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[2020.6] Latest EC-COUNCIL ECSAV10 exam tips and online practice questions

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How do I successfully pass the EC-COUNCIL ECSA ECSAV10 exam?
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Latest Updates EC-COUNCIL ECSAV10 Exam Practice Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1

Identify the injection attack represented in the diagram below: A. XPath Injection Attack

examineeverything ecsav10 q1

B. XML Request Attack
C. XML Injection Attack
D. Frame Injection Attack

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2

What are the scanning techniques that are used to bypass firewall rules and logging mechanisms and disguise
themselves as usual network traffic?
A. Connect Scanning Techniques
B. SYN Scanning Techniques
C. Stealth Scanning Techniques
D. Port Scanning Techniques

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3

Which of the following has an offset field that specifies the length of the header and data?
A. IP Header
B. UDP Header
C. ICMP Header
D. TCP Header

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4

Variables are used to define parameters for detection, specifically those of your local network and/or specific servers or
ports for inclusion or exclusion in rules. These are simple substitution variables set with the var keyword. Which one of
the following operators is used to define meta-variables?
A. “$”
B. “#”
C. “*”
D. “?”

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5

ARP spoofing is a technique whereby an attacker sends fake (“spoofed”) Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) messages
onto a Local Area Network. Generally, the aim is to associate the attacker\’s MAC address with the IP address of
another
host (such as the default gateway), causing any traffic meant for that IP address to be sent to the attacker instead.
ARP spoofing attack is used as an opening for other attacks.

examineeverything ecsav10 q5

What type of attack would you launch after successfully deploying ARP spoofing?
A. Parameter Filtering
B. Social Engineering
C. Input Validation
D. Session Hijacking

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6

TCP/IP provides a broad range of communication protocols for the various applications on the network. The TCP/IP
model has four layers with major protocols included within each layer. Which one of the following protocols is used to
collect information from all the network devices?
A. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)
B. Network File system (NFS)
C. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)
D. Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7

Harold is a web designer who has completed a website for ghttech.net. As part of the maintenance agreement he
signed with the client, Harold is performing research online and seeing how much exposure the site has received so far.
Harold
navigates to google.com and types in the following search.
link:www.ghttech.net
What will this search produce?
A. All sites that link to ghttech.net
B. Sites that contain the code: link:www.ghttech.net
C. All sites that ghttech.net links to
D. All search engines that link to .net domains

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8

Metasploit framework is an open-source platform for vulnerability research, development, and penetration testing. Which
one of the following Metasploit options is used to exploit multiple systems at once?
A. NinjaDontKill
B. NinjaHost
C. RandomNops
D. EnablePython

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9

One needs to run the “Scan Server Configuration” tool to allow a remote connection to Nessus from the remote Nessus
clients. This tool allows the port and bound interface of the Nessus daemon to be configured. By default, the Nessus
daemon listens to connections on which one of the following?
A. Localhost (127.0.0.1) and port 1241
B. Localhost (127.0.0.1) and port 1240
C. Localhost (127.0.0.1) and port 1246
D. Localhost (127.0.0.0) and port 1243

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10

Which of the following methods is used to perform server discovery?
A. Banner Grabbing
B. Who is Lookup
C. SQL Injection
D. Session Hijacking

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11

In Linux, what is the smallest possible shellcode?
A. 800 bytes
B. 8 bytes
C. 80 bytes
D. 24 bytes

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12

A firewall protects networked computers from intentional hostile intrusion that could compromise confidentiality or result
in data corruption or denial of service. It examines all traffic routed between the two networks to see if it meets certain
criteria; If it does, it is routed between the networks, otherwise, it is stopped.

examineeverything ecsav10 q12

Why is an appliance-based firewall is more secure than those implemented on top of the commercial operating system
(Software based)?
A. Appliance based firewalls cannot be upgraded
B. Firewalls implemented on a hardware firewall are highly scalable
C. Hardware appliances do not suffer from security vulnerabilities associated with the underlying operating system
D. Operating system firewalls are highly configured

Correct Answer: A

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[2020.6] Latest EC-COUNCIL 312-38 exam tips and online practice questions

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How do I successfully pass the EC-COUNCIL Certified Ethical Hacker 312-38 exam? Examineeverything updates EC-COUNCIL Free Exam Dumps Blog throughout the year! “EC-Council Network Security Administrator” 312-38 exam. You can find the free 312-38 pdf, 312-38 practice question online test, and our recommended https://www.leads4pass.com/312-38.html brand site in Examineeverything! Easy access to 312-38 exam dumps!

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Latest Updates EC-COUNCIL 312-38 Exam Practice Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1

Fill in the blank with the appropriate term. is an open wireless technology standard for exchanging data over short
distances from fixed and mobile devices.
Correct Answer: Bluetooth
Bluetooth is an open wireless technology standard for exchanging data over short distances from fixed and mobile
devices,
creating personal area networks with high levels of security. Created by telecoms vendor Ericsson in 1994, it was
originally conceived as a wireless alternative to RS-232 data cables. It can connect several devices, overcoming
problems of
synchronization. Today Bluetooth is managed by the Bluetooth Special Interest Group.

QUESTION 2

Which of the following is a passive attack?
A. Unauthorized access
B. Traffic analysis
C. Replay attack
D. Session hijacking

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3

Which of the following layers of the OSI model provides interhost communication?
A. Application layer
B. Network layer
C. Transport layer
D. Session layer

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4

Jason works as a System Administrator for www.company.com Inc. The company has a Windows-based network. Sam,
an employee of the company, accidentally changes some of the applications and system settings. He complains to
Jason that his system is not working properly. To troubleshoot the problem, Jason diagnoses the internals of his
computer and observes that some changes have been made in Sam\’s computer registry. To rectify the issue, Jason
has to restore the registry. Which of the following utilities can Jason use to accomplish the task? Each correct answer
represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Reg.exe
B. EventCombMT
C. Regedit.exe
D. Resplendent registrar

Correct Answer: ACD

A resplendent registrar is a tool that offers a complete and safe solution to administrators and power users for
maintaining the registry. It can be used for maintaining the registry of desktops and remote computers on the network. It
offers a solution for backing up and restoring registries, fast background search and replace, adding descriptions to the
registry keys, etc. This program is very attractive and easy to use, as it comes in an explorer-style interface. It can be
used for Windows 2003/XP/2K/NT/ME/9x. Reg.exe is a command-line utility that is used to edit the Windows registry. It
has the ability to import, export, back up, and restore keys, as well as to compare, modify, and delete keys. It can
perform almost all tasks that can be done using the Windows-based Regedit.exe tool. Registry Editor (REGEDIT) is a
registry editing utility that can be used to look at the information in the registry. REGEDIT.EXE enables users to search for
strings, values, keys, and subkeys and is useful to find a specific value or string. Users can also use REGEDIT.EXE to
add, delete, or modify registry entries. Answer option B is incorrect. EventCombMT is a multithreaded tool that is used
to search the event logs of several different computers for specific events, all from one central location. It is a little-known Microsoft tool to run searches for event IDs or text strings against Windows event logs for systems, applications,
and security, as well as File Replication Service (FRS), domain name system (DNS), and Active Directory (AD) logs
where applicable. The MT stands for multi-threaded. The program is part of the Account Lockout and Management
The tools program package for Windows 2000, 2003, and XP.

