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Latest Leads4Pass CCNA 200-301 Exam Materials Update Sharing CCNA-200-301-dumps

Latest Leads4Pass CCNA 200-301 Exam Materials Update Sharing

admin October 15, 2025
CCNA 200-301 dumps

Leads4pass CCNA(V1.1) 200-301 Exam Materials updated, containing 1652 latest topic exam questions and answers, reviewed, corrected, and actually verified by the Leads4pass Cisco team to meet the CCNA certification exam requirements!

Now! Download CCNA 200-301 Exam Materials with PDF and VCE: https://www.leads4pass.com/200-301.html, practice completing CCNA 200-301 topic exam questions. 100% Guaranteed Success on Your CCNA 200-301 Exam!

Share part of the topic exam questions from Leads4pass CCNA (V1.1) 200-301 Exam Materials

FromNumber of exam questionsAssociated certificationLast updatedRelease time
Leads4pass15CCNA, CCNP Enterprise …CCNA 200-301 dumpsOct 2025

New Question 1:

Refer to the exhibit.

CCNA (V1.1) 200-301 Exam Questions 1

An engineer is configuring a new Cisco switch NewSW, to replace SW2 The details have been provided

1.

Switches SW1 and SW2 are third-party devices without support for trunk ports

2.

The existing connections must be maintained between PC1 PC2 and PC3

3.

Allow the switch to pass traffic from future VLAN 10.

Which configuration must be applied?

A. NewSW(config)#interface f0/0 NewSW(config-if)#switchport mode trunk NewSW(config-if)#switchport trunk native vlan 10 NewSW(config-if)#switchport trunk native vlan 10

B. NewSW(config)#interface f0/0 NewSW(config-if)#switchport mode access

NewSW(config-if)#switchport trunk allowed vlan 2, 10

NewSW(config-if)#switchport trunk native vlan 2

C. NewSW(config)#interface f0/0 NewSW(config-if)#switchport mode access NewSW(config-if)#switchport trunk allowed vlan 2, 10 NewSW(config-if)#switchport trunk native vlan 10

D. NewSW(config)#interface f0/0 NewSW(config-if)#switchport mode trunk NewSW(config-if)#switchport trunk allowed vlan 2, 10 NewSW(config-if)#switchport trunk native vlan 2

Correct Answer: D

Nothing says that the new switch doesn\’t allow trunking. It can´t be B, because when you configure the port in access mode it doesn´t evaluate the trunking commands, and access only permits one vlan.

If you have access on one side the vlan comes untagged, for the other side to put this untagged vlan in a native vlan the port needs to be configured as trunk. Also this imposes that in the future to have vlan 10 passing here you would need to replace SW1 to have trunk funcionality or alternatively configure another uplink to pass vlan 10 the same way to new SW.

New Question 2:

DRAG DROP

Drag the descriptions of device management from the left onto the types of device management on the right.

Select and Place:

CCNA (V1.1) 200-301 Exam Questions 2

Correct Answer:

CCNA (V1.1) 200-301 Exam Questions 2-1

New Question 3:

Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R3 have the default configuration The router R2 priority is set to 99 Which commands on R3 configure it as the DR in the 10.0 4.0/24 network?

CCNA (V1.1) 200-301 Exam Questions 3

A. R3(config)#interface Gig0/1 R3(config-if)#ip ospf priority 100

B. R3(config)#interface Gig0/0 R3(config-if)#ip ospf priority 100

C. R3(config)#interface Gig0/0 R3(config-if)i=ip ospf priority 1

D. R3(config)#interface Gig0/1 R3(config-if)#ip ospf priority 0

Correct Answer: B

New Question 4:

What is represented by the word “ge3/36” within this JSON schema?

CCNA (V1.1) 200-301 Exam Questions 4

A. value

B. array

C. object

D. key

Correct Answer: A

New Question 5:

Which IPv6 address is the equivalent of the IPv4 interface loopback address 127.0.0.1?

A. ::1

B. ::

C. 2000::/3

D. 0::/10

Correct Answer: A

In IPv6 the loopback address is written as, ::1

This is a 128bit number, with the first 127 bits being \’0\’ and the 128th bit being \’1\’. It\’s just a single address, so could also be written as ::1/128.

New Question 6:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the characteristics of northbound APIs from the left onto any position on the right. Not all characteristics are used.

