall
B. active/passive firwall
C. single path
D. using VRRP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit.
300-101 dumps
Routers R2, R3, R4, and R5 have OSPF enabled. What should be configured on the routers in area 1 to ensure that all default summary routes and redistributed EIGRP routes will be forwarded from R6 to area 1, and only a default route for all other OSPF routes will be forwarded from R5 to area 1.
A. R5(config-router)# area 1 stubR6(config-router)# area 1 stub
B. R5(config-router)# area 1 stub no-summaryR6(config-router)# area 1 stub
C. R5(config-router)# area 1 nssaR6(config-router)# area 1 nssa
D. R5(config-router)# area 1 nssa no-summaryR6(config-router)# area 1 nssa
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Which of the following NSAP addresses is a private, locally administered address?
A. 39.0f01.0002.0000.0c00.1111.00
B. 48.0f01.0002.0000.0c00.1111.00
C. 49.0004.30ac.0000.3090.c7df.00
D. 52.0f01.0002.0000.0c00.1111.00
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
Which two phases of DMVPN allow to spoke sites to create dynamic tunnels to one another? (Choose Two)
A. Phase 1
B. Phase 2
C. Phase 3
D. Phase 4
E. Phase 5
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 16
Which two statements about 6to4 tunneling are accurate? 300-101 dumps (Choose two.)
A. Prepending a reserved IPv6 code to the hexadecimal representation of 192.168.0.1 facilitates 6to4 tunneling.
B. Each 6to4 site receives a /48 prefix in a 6to4 tunnel.
C. 2002::/48 is the address range specifically assigned to 6to4.
D. Prepending 0x2002 with the IPv4 address creates an IPv6 address that is used in 6to4 tunneling.
E. 6to4 is a manual tunnel method.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 17
Which three statements are true when configuring redistribution for OSPF? (Choose three)
A. The default metric is 10.
B. The default metric is 20.
C. The default metric type is 2.
D. The default metric type is 1.
E. Subnets do not redistribute by default.
F. Subnets redistribute by default.
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 18
R3#show run | include defaultip default-network 140.140.0.0 ip default-network 130.130.0.0 R3#show ip route | begin Gateway Gateway of last resort is 0.0.0.0 to network 130.130.0.0 116.0.0.0/8 is variably subnetted, 5 subnets, 3 masks C 116.16.37.0/30 is directly connected, Serial1/0.2 C 116.16.32.0/30 is directly connected, Serial2/0.2 C 116.16.34.0/28 is directly connected, Serial1/0.1 C 116.16.35.0/28 is directly connected, Serial2/0.1 S 116.0.0.0/8 [1/0] via 116.16.34.0
* 140.140.0.0/32 is subnetted, 3 subnets O 140.140.1.1 [110/65] via 116.16.34.4, 00:14:54, Serial1/0.1 O 140.140.3.1 [110/65] via 116.16.34.4, 00:14:54, Serial1/0.1 O 140.140.2.1 [110/65] via 116.16.34.4, 00:14:54, Serial1/0.1
* 130.130.0.0/16 is variably subnetted, 4 subnets, 2 masks D* 130.130.0.0/16 is a summary, 00:30:04, Null0 C 130.130.1.0/24 is directly connected, Ethernet0/0 C 130.130.2.0/24 is directly connected, Ethernet0/1 C 130.130.3.0/24 is directly connected, Ethernet1/0 D 150.150.0.0/16 [90/679936] via 116.16.35.5, 00:02:58, Serial2/0.1 Refer to the exhibit. Why is the 140.140.0.0 network not used as the gateway of last resort even though it is configured first?
A. The last default-network statement will always be preferred.
B. A route to the 140.140.0.0 network does not exist in the routing table.
C. Default-network selection will always prefer the statement with the lowest IP address.
D. A router will load balance across multiple default-networks; repeatedly issuing the show ip route command would show the gateway of last resort changing between the two networks.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
Which two reason for IP SLA tracking failure are likely true (choose two)
A. The source-interface is configured incorrectly
B. The destination must be 172.30.30.2 for icmp-echo
C. A route back to the R1 LAN network is missing in R2
D. The default routehas wrong next hop IP address
E. The threshold value is wrong
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 20
A network engineer receives reports about poor voice quality issues at a remote site. The network engineer does a packet capture and sees out-of-order packets being delivered. Which option can cause the VOIP quality to suffer?
A. traffic over backup redundant links
B. misconfigured voice vlan
C. speed duplex link issues
D. load balancing over redundant links
Correct Answer: D

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