QUESTION 5

Which of the following is the primary international body for fostering cooperative standards for telecommunications
equipment and systems?
A. ICANN
B. IEEE
C. NIST
D. CCITT

Correct Answer: D

CCITT is the primary international body for fostering cooperative standards for telecommunications equipment and
systems. It is now known as the ITU-T (for Telecommunication Standardization Sector of the International
Telecommunications Union). The ITU-T mission is to ensure the efficient and timely production of standards covering all
fields of telecommunications on a worldwide basis, as well as defining tariff and accounting principles for international
telecommunication services. Answer option A is incorrect. Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers
(ICANN) is a non-profit organization that oversees the allocation of IP addresses, management of the DNS
infrastructure, protocol parameter assignment, and root server system management. Answer option B is incorrect. The
Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) is a society of technical professionals. It promotes the
development and application of electro-technology and allied sciences. IEEE develops communications and network
standards, among other activities. The organization publishes a number of journals, has many local chapters, and
societies in specialized areas. Answer option C is incorrect. The National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST),
known between 1901 and 1988 as the National Bureau of Standards (NBS), is a measurement standards laboratory
which is a non-regulatory agency of the United States Department of Commerce. The institute\’s official mission is as
follows: To promote U.S. innovation and industrial competitiveness by advancing measurement science, standards, and
technology in ways that enhance economic security and improve quality of life. NIST had an operating budget for the fiscal
year 2007 (October 1, 2006-September 30, 2007) of about $843.3 million. NIST\’s 2009 budget was $992 million, but it
also received $610 million as part of the American Recovery and Reinvestment Act. NIST employs about 2,900
scientists, engineers, technicians, and support and administrative personnel. About 1,800 NIST associates (guest
researchers and engineers from American companies and foreign nations) complement the staff. In addition, NIST
partners with 1,400 manufacturing specialists and staff at nearly 350 affiliated centers around the country.

QUESTION 6

Which of the following statements are true about an IPv6 network? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.
Choose all that apply.
A. For interoperability, IPv4 addresses use the last 32 bits of IPv6 addresses.
B. It increases the number of available IP addresses.
C. It uses longer subnet masks than those used in IPv4.
D. It provides improved authentication and security.
E. It uses 128-bit addresses.

Correct Answer: BEAD

IP addressing version 6 (IPv6) is the latest version of IP addresses. IPv6 is designed to solve many of the problems
that were faced by IPv4, such as address depletion, security, auto-configuration, and extensibility. With the fast
increasing number of networks and the expansion of the World Wide Web, the allotted IP addresses are depleting rapidly, and the
need for more network addresses is arising. IPv6 solves this problem, as it uses a 128-bit address that can produce a
lot
more IP addresses. These addresses are hexadecimal numbers, made up of eight octet pairs. An example of an IPv6
address is 45CF: 6D53: 12CD: AFC7: E654: BB32: 543C: FACE.
Answer option C is incorrect. The subnet masks used in IPv6 addresses are of the same length as those used in IPv4
addresses.

QUESTION 7

Which of the following attacks comes under the category of an active attack?
A. Replay attack
B. Wireless footprinting
C. Passive Eavesdropping
D. Traffic analysis

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8

You work as the network administrator for uCertify Inc. The company has planned to add the support for IPv6
addressing. The initial phase deployment of IPv6 requires support from some IPv6-only devices. These devices need to
access servers that support only IPv4. Which of the following tools would be suitable to use?
A. Multipoint tunnels
B. NAT-PT
C. Point-to-point tunnels
D. Native IPv6

Correct Answer: B

NAT-PT (Network address translation-Protocol Translation) is useful when an IPv4-only host needs to communicate
with an IPv4-only host. NAT-PT (Network Address Translation-Protocol Translation) is an implementation of RFC 2766
as specified by the IETF. NAT-PT was designed so that it can be run on low-end, commodity hardware. NAT-PT runs in
user space, capturing and translating packets between the IPv6 and IPv4 networks (and vice-versa). NAT-PT uses the
Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) and Neighbor Discovery (ND) on the IPv4 and IPv6 network systems, respectively.

examineeverything 312-38 q8

NAT-Protocol Translation can be used to translate both the source and destination IP addresses.
Answer option D is incorrect. Native IPv6 is of use when the IPv6 deployment is pervasive, with heavy traffic loads.
Answer option C is incorrect. Point-to-point tunnels work well when IPv6 is needed only in a subset of sites. These point-to-point tunnels act as a virtual point-to-point serial link. These are useful when the traffic is of very high volume. Answer
option A is incorrect. The multipoint tunnels are used for IPv6 deployment even when IPv6 is needed in a subset of sites
and is suitable when the traffic is infrequent and of less predictable volume.

QUESTION 9

Which of the following TCP/IP state transitions represents no connection state at all?
A. Closed
B. Closing
C. Close-wait
D. Fin-wait-1

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10

Which of the following is a worldwide organization that aims to establish, refine, and promote Internet security
standards?
A. ANSI
B. WASC
C. IEEE
D. ITU

Correct Answer: B

Web Application Security Consortium (WASC) is a worldwide organization that aims to establish, refine, and promote
Internet security standards. WASC is vendor-neutral, although members may belong to corporations involved in the
research, development, design, and distribution of Web security-related products.
Answer option A is incorrect. ANSI (American National Standards Institute) is the primary organization for fostering the
development of technology standards in the United States. ANSI works with industry groups and is the U.S. member of
the
International Organization for Standardization (ISO) and the International Electro-technical Commission (IEC). Long-established computer standards from ANSI include the American Standard Code for Information Interchange (ASCII)
and the
Small Computer System Interface (SCSI).
Answer option D is incorrect. The International Telecommunication Union (ITU) is an organization established to
standardize and regulate international radio and telecommunications. Its main tasks include standardization, allocation
of the
radio spectrum, and organizing interconnection arrangements between different countries to allow international phone
calls. ITU sets standards for global telecom networks. ITU\’s telecommunications division (ITU-T) produces more
than
200 standard recommendations each year in the converging areas of telecommunications, information technology,
consumer electronics, broadcasting, and multimedia communications. ITU was streamlined into the following three
sectors:
ITU-D (Telecommunication Development)
ITU-R (Radiocommunication)
ITU-T (Telecommunication Standardization)
Answer option C is incorrect. The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) is a society of technical
professionals. It promotes the development and application of electro-technology and allied sciences. IEEE develops
communications and network standards, among other activities. The organization publishes a number of journals, has
many local chapters, and societies in specialized areas.