Select and Place:

CCNA (V1.1) 200-301 Exam Questions 6

Correct Answer:

CCNA (V1.1) 200-301 Exam Questions 6-1

New Question 7:

Company has decided to require multifactor authentication for all systems. Which set of parameters meets the requirement?

A. personal 10-digit PIN and RSA certificate

B. complex password and personal 10-digit PIN

C. password of 8 to 15 characters and personal 12-digit PIN

D. fingerprint scanning and facial recognition

Correct Answer: A

New Question 8:

Refer to the exhibit. How will the router handle a packet destined for 192.0.2.156?

CCNA (V1.1) 200-301 Exam Questions 8

A. The router will forward the packet via either Serial0 or Serial1.

B. The router will return the packet to its source.

C. The router will forward the packet via Serial2.

D. The router will drop the packet.

Correct Answer: C

New Question 9:

An administrator must secure the WLC from receiving spoofed association requests. Which steps must be taken to configure the WLC to restrict the requests and force the user to wait 10 ms to retry an association request?

A. Enable Security Association Teardown Protection and set the SA Query timeout to 10

B. Enable MAC filtering and set the SA Query timeout to 10

C. Enable 802.1x Layer 2 security and set me Comeback timer to 10

D. Enable the Protected Management Frame service and set the Comeback timer to 10

Correct Answer: D

“You then need to specify the comeback timer and SA query timeout. The comeback timer specifies the time that an associated client must wait before the association can be tried again…” https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless-mobility/wireless-lan-wlan/212576-configure-802-11w-management-frame-prote.html

New Question 10:

How does HSRP provide first hop redundancy?

A. It load-balances Layer 2 traffic along the path by flooding traffic out all interfaces configured with the same VLAN.

B. It uses a shared virtual MAC and a virtual IP address to a group of routers that serve as the default gateway for hosts on a LAN.

C. It forwards multiple packets to the same destination over different routed links in the data path.

D. It load-balances traffic by assigning the same metric value to more than one route to the same destination in the IP routing table.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/ipapp_fhrp/configuration/xe-16/fhp-xe-16-book/fhp-hsrp-mgo.html

New Question 11:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the statements about AAA services from the left to the corresponding AAA services on the right. Not all options are used.

Select and Place:

CCNA (V1.1) 200-301 Exam Questions 11

Correct Answer:

CCNA (V1.1) 200-301 Exam Questions 11-1

New Question 12:

Refer to the exhibit.

CCNA (V1.1) 200-301 Exam Questions 12

If OSPF Is running on this network, how does Router2 handle traffic from Site B to 10.10.13.128/25 at Site A?

A. It load-balances traffic out of Fa0/1 and Fa0/2.

B. It is unreachable and discards the traffic.

C. It sends packets out of interface FaO/2.

D. It sends packets out of interface Fa0/1.

Correct Answer: B

New Question 13:

Refer to the exhibit.

CCNA (V1.1) 200-301 Exam Questions 13

An extended ACL has been configured and applied to router R2. The configuration failed to work as intended.

Which two changes stop outbound traffic on TCP ports 25 and 80 to 10.0.20.0/26 from the 10.0.10.0/26 subnet while still allowing all other traffic? (Choose two.)

A. Add a “permit ip any any” statement at the end of ACL 101 for allowed traffic.

B. Add a “permit ip any any” statement to the beginning of ACL 101 for allowed traffic.

C. The ACL must be moved to the Gi0/1 interface outbound on R2.

D. The source and destination IPs must be swapped in ACL 101.

E. The ACL must be configured the Gi0/2 interface inbound on R1.

Correct Answer: AD

All ACLs have a implicit deny at the end which blocks all traffic so we need to add a permit to allow that traffic through

New Question 14:

Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration issue is preventing the OSPF neighbor from being established between the two routers?

CCNA (V1.1) 200-301 Exam Questions 14

A. R1 has an incorrect network command for interface Gi1/0.

B. R2 should have its network command in area 1.

C. R1 interface Gi1/0 has a larger MTU size.

D. R2 is using the passive-interface default command.

Correct Answer: C

Question 15:

Refer lo the exhibit.

CCNA (V1.1) 200-301 Exam Questions 15

What is the next-hop P address for R2 so that PC2 reaches the application server via ElGRP?