QUESTION 11

Which of the following is a management process that provides a framework to stimulate a rapid recovery, and the ability
to react effectively to protect the interests of its brand, reputation, and stakeholders?
A. None
B. log analysis
C. Business Continuity Management
D. patch management
E. response systems

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12

In an Ethernet peer-to-peer network, which of the following cables is used to connect two computers, using RJ-45
connectors and Category-5 UTP cable?
A. Serial
B. Loopback
C. Crossover
D. Parallel

Correct Answer: C

In an Ethernet peer-to-peer network, a crossover cable is used to connect two computers, using RJ-45 connectors and
Category-5 UTP cable. Answer options D and A are incorrect. Parallel and serial cables do not use RJ-45 connectors
and
Category-5 UTP cable. Parallel cables are used to connect printers, scanners etc., to computers, whereas serial cables
are used to connect modems, digital cameras etc., to computers.
Answer option B is incorrect. A loopback cable is used for testing equipments.

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Latest Update Juniper JNCDS-DC JN0-1301 Online Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
A customer asks you if they should implement nonstop active routing (NSR) in some cases to replace graceful restart in
their data center. In this scenario, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. NSR saves routing protocol information by running the routing protocol process (rpd) on the backup Routing Engine.
B. NSR is self-contained and does not rely on helper routers (or switches) to assist the routing platform in restoring
routing protocol information.
C. NSR accounts for large and small traffic flows to ensure coherent forwarding path selection during failover.
D. NSR delivers TCP/UDP stream status reducing control plane stress for other networking devices through
concatenated announcements from the routing protocol process (rpd)
Correct Answer: AB

 

QUESTION 2
You plan to deploy a set of SRX Series devices in an active/active chassis cluster with an active/active network
infrastructure.
Which two statements are true in this scenario? (Choose two.)
A. This deployment scenario is recommended when firewall services are used extensively for east-west traffic.
B. End-host traffic is services through one SRX node during non-failure conditions.
C. This deployment scenario is recommended when firewall services are used extensively for north-south traffic.
D. End-host traffic is serviced through both SRX nodes during non-failure conditions.
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 3
Which statement is correct about a Junos Fusion Data Center fabric deployment?
A. Each aggregation device is managed separately.
B. Each satellite device is managed separately.
C. At satellite devices are managed and configured by an aggregation device.
D. All satellite and aggregation devices must be running the same version of Junos OS.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 4
What are two requirements for a VXLAN tunnel endpoint (VTEP)? (Choose two.)
A. TCP session tracking
B. MAC address learning
C. IGMP filtering
D. IP address learning of interested VTEPs
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 5
A large multinational corporation wants to implement SDN for rapid deployment of application environments.
You are asked to define SDN service chaining for a presentation to execute management.
In this scenario, which statement would satisfy the requirement?
A. Integrated software is used to insert a software widget into the flow of network traffic.
B. Stacked hardware is used to insert a software widget into the flow of network traffic.
C. Software is used to virtually insert services into the flow of network traffic.
D. Hardware is used to virtually insert services into the flow of network traffic.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 6
Your company is deploying a private cloud based on OpenStack and has selected Contrail Networking as its SDN
controller. Which two statements are true in this scenario? (Choose two.)
A. Underlay tunnels are established between virtualized and bare-metal servers.
B. MPLS over UDP tunnels are supported.
C. Overlay tunnels are established between virtualized and bare-metal servers.
D. MPLS over GRE tunnels are supported.
Correct Answer: CD

 

QUESTION 7
You are seeking a server-virtualization security solution that is lightweight and will protect virtual machines from a
variety of threats.
Which platform should you choose in this scenario?
A. vSRX
B. vRR
C. vEPC
D. TCX
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8
Your data center uses an Ethernet fabric solution for the infrastructure switches.
You must design a redundancy solution that addresses how the servers connect to the members of the Ethernet fabric.
Which two statements are true in this scenario? (Choose two.)
A. It is necessary to use MC-LAG.
B. You should connect each server to one member with a two-interface LAG.
C. You should connect each server to two different members.
D. It is not necessary to use MC-LAG.
Correct Answer: CD

 

QUESTION 9
What are two industry-standard high availability features used in data centers? (Choose two.)
A. IPFIX
B. separation of control and forwarding planes
C. graceful restart
D. Bidirectional Forwarding Detection
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 10
When considering data center security, which component is often seen as unimportant but is really the first line of
defense?
A. guest access
B. native VLAN configuration
C. RBAC
D. physical security
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 11
From a network management perspective, a Virtual Chassis consisting of five physical switches will appear as how
many devices?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 5
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 12
You are designing a Control-based SDN overlay network. IP filtering and tenant separation for Layer 3 and Layer 4
traffic is required for this installation.
In this scenario, which Contrail component performs this function?
A. vSwitch
B. control node
C. vRouter
D. compute node
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 13
Your SAN team must transmit FC between multiple locations in a data center. To keep the cost of the project to a
minimum, your management decides that using FCoE would be the most cost-effective approach.
In this scenario, which architecture will support FCoE losslessly?
A. Layer 3 Clos
B. Virtual Chassis
C. Virtual Chassis Fabric
D. VXLAN overlay
Correct Answer: C

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Latest Update Juniper JNCIA JN0-102 Online Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
Which two external authentication methods are supported by the Junos OS for user authentication? (Choose two.)
A. RADIUS
B. KERBEROS
C. IPsec
D. TACACS+
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 2
You have been asked to configure your MX240 with a default route toward your upstream ISP at IP address
192.168.100.1. Which command successfully completes this task?
A. user@router# set routing-options static route 0.0.0.0/0 next-hop 192.168.100.1
B. user@router# set routing-options default route 0.0.0.0/0 next-hop 192.168.100.1
C. user@router# set forwarding-options static route 0.0.0.0/0 next-hop 192.168.100.1
D. user@router# set protocols default route 0.0.0.0/0 next-hop 192.168.100.1
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
— Exhibit -[edit interfaces ge-0/0/1]
user@router# show
unit 100 {
vlan-id 100;
family inet {
address 10.1.1.1 /24;
} } [edit interfaces ge-0/0/1] user@router# commit check [edit interfaces ge-0/0/1] \\’unit 100\\’ Only unit 0 is valid for this
encapsulation error: configuration check-out failed — Exhibit -Referring to the exhibit, you are unable to commit the
configuration for the ge-0/0/1 interface. What must you do to commit the configuration?
A. You must set the encapsulation vlan-ccc parameter under the [edit interfaces ge-0/0/1 unit 100] hierarchy.
B. You must set the vlan-tagging parameter under the [edit interfaces ge-0/0/1] hierarchy.
C. You must use the rename command to change unit 100 to unit 0.
D. You must set the encapsulation flexible-ethernet-services parameter under the [edit interfaces ge-0/0/1] hierarchy.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 4
What is a valid multicast MAC address?
A. 00:90:69:9f:ea:46
B. ff:ff:ff:ff:ff:ff
C. 01:00:5e:28:12:95
D. 99:99:99:99:99:99
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 5
You must archive log messages for an extended period of time for audit and troubleshooting purposes. Which syslog
setting should you configure on the Junos device in this scenario?
A. severity
B. facility
C. host
D. console
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 6
You need to control SSH, HTTP, and Telnet access to an MX240 router through any interface. You have decided to use
a firewall filter.
How should you apply the firewall filter?
A. as an outbound filter on interface fxp0
B. as an outbound filter on interface lo0
C. as an inbound filter on interface fxp0
D. as an inbound filter on interface lo0
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 7
Which statement is correct regarding exception traffic on Junos devices?
A. The built-in rate limiter for exception Traffic is configured.
B. The Junos OS has a built-in rate limiter for exception traffic.
C. The Junos OS does not provide congestion control for exception traffic sent to the RE.
D. All exception traffic destined for the RE is sent over the out-of-band management link.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 8
— Exhibit -[edit policy-options]
user@router# show
policy-statement block-routes {
term 1 {
from {
route-filter 172.27.0.0/24 longer;
}
then reject;
}
term 2 {
then accept;
}
}
— Exhibit -You are asked to ensure that your device does not accept any prefixes within the 172.27.0.0/24 network. You
have applied the policy shown in the exhibit, but the 172.27.0.0/24 route is still present on your device.
Which configuration will resolve this problem?
A. [edit policy-options policy-statement block-routes]user@router# set term 1 from route- filter 172.27.0.0/24 orlonger
B. [edit policy-options policy-statement block-routes]user@router# set term 1 from route- filter 172.27.0.0/24 upto /30
C. [edit policy-options policy-statement block-routes]user@router# set term 2 from route- filter 172.27.0.0/24 longer
D. [edit policy-options policy-statement block-routes]user@router# set term 2 from route- filter 172.27.0.0/24 orlonger
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
Which class-of-service component allows you to define the bandwidth allocated to different traffic types?
A. classification
B. rewrite marking
C. scheduling
D. queuing
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 10
Which two loopback types are supported for serial interfaces on Juniper devices? (Choose two.)
A. Local
B. Far End
C. Remote
D. Bidirectional
Correct Answer: AC
For serial interfaces Juniper devices support the local and the remote loopback types.
References: http://www.juniper.net/documentation/en_US/junos12.3/topics/usage-guidelines/interfaces-interfacediagnostics.html

 

QUESTION 11
What are three characteristics of Layer 2 switches? (Choose three.)
A. Layer 2 switches forward broadcast traffic.
B. Layer 2 switches forward traffic addresses to hosts that reside on the same collision domain.
C. Layer 2 switches separate multicast domains.
D. Layer 2 switches separate collision domains.
E. Layer 2 switches forward traffic addressed to hosts that reside on a different collision domain.
Correct Answer: ABD

 

QUESTION 12
Which two statements are correct about the request system zeroize local command? (Choose two.)
A. The command removes all data files.
B. The command preserves the management interface addresses.
C. The command resets all key values.
D. The command removes all user-created files from the system.
Correct Answer: CD

 

QUESTION 13
What are three valid software release designations for the Junos OS? (Choose three.)
A. B
B. T
C. X
D. R
E. Z
Correct Answer: ACD

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[2020.3] Latest Huawei Certification Exam Sits Tips exam Questions and Answers

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Tips and practical test questions and answers for getting Huawei exam certification (H12-211 exam, H12-224 exam, H12-261 exam, H13-611 exam, H13-821 exam, H19-301 exam, H31-341 exam)(First: Exam practice test,
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Table of Contents:

Latest Huawei Certifications Exam questions

Latest Huawei H12-211 exam List

Latest updates Huawei H12-211 exam practice questions(1-5)

QUESTION 1
A DHCP server in the enterprise network is being used to allocated IP addresses to hosts. An administrator discovers
however that some hosts are obtaining IP addresses outside of the scope of the DHCP server\\’s address pool. What
are the possible reasons for this? (Choose three).
A. Another DHCP server exists in the network and is allocating IP addresses to hosts that happen to be within a closer
proximity than the authorized DHCP server.
B. The hosts were unable to discover a DHCP server and therefore generated their own address in the 169.254.0.0
address range.
C. The hosts were unable to discover a DHCP server and therefore generated their own address in the 127.254.0.0
address range.
D. All addresses from the DHCP pool have been assigned.
Correct Answer: ABD

 

QUESTION 2
Which of the following statements regarding the routing table are correct? (Choose two)
A. The next hop in the routing table is redundant because the outgoing interface can be used for packet forwarding.
B. The routes from generated by different protocols have different preferences.
C. The metrics of different routing protocols are comparable.
D. The metrics of different routing protocols are not comparable
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 3
Which of the following formats represent an accurate condensing of the IPv6 address
2031:0000:720C:0000:0000:09E0:839A:130B? (Choose two).
A. 2031:0:720C:0:0:9E0:839A:130B
B. 2031:0:720C:0:0:9E:839A:130B
C. 2031::720C::9E0:839A:130B
D. 2031:0:720C::9E0:839A:130B
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 4
What will the destination MAC address be at the moment a frame is transmitted by the host, when the router is the IP
destination?
A. The MAC address of the switch.
B. The MAC address of the router interface G0/0/0.
C. The MAC address of the host.
D. The destination MAC address will be a broadcast MAC address.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 5
Refer to the graphic. Host A and Host B use VLAN routing to facilitate communication. What must be configured on
interface G0/0/1.1 of RTA to achieve this?lead4pass h12-211 exam question q5

A. dot1q termination vid 1.
B. dot1q termination vid 10.
C. dot1q termination vid 20.
D. dot1q termination vid 30.
Correct Answer: B

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Latest Huawei H12-224 exam List

Latest updates Huawei H12-224 exam practice questions (1-5)

QUESTION 1
In traffic policing using two token buckets, tokens are put into the CBS bucket at the committed information rate (CIR).lead4pass h12-224 exam question q1

The peak burst size (PBS) bucket is filled in only after the CBS bucket is full.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 2
What happens when the topology of a network running RSTP changes?
A. Packets are flooded on the entire network.
B. The aging time of MAC address entries is changed.
C. Some MAC address entries are deleted.
D. The entire MAC address table is deleted.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 3
If the number of checked goods is different from the number of goods on the packing list, you can unpack and inspect
goods and then contact the vendor to handle the inconsistency.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 4
Congestion occurs when a link or node is carrying so much data that its quality of service deteriorates.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
STP elects ( )
A. One bridge as the Root Bridge and another one as the Backup Root Bridge
B. One bridge as the Root Bridge
C. Two bridges as the Root Bridge
D. One Designated Bridge
Correct Answer: B

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Latest Huawei H12-261 exam List

Latest updates Huawei H12-261 exam practice questions (1-5)