A. 192.168.30.1

B. 10.10 105

C. 10.10.10.6

D. 192.168.201

Correct Answer: D

…

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New update CyberOps Associate 200-201 dumps with PDF and VCE new-update-200-201-exam

New update CyberOps Associate 200-201 dumps with PDF and VCE

admin December 31, 2024
new update 200-201 dumps

Candidates can use New update CyberOps Associate 200-201 dumps with PDF and VCE: https://www.leads4pass.com/200-201.html (406 Q&A), successfully passed Threat Hunting and Defending using Cisco Technologies for CyberOps (CBROPS) exam.

New update 200-201 dumps actually cover all the exam content of the complete CyberOps Associate: Security concepts, Security monitoring, Host-based analysis, Network intrusion analysis, and Security policies and procedures.

Download the free CyberOps Associate 200-201 (2025) PDF:https://drive.google.com/file/d/1_7bAIxujf7ExqOcYeP1OxcVhanvGKFG2/view?usp=sharing

2025 Tips:

CyberOps Associate change 2025

Coming this January: Cisco’s CyberOps certifications will be updated to Cisco Cybersecurity certifications.

Effective January 21, 2025 our CyberOps certifications will be updated to Cisco Cybersecurity certifications and will include new AI-related exam topics. With the help of predictive AI in the Cybersecurity Associate and AI-powered and AI-driven analysis in Cybersecurity Professional certifications, you can prepare yourself for the latest in AI-driven Cybersecurity trends and job roles.

The CyberOps Associate exam 200-201 CBROPS v1.1 is being updated to v1.2.

  • Last date to test for 200-201 CBROPS v1.1 is January 20, 2025.
  • First date to test for 200-201 CBROPS v1.2 is January 21, 2025.
  • To see or download the CBROPS 1.2 exam topics, click here

2025 CyberOps Associate 200-201 exam questions and answers online:

Number of exam questionsExam nameFromRelease timePrevious issue
15Threat Hunting and Defending using Cisco Technologies for CyberOps (CBROPS)leads4passDec 31, 2024200-201 dumps exam questions

New Question 1:

What is a benefit of using asymmetric cryptography?

A. decrypts data with one key

B. fast data transfer

C. secure data transfer

D. encrypts data with one key

Correct Answer: C

New Question 2:

What are two social engineering techniques? (Choose two.)

A. privilege escalation

B. DDoS attack

C. phishing

D. man-in-the-middle

E. pharming

Correct Answer: CE

New Question 3:

Which action matches the weaponization step of the Cyber Kill Chain Model?

A. Develop a specific malware to exploit a vulnerable server.

B. Construct a trojan and deliver it to the victim.

C. Match a known script to a vulnerability.

D. Scan open services and ports on a server.

Correct Answer: A

New Question 4:

A SOC analyst is investigating an incident that involves a Linux system that is identifying specific sessions. Which identifier tracks an active program?

A. application identification number

B. active process identification number

C. runtime identification number

D. process identification number

Correct Answer: D

New Question 5:

What is a description of a man-in-the-middle network attack?

A. After attackers penetrate a network, they can use privilege escalation to expand their reach.

B. Attackers build botnets, large fleets of compromised devices, and use them to direct false traffic at networks or servers.

C. It involves attackers intercepting traffic, either between a network and external sites or within a network.

D. Attackers replicate malicious traffic as legitimate and bypass network protection solutions.

Correct Answer: C

New Question 6:

Which regex matches only on all lowercase letters?

A. [az]+

B. [^az]+

C. az+

D. a*z+

Correct Answer: A

New Question 7:

A security specialist notices 100 HTTP GET and POST requests for multiple pages on the web servers. The agent in the requests contains PHP code that, if executed, creates and writes to a new PHP file on the webserver. Which event category is described?

A. reconnaissance

B. action on objectives

C. installation

D. exploitation

Correct Answer: D

New Question 8:

What is the virtual address space for a Windows process?

A. physical location of an object in memory

B. set of pages that reside in the physical memory

C. system-level memory protection feature built into the operating system

D. set of virtual memory addresses that can be used

Correct Answer: D

New Question 9:

A malicious file has been identified in a sandbox analysis tool.

2025 New cisco 200-201 exam questions 9

Which piece of information is needed to search for additional downloads of this file by other hosts?