QUESTION 1
Which of the following statements regarding the process of sending and receiving data frames on a port in access linktype is true?
A. Tagged data frames that are received are directly discarded.
B. Only untagged data frames are received.
C. VLAN tags are removed before data frames are sent.
D. A switch learns the destination MAC address in the data frames when they are received on the switch\\’s port.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 2
Source Specific Multicast (SSM)is being used throughput the HW IP Multicast network. Which of the following three
statements about SSM are true? (Choose three.)
A. SSM uses Shortest-Path Trees Only
B. There are no RPs to worry about
C. SSM is best suited for applications that are of the Many-to-Many category
D. SSM uses shared Trees only
E. The use of SSM is recommended when there are many sources and it is desirable to keep the amount of mroute
state in the routers in the network to a minimum.
F. SSM is best suited for applications that are of one-to-many category
Correct Answer: ABF

 

QUESTION 3
Regular expressions can be used in Community-filter and AS-Path-filter to filter routes.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 4
As shown in the figure, the routers load balances the traffic between Branch network 1 and Branch network 2. In this
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A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
Which of the following statements route import is false?
A. Importing IBGP routes into the OSPF process may cause routing loops.
B. By default, the metric of external routes imported into the OSPF process is 1 and the type of imported external routes
is Type 2.
C. BGP can generate routes in either Import or Network mode. The Network mode is more precise than the Import
mode.
D. After IS-IS Level-2 routes are imported to an IS-IS Level-1 area, routing loops occur if no route import policy is
manually configured.
Correct Answer: B

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Latest Huawei H13-611 exam List

Latest updates Huawei H13-611 exam practice questions (1-5)

QUESTION 1
Which of the following is an example of unstructured data? (Choose all that apply.)
A. SQL Databases
B. Images
C. Video
D. NoSQL Databases
Correct Answer: BC

 

QUESTION 2
When determining hard disk performance, which of the following are relevant. (Multiple Choice)
A. Rotational speed,
B. Seek time,
C. Transfer time.
D. Transfer rate.
Correct Answer: ABD

 

QUESTION 3
Storage Pools cannot be created with a single tier of disks.
A. FALSE
B. TRUE
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 4
Statement 1: Virtual Tape libraries allow for a highly scaleable backup strategy as storage can be added later.
Statement 2: Virtual Tape Libraries should be used when remote datacenters are NOT available.
A. Statements 1 and 2 are both true.
B. Statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false.
C. Statement 1 is false and statement 2 is true.
D. Both statements 1 and 2 are false.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 5
What is a storage array?
A. system that handles the communication of data from end users to its storage location and provide confirmation on
successful storage.
B. A system that manages the network functions and carries the data traffic from host to storage.
C. A system that has the management software that can provide access to its sets of hard drives or tape libraries for the
purpose of data access and storage.
D. A system that handles the interconnection of hosts to disks drives and allows hosts to directly access the disks and
use it as local drives.
Correct Answer: C

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Latest Huawei H13-821 exam List

Latest updates Huawei H13-821 exam practice questions (1-5)

QUESTION 1
Which of the following commands does not fall into the management of the docker image life cycle?
A. docker comit
B. docker save
C. docker exec
D. docker build
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 2
In the practical guide of microservices, what information needs to be configured before starting the service locally so
that the microservices can be successfully registered with the service center on Huawei Cloud?
A. Monitoring center address
B. Configuration center address
C. AK / SK certification information
D. handler
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 3
Which of the following services are sub-services of the micro-service cloud application platform (Service Stage)? ()
[Multiple choice questions]
A. AOS (Application Orchestration) (Answer)
B. CSE (Microservice Engine) (Answer)
C. APM (Application Performance Management) (Answer)
D. ECS (Elastic Cloud Server
Correct Answer: ABC

 

QUESTION 4
Using the log function of Huawei Cloud Application Operation and Maintenance Service, operation and maintenance
personnel do not need to log in to the nodes in the cluster to download logs, but can view and search the logs
accurately to locate the problem.
A. Right
B. False
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
Application-based orchestration services (AOS) can automate the operation and maintenance of applications.
A. Error
B. Correct
Correct Answer: B

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Latest Huawei H19-301 exam List

Latest updates Huawei H19-301 exam practice questions (1-5)

QUESTION 1
The S12700 supports 1600W DC power module.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 2
S7700 compete against CISCO 4500/4500E.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
Which scenarios can AR G3 series apply? (Multiple Choice)
A. LAN Egress Gateway
B. WAN Access and Edge Aggregation
C. 3G/LTE Backup
D. VPN Security Gateway
Correct Answer: ABCD

 

QUESTION 4
In datacenter solution, high reliability performance is required due to the importance of service.
Which module(component) can support hot backup by Huawei CE device? (Multiple Choice)
A. FAN
B. POWER
C. Fabirc card
D. Main process unit
Correct Answer: ABCD


QUESTION 5
The highest density 40GE line card is () for CE12800
A. 36*40GE
B. 24*40GE
C. 12*40GE
D. 6*40GE
Correct Answer: A

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Latest Huawei H31-341 exam List

Latest updates Huawei H31-341 exam practice questions (1-5)

QUESTION 1
Before querying bit errors and optical power on the U2000, you need to perform the ( ) operation. Otherwise, the
corresponding data cannot be queried.
A. Enabling the NE Performance Monitoring Time
B. Creating the logical fiber
C. Synchronizing NE data
D. Configuring data
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 2
When different routes are used for client-side 1 + 1 protection, the working wavelength and protection wavelength
cannot use the same wavelength.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 3
If the LED indicator value on the SCC board of the OSN 8800 T32 board is 11, which of the following is the subrack ID?
A. Slave subrack 2
B. Slave subrack 1
C. Slave subrack 17
D. Slave subrack 11
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 4
Which of the following methods can be used to analyze faults in the NG WDM system?
A. Loopback
B. Service Signal Flow Analysis
C. RMON
D. Replacement
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 5
Which of the following is the client-side logical port of a board in standard mode?
A. ODUkLP-n
B. RX/TX-n
C. ClientLP-n
D. n(Nn/OUTn)-OCH:l-ODUk:m-ODUp:q
Correct Answer: A

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Exam 98-349: Windows Operating System Fundamentals：https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-98-349.aspx

Skills measured

This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below.

  1. Understanding operating system configurations (15–20%)
  2. Installing and upgrading client systems (15–20%)
  3. Managing applications (15–20%)
  4. Managing files and folders (15–20%)
  5. Managing devices (15–20%)
  6. Understanding operating system maintenance (15–20%)

Who should take this exam?

Candidates for this exam should have knowledge of fundamental Windows operating system concepts in a Windows 10 environment.

Latest updates Microsoft 98-349 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
A Windows 7 library:
A. Organizes user files from disparate locations.
B. Makes copies of user files in a central location.
C. Encrypts files by using the Encrypting File System (EFS).
D. Restores files from system backup.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which feature should you use to install the most recent definitions for Windows Defender?
A. Windows Update
B. Sync Center
C. Windows Installer D. Programs and Features
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
You need to be able to view multiple time zones on your desktop. What should you do?
A. Add multiple clock gadgets.
B. Modify the System and Security settings.
C. Configure dual-display.
D. Modify the Date and Time properties of the computer.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. Each correct selection is
worth one point.
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QUESTION 5
Which Windows feature allows you to request that someone else control your computer from their computer?
A. Remote Assistance
B. Action Center
C. Sync Center
D. Connect Now
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
By default, Windows 10 allows users with any user account to install manual updates.
Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select “No change is needed” if
the underlined text makes the statement correct.
A. administrator user accounts
B. standard user accounts
C. guest user accounts
D. No change is needed.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
You need to print a paper to give to your professor. A classmate says you can print to a USB printer, which is connected
to another computer.
You try to add to your printer list and get prompted for a password that you do not know.
Why does adding the printer to your computer require a password?
A. Your User ID is not part of the local Administrators group.
B. Your computer is not part of a domain.
C. Your computer is not on the same network as the printer.
D. Password Protected Sharing is enabled.
Correct Answer: D
References:https://www.recoverlostpassword.com/windows-10/how-to-turn-off-password-protected-sharing-in-windows-10.html

QUESTION 8
Your computer is running slower than usual.
Where should you look to find out which applications are consuming the maximum number of resources?
A. Administrative Tools
B. Device Manager
C. System Tray
D. Task Manager
E. Network and Sharing Center
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which program will run on a 64-bit version of the Windows operating system?
A. A 32-bit laser printer driver
B. A 32-bit video card driver
C. A 32-bit version of Microsoft Office
D. A 32-bit wireless network adapter driver
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Where should you configure settings to allow Workgroup users to use a printer connected to your computer?
A. In the System Configuration Utility
B. In the Computer Management console
C. In the Network and Sharing Center
D. In the Local Security Policy editor
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
PowerShell is used to:
A. Monitor user keystrokes.
B. Repair damaged hard disk drive sectors.
C. Automate a routine task.
D. Extend the life of the battery.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which Windows feature allows you to run a program on your computer that is installed on another computer?
A. Windows Virtual PC
B. Microsoft Application Virtualization
C. Remote Desktop Connection
D. System Center Service Manager
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
You are an intern at a small company. You are learning how to run some of the system management tools from a
command line.
You want to access Device Manager from a command prompt.
Which command should you enter?
A. devmgmt.cpl
B. devmgmt.dll
C. devmgmt.exe
D. devmgmt.msc
Correct Answer: D
References:https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc754081(v=ws.11).aspx

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The CompTIA IT Fundamentals exam focuses on the essential IT skills and knowledge needed to perform tasks commonly performed by advanced end-users and entry-level IT professionals alike, including:

  • Using features and functions of common operating systems and establishing network connectivity
  • Identifying common software applications and their purpose
  • Using security and web browsing best practices

Latest updates CompTIA FC0-U51 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
When setting up a new computer, where does a user change the date and time?
A. Peripheral configuration
B. Localization settings
C. Screen resolution
D. eSATA settings
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Ann, a user, has an external monitor that will not turn on. Her laptop has activity lights and is plugged into the same
power strip.
Which of the following should be checked FIRST to begin troubleshooting this issue?
A. The power strip
B. The monitor video cable
C. The laptop power cable
D. The monitor power cable
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which of the following would be the MOST efficient way to transport a file from one location on a local hard drive to a
different location on the same hard drive?
A. Rename
B. Cut
C. Move
D. Save
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which of the following data connection types provides the HIGHEST mobility?
A. WiFi
B. Cellular
C. Direct link
D. Wired
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which of the following is used for telepresence?
A. VoIP telephone
B. Webcam
C. Remote desktop
D. Touchscreen
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Which of the following storage media provides the FASTEST speeds when backing up large data files?
A. Offsite storage
B. Network attached storage
C. Locally attached storage
D. Cloud-based storage
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Joe, a user, reports that his neck and back are hurting after being at his desk for the whole day.
Which of the following are the possible causes of the problem? (Select TWO).
A. The keyboard is not ergonomic.
B. The monitor does not have a screen protector.
C. The monitor height is not adjusted to Joe\\’s needs.
D. Joe is not using a wrist rest with the keyboard.
E. The chair is not properly adjusted to Joe\\’s needs.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 8
Which of the following firewalls inspects the actual contents of packets?
A. Packet filtering firewall
B. Application-level firewall
C. Circuit-level firewall
D. Stateful inspection firewall
Correct Answer: B
The application level firewall inspects the contents of packets, rather than the source/destination or connection between
the two. An Application level firewall operates at the application layer of the OSI model.
Answer option C is incorrect. The circuit-level firewall regulates traffic based on whether or not a trusted connection has
been established. It operates at the session layer of the OSI model.
Answer option A is incorrect. The packet filtering firewall filters traffic based on the headers. It operates at the network
layer of the OSI model. Answer option D is incorrect. The stateful inspection firewall assures the connection between
the
two parties is valid and inspects packets from this connection to assure the packets are not malicious.
Reference: “http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Firewall_(networking)#Third_generation__application_layer”

QUESTION 9
Which of the following extensions identifies a video file?
A. .msi
B. .tar
C. .img
D. .mp4
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which of the following is required to have a multimedia conversation with someone across the Internet? (Select
THREE).
A. Network connection
B. Microphone
C. Modem
D. Firewall
E. Webcam
F. Cable connection
G. Wired NIC
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 11
A user installed a new scanner on a desktop personal computer without any documentation. The scanner powers on,
the lamp turns on, and then the unit stops with a failure light lit.
Which of the following should the user do FIRST?
A. Go to the scanner manufacturer\\’s website and download the current installation information.
B. Check the personal computer manufacturer\\’s support website for information about scanner installation.
C. Find a scanner user group website and ask for help.
D. Update the scanner firmware and drivers, then reinstall the scanner.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Joe, a user, saves a document to a flash drive on his computer in order to print the document from a public computer
kiosk. After returning home and reinserting the flash drive in his computer, the security software identifies an infected file
on the flash drive.
Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the infection?
A. The flash drive was infected by a war driving hacker on the way to the public kiosk.
B. The public workstation was infected by Joe\\’s flash drive.
C. The public workstation was infected and passed the virus to the flash drive.
D. The flash drive was already infected by the user\\’s computer.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Which of the following can a user configure on an operating system so that an audible sound is made when an error
message is displayed?
A. Encryption
B. Hot keys
C. Accessibility options
D. Screen captures
Correct Answer: C