A. file header type

B. file size

C. file name

D. file hash value

Correct Answer: D

New Question 10:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the definition from the left onto the phase on the right to classify intrusion events according to the Cyber Kill Chain model.

Select and Place:

2025 New cisco 200-201 exam questions 10

Correct Answer:

2025 New cisco 200-201 exam answers 10

Delivery: This step involves transmitting the weapon to the target. Weaponization: In this step, the intruder creates a malware weapon like a virus, worm or such in order to exploit the vulnerabilities of the target. Depending on the target and the purpose of the attacker, this malware can exploit new, undetected vulnerabilities (also known as the zero-day exploits) or it can focus on a combination of different vulnerabilities. Reconnaissance: In this step, the attacker / intruder chooses their target. Then they conduct an in-depth research on this target to identify its vulnerabilities that can be exploited.

New Question 11:

An analyst discovers that a legitimate security alert has been dismissed. Which signature caused this impact on network traffic?

A. true negative

B. false negative

C. false positive

D. true positive

Correct Answer: B

A false negative occurs when the security system (usually a WAF) fails to identify a threat. It produces a “negative” outcome (meaning that no threat has been observed), even though a threat exists.

New Question 12:

What is the impact of false positive alerts on business compared to true positive?

A. True positives affect security as no alarm is raised when an attack has taken place, while false positives are alerts raised appropriately to detect and further mitigate them.

B. True-positive alerts are blocked by mistake as potential attacks, while False-positives are actual attacks Identified as harmless.

C. False-positive alerts are detected by confusion as potential attacks, while true positives are attack attempts identified appropriately.

D. False positives alerts are manually ignored signatures to avoid warnings that are already acknowledged, while true positives are warnings that are not yet acknowledged.

Correct Answer: C

New Question 13:

Which type of evasion technique is accomplished by separating the traffic into smaller segments before transmitting across the network?

A. encryption

B. tunneling

C. proxies

D. fragmentation

Correct Answer: D

New Question 14:

2025 New cisco 200-201 exam questions 14

Refer to the exhibit. What is occurring?

A. ARP spoofing attack

B. man-in-the-middle attack

C. brute-force attack

D. denial-of-service attack

Correct Answer: D

New Question 15:

What does the SOC metric MTTC provide in incident analysis?

A. average time it takes to recognize and stop the incident

B. average time it takes to fix the issues caused by the incident

C. average time it takes to detect that the incident has occurred

D. average time the attacker has access to the environment

Correct Answer: A

…

Download the above CyberOps Associate 200-201 exam questions and answers (2025): https://drive.google.com/file/d/1_7bAIxujf7ExqOcYeP1OxcVhanvGKFG2/view?usp=sharing

New update CyberOps Associate 200-201 dumps have been verified to be real and effective, and 264 newly updated exam questions cover the complete 200-201 CBROPS certification exam. Candidates click here for the latest 200-201 dumps online to ensure they pass the 200-201 CBROPS Certification Exam.

Leads4Pass 300-725 dumps: Pass Cisco 300-725 SWSA exam Leads4Pass-300-725-dumps---Pass-Cisco-300-725-SWSA-exam

Leads4Pass 300-725 dumps: Pass Cisco 300-725 SWSA exam

admin October 17, 2024

Leads4Pass 300-725 dumps were updated in October 2024, containing 60 latest exam questions and answers. Candidates can download confidently, which will 100% help pass the Cisco 300-725 SWSA exam.

The new 300-725 dumps will be updated at any time according to the actual situation to ensure real-time effectiveness. Download Leads4Pass 300-725 dumps: https://www.leads4pass.com/300-725.html, free updates for 365 days.
What’s more! You can enjoy online practice tests for free now and make sure you are satisfied before choosing.

Enjoy two Cisco 300-725 SWSA online practice opportunities

FirstNumber of exam questionsSecondRelated certifications
Practice the latest Cisco 300-725 exam materials below15Leads4Pass 300-725 OnlineCCNP Security

Question 1:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the Cisco WSA access policy elements from the left into the order in which they are processed on the right.

Select and Place:

new cisco 300-725 exam questions 1

Correct Answer:

new cisco 300-725 exam questions 1-1

Question 2:

What is the benefit of integrating Cisco WSA with TrustSec in ISE?