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Latest updates Oracle 1Z0-516 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
Select two correct statements for the management segment qualifier in Oracle General Ledger.
(Choose two.)
A. The management segment can be a balancing segment.
B. The management segment can be a natural account segment.
C. The management segment cannot be an intercompany segment.
D. This segment qualifier is used for management reporting and analysis.
E. Data access sets cannot limit access to specific management segment values.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 2
Your client occasionally charges sales tax erroneously to some customers. The client\\’s current process involves
manually issuing a credit memo to correct the customer\\’s account. Customers routinely deduct the sales tax from the
invoice before paying. Identify two steps that can help simplify the clients current process. (Choose two.)
A. Set up AutoAccounting.
B. Set up adjustment approval limits.
C. Set up transaction type for tax adjustment.
D. Select the TAX: Allow Override of Tax Code profile option.
E. Define receivables activity of adjustment with tax accounting distribution.
F. Define receivables activity of miscellaneous cash with tax accounting distribution.
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 3
Which two parameters facilitate cross organization reports in a Multi-Org environment? (Choose two.)
A. Ledger
B. Legal Entity
C. Operating Unit
D. Reporting Level
E. Reporting Context
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 4
The commerce step “Pending” has four participant profiles in the following order: SalesRep, SalesManager, Owner, and
Admin.
The Admin profile allows access with the FullAccess user type.
The Owner profile has at performer steps “start” step selected.
The step has an auto-forwarding rule.
A FullAccess user with the SalesGroupA and SalesManagerA groups creates a new quote and saves it, which moves
the quote to “Pending”.
The auto-forwarding rule returned the following two lines: SalesManagerA~Company~SalesManager
SalesGroupA~Company~SalesRep
Which profile will be used to display the quote in the “Pending” step to this user?
A. SalesManager profile
B. SalesRep profile
C. Admin profile
D. Owner profile
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
XYZ Enterprises, a US-based export firm, has two offices in the US (East) and the US (West). They use their primary
ledger for their US operations, and an additional ledger for management analysis and reporting. They use five segments
for
their accounting flexfield:
company, department, account, product, and future. Select the minimum number of required flexfield qualifiers that they
would be using for the accounting structure. (Choose three.)
A. Future segment
B. Product segment
C. Balancing segment
D. Cost center segment
E. Department segment
F. Management segment
G. Natural account segment
Correct Answer: CDG

QUESTION 6
Ten analysts are assigned the same Receivables responsibility and are given their own logins.
The requirement is to restrict three of the analysts from creating chargebacks or adjustments.
What would be your advice to ensure compliance with this internal control?
A. Use forms personalization to restrict function access.
B. Set the “AR: Cash – Allow Actions” system profile to no at the responsibility level.
C. Set the “AR: Cash – Allow Actions” system profile to no at the user level for the three analysts.
D. Set the “AR: Cash – Allow Actions” system profile to yes at the user level for the three analysts.
E. Set the “AR: Cash – Allow Actions” system profile to yes at the application level for the three analysts.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
You created an invoice with one line item of $100 and a tax of $10. This line item is credited with an applied credit
memo of $50. What is the credit to the tax line?
A. $5
B. $1
C. $10
D. $20
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which two scenarios can be automated with File Transfer Protocol (FTP)? (Choose two.)
A. An administrator needs to bulk update attachments on a multiple Commerce Transactions
B. Every month, an administrator needs to apply changes requested by the marketing department on descriptions for
parts in CPQ Cloud
C. An administrator needs to update Configuration Attribute Value Pricing on a Model and deploy the changes
D. Every night, an administrator queries the inventory database and updates a CPQ Cloud data table with the new
inventory levels
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 9
What are three valid reasons for a Configuration rule failing to execute? (Choose three.)
A. A runtime error occurs within the rule, which is firing before the current rule
B. The status of the rule is set to Inactive
C. The rule\\’s Condition attributes are hidden in Configuration Layout
D. The attributes used in the rule are not added in Configuration Layout
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 10
Based on default values, which statement is false about automatic FTP (File Transfer Protocol) processing in CPQ
Cloud?
A. You must upload file to the automated folder on the FTP server
B. You must list files in the order in which they should be processed in the upload_list.xml file
C. FTP uploads are processed every 90 minutes
D. You can use the Bulk Data service to extract the file format and upload it via FTP automation
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Which two scenarios are valid for looping by using XSL Snippets? (Choose two.)
A. The data needs to be manipulated before, being used in loop conditions
B. The grid selector cannot handle the conditions that you need to implement
C. The data in the line item grid must be displayed as a table
D. You want to display a table of single-select, quote-level Commerce attributes
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 12

What standard functionality would you use to align attribute labels on a configuration screen to that they are evenly
distributed vertically?
A. Add spacers in the Configuration Layout and define spacer height
B. Add read-only text area attributes in the layout with the required dimensions
C. Add HTML attributes and use
D. Use CSS
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Using standard functionality, how do you prevent a user from manually adding or removing rows in an
array set?
A. by hiding the control attribute and marking it as a forced set
B. by using CSS to hide icons
C. by hiding the control attribute
D. by selecting the “Disable user override” property on the configurable array set editor page
Correct Answer: C

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Free Cisco 400-051 Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
When using LDAP synchronization to automatically create and synchronize Cisco Unified Communications Manager
end users, which two LDAP attributes can be synchronized to directory URI? (Choose two.)
A. emailaddress
B. msRTCSIPuseraddress
C. mail
D. msRTCSIPprimaryuseraddress
E. email
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit. Which option is the MOS value in this Cisco IOS snippet?lead4pass 400-051 exam question q2

A. 0.0000
B. 3.7001
C. 3
D. 4.1320
E. 1.0000
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which device pool configuration setting will override the device-level settings only when a device is roaming within a
device mobility group?
A. SRST Reference
B. Media Resource Group List
C. Region
D. Calling Party Transformation CSS
E. Location
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which three Software Licensing transport setting types are available on UCM 12.0 for license management? (Choose
three)
A. Smart Licence Manager Proxy
B. Prime Licences Manager
C. HTTP/HTTPS proxy
D. Direct
E. Transport gateway
F. Enterprise License Manager
Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 5
Company ABC has implemented Cisco Meeting Server (CMS) WebRTC feature using CMS Single Combined
deployment model. When testing this implementation, they found that users can login using WebRTC but are unable to
join a Space meeting and the “Join Call” option for guests is not available. What is the root cause of this issue?
A. CMS Webbridge is not able to connect to XMPP component
B. TURN media ports are blocked between CMS Webbridge and User PC
C. CMS Webbridge http-redirect configuration is not enabled
D. CMS Webbridge does not trust Callbridge certificate
E. CMS Callbridge cannot connect to XMPP component
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Which Cisco Unity Connection call handler greeting, when enable, overrides all other greetings?
A. Alternate
B. Busy
C. Closed
D. Holiday
E. Internal
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which three statements about configuring partitioned intradomain federation to Lync are true? (Choose three)
A. Intradomain federation to Lync is only possible using SIP
B. IMandP and Lync should federate to any required remote domains
C. You must update the URIs of any users migrated from Lync to IMandP to match the Cisco Unified Presence server
SIP URI format
D. A static route must be added to point the local presence domain to the Lync server
E. Microsoft RCC must be enabled
F. The Enable use of Email Address when Federating option can be turned on if SIP URIs are different between IMandP
and Lync
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 8
Which Cisco Unified Contact Center Express data store contains user scripts, grammars, and documents?
A. configuration data store
B. repository data store
C. agent data store
D. historical data store
E. script data store
Correct Answer: B
Unified CCX applications might use auxiliary files that interact with callers, such as scripts, pre-recorded prompts,
grammars, and custom Java classes. Depending on each implementation, Unified CCX applications use some or all of
the following file types. The Unified CCX Server\\’s local disk prompt, grammar, and document files are synchronized
with the central repository during Unified CCX engine startup and during run-time when the Repository datastore is
modified.

QUESTION 9
When Cisco Unity Connection users attempt to connect using Web Inbox and receive a Site Is Unavailable error
message, which service status should be verified?
A. Tomcat
B. Connection Exchange Notification Web Service
C. Connection Voicemail Web Service
D. Connection Administration
E. Secured Web Server
Correct Answer: A
Cisco Tomcat service, as the name suggests, is used by the Web Server of CUCM and helps display the administration,
operating system, disaster recovery, and other GUI interfaces of CUCM. The service leverages a built-in CA for Tomcat
in that it redirects the incoming HTTP requests to HTTPS using the default self-signed certificate.

QUESTION 10
Which statement describes the supported integration method when Cisco Unity Connection and Cisco Unified
Communications Manager are installed on the same server as Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business
Edition?
A. Only SCCP integration is supported.
B. Only SIP integration is supported.
C. Both SCCP or SIP integration are supported, but you must choose one or the other.
D. Q-Sig integration is supported through a voice-enabled Cisco ISR router.
E. Circuit-switched integration is supported through PIMG.
Correct Answer: A
When installed on the same server there is no way to create trunk that is why sccp is the only way Cisco Unity
Connection and Cisco Unified Communications Manager are installed on the same server.

QUESTION 11
A Company that is using the Cisco Unified Contact Center Express Enhanced version requires that selected types of
agent calls are automatically recorded.
Which call recording operation can be used to satisfy this requirement?
A. Instruct agents to use the Record button on Cisco IPPA to trigger recording
B. Instruct supervisors to use the Record button on Cisco Agent Desktop to trigger recording
C. Instruct supervision to use the Record button on Cisco supervisor Desktop to trigger recording
D. Configure the Cisco Agent Desktop workflow to trigger recording
E. Recording s not supported on the Cisco Unified CCX Enhanced version. It is supported only on the Premium
version.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Which Cisco ISO-XE dial-peer command has the highest preference for inbound H.323 dial- peer matching?
A. Incoming calling-number e164-pattren-map
B. Destination-pattern
C. Incoming URI to
D. Answer-address
E. Incoming called-number
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 13
Which option is the default Cisco Wireless Unified Communications endpoints marking for video media traffic or video
RTP traffic?
A. DSCP 8
B. DSCP 24
C. DSCP 34
D. DSCP 46
Correct Answer: C
When configuring network-level quality of service (QoS), Cisco video endpoints (including Cisco Unified IP Phone 8900
and 9900 Series and Cisco TelePresence System EX Series devices) generally mark traffic at Layer 3 according to
Cisco general QoS guidelines related to voice and video packet marking (video media as DSCP 34 or PHB AF41; call
signaling as DSCP 24 or PHB CS3) and therefore these devices can be trusted.

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Technicians understand a wide variety of issues ranging from networking and operating systems to mobile devices and security. A+ supports the ability to connect users to the data they need to do their jobs regardless of the devices being used.

  • CompTIA A+ 220-901 covers PC hardware and peripherals, mobile device hardware, networking and troubleshooting hardware, and network connectivity issues.
  • CompTIA A+ 220-902 covers installing and configuring operating systems including Windows, iOS, Android, Apple OS X, and Linux. It also addresses security, the fundamentals of cloud computing and operational procedures.
  • CompTIA A+ 220-1001 covers mobile devices, networking technology, hardware, virtualization and cloud computing, and network troubleshooting.
  • CompTIA A+ 220-1002 covers installing and configuring operating systems, expanded security, software troubleshooting and operational procedures.

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QUESTION 1
Joe, a user, wants to modify the fan speed settings on his PC. Which of the following locations allows the fan speed
settings to be changed?
A. BIOS
B. Device Manager
C. Motherboard Jumpers
D. Computer Management
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Users report that a network printer has stopped working and the shared print queue has grown throughout the day.
Several users have attempted to print the same job numerous times. If possible, the technician would like to preserve
only the original print jobs on the print server. Which of the following should the technician attempt FIRST?
A. Restart the printer hardware
B. Remove duplicate jobs from the queue
C. Restart the print spooler service
D. Update the server\\’s printer drivers
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
A user reports that when powering up a computer, only a blank screen appears, however, the computer functioned
properly the day before. A technician looks at the computer and verifies the power light is on and the fans are working
properly when powering on the computer. Which of the following is the MOST likely the cause of the issue?
A. CPU
B. PSU
C. FDD
D. SSD
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
A network technician has been tasked with deploying new VoIP phones on a network. When the technician plugs the
Ethernet cable for the phone into the wall port, the phone fails to turn on. When the technician plugs the Ethernet cable
directly into the computer, the computer is able to access the network. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause
of this issue?
A. The network switch does not support PoE
B. The technician is connecting the phone to the wrong type of port
C. The firewall on the network is blocking access to the DHCP server
D. The Ethernet cable is the wrong type
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which of the following versions of Windows XP would a technician MOST likely install for a small business?
A. Windows XP Professional 64-bit
B. Windows XP Professional
C. Windows XP Media Center
D. Windows XP Home
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Which of the following types of devices MOST likely uses electronic ink technology?
A. Smartphone
B. Phablet
C. E-reader
D. Tablet
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
When working on a computer that supports triple-Channel memory configurations, which of the following RAM modules
would provide the BEST memory performance?
A. 2 DIMMs
B. 4DIMMs
C. 6DIMMs
D. 8DIMMs
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Joe, a user, recently purchased a new multifunction printer and attempted to installed it himself He informed a
technician that the printer is on his list of printers, but he is unable to print. The technician sees that printer is listed
printer under devices and printers. Which of the following should the technician do NEXT?
A. Reboot the computer into safe mode and try to printer a test page.
B. Download the correct drives from the manufacture\\’s website and install them.
C. Unplug the USB cable from the printer and try another USB slot the PC.
D. Set the printer as the default within the device properties.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which of the following does IPv6 use to autoconfigure nodes?
A. APIPA
B. Neighbor discovery
C. CIDR
D. Address resolution protocol
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which of the following ports must be open for an email client to receive email?
A. 21
B. 22
C. 25
D. 53
E. 110
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 11
A 27 in (68.6 cm) analog monitor display shows the left and right sides are bulging outward. Which of the following
should the technician performance FIRST to remedy the issue?
A. Decrease contrast.
B. Increase trapezoid.
C. Increase gamma.
D. Decrease pin cushion.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
A user has an inkjet printer that generates very sloppy prints with multiple colors missed in patterns. Which of the
following maintenance tasks should the technician perform to solve this problem?
A. Install the maintenance kit.
B. Replace the toner ribbon.
C. Clean the heating element.
D. Replace the fuser.
E. Clean the head.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which of the following characteristics is generally found on a docking station that port replicators do not offer?
A. Replicators usually have most USB ports than docks.
B. Docks generally do not need separate power to function.
C. Docks have independent hardware that replicators lack.
D. Replicators have additional NIC that docks lack.
Correct Answer: C

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