A. The policy trace tool can be used to match access policies using specific SGT

B. Traffic of authenticated users who use 802.1x can be tagged with SGT to identify profiles in a Cisco WSA

C. ISE can block authentication for users who generate multiple sessions using suspect TCP ports

D. Users in a specific SGT can be denied access to certain social websites.

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/ise/1-3/ISE-WSAIntegrationDoc/b_ISE-WSAIntegration.html

Question 3:

Which two benefits does AMP provide compared to the other scanning engines on the Cisco WSA? (Choose two.)

A. protection against malware

B. protection against zero-day attacks

C. protection against spam

D. protection against viruses

E. protection against targeted file-based attacks

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/enterprise-networks/advanced-malware-protection/solution-overview-c22-734228.html

Question 4:

Which statement about Cisco Advanced Web Security Reporting integration is true?

A. AWSR uses IP addresses to differentiate Cisco WSA deployments

B. AWSR does not require a license to index data

C. AWSR can remove log files after they are indexed

D. AWSR installation is CLI-based on Windows and Red Hat Linux systems

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/Advanced_Reporting/WSA_Advanced_Reporting_7/Advanced_Web_Security_Reporting_7_0.pdf

Question 5:

A network administrator noticed that all traffic that is redirected to the Cisco WSA from the Cisco ASA firewall cannot get to the Internet in a Transparent proxy environment using WCCP. Which troubleshooting action must be taken on the CLI to make sure that WCCP communication is not failing?

A. Disable WCCP to see if the WCCP service is causing the issue

B. Explicitly point the browser to the proxy

C. Ping the WCCP device

D. Check WCCP logs in debug mode

Correct Answer: D

Question 6:

What is the function of a PAC file on a Cisco WSA?

A. The file allows redirection of web traffic to a specific proxy server

B. The file is mandatory for a transparent proxy to redirect user traffic

C. The file provides instructions about which URL categories are permitted

D. The file is mandatory for an explicit proxy to forward user traffic

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless-mobility/wlan-security/116052-config-webauth-proxy-00.html

Question 7:

Which method is used by AMP against zero-day and targeted file-based attacks?

A. analyzing the behavior of all files that are not yet known to the reputation service

B. periodically evaluating emerging threats as new information becomes available

C. implementing security group tags

D. obtaining the reputation of known files

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/enterprise-networks/advanced-malware-protection/solution-overview-c22-734228.html

Question 8:

Which two caching modes are available in the Cisco WSA? (Choose two.)

A. active cache

B. all cache

C. aggressive cache

D. safe cache

E. no-cache

Correct Answer: CD

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-5/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide_11_5_1/b_WSA_UserGuide_11_5_1_chapter_0100.html#task_1214899

Question 9:

Which information in the HTTP request is used to determine if it is subject to the referrer exceptions feature in the Cisco WSA?

A. protocol

B. version

C. header

D. payload

Correct Answer: C

Requests for embedded content usually include the address of the site from which the request originated (this is known as the “referer” field in the request\’s HTTP header). This header information is used to determine the categorization of the referred content.

Reference https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-0/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide/b_WSA_UserGuide_chapter_01100.html

Question 10:

new cisco 300-725 exam questions 10

Refer to the exhibit. Which command displays this output?

A. grep

B. log config

C. rollover now

D. tail

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/web-security-appliance/117938-configure-wsa-00.html

Question 11:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the properties from the left onto the correct advanced web proxy setting descriptions on the right.

Select and Place:

new cisco 300-725 exam questions 11

Correct Answer:

new cisco 300-725 exam questions 11-1

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-0/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide/b_WSA_UserGuide_chapter_0100.html

Question 12:

Which certificate format does a Cisco WSA need when an HTTPS proxy is configured?

A. DER

B. CER

C. PEM

D. CRL

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://community.cisco.com/t5/security-documents/wsa-training-series-how-to-configure-the-https-proxy-on-the/ta-p/3148673

Question 13:

Which key is needed to pair a Cisco WSA and Cisco ScanCenter for CTA?

A. public SSH key that the Cisco WSA generates

B. public SSH key that Cisco ScanCenter generates

C. private SSH key that Cisco ScanCenter generates

D. private SSH key that the Cisco WSA generates

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-0/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide/b_WSA_UserGuide_chapter_010111.html

Question 14:

A user browses to a company website that is categorized as “Business and Industry” and contains a Facebook post. The user cannot see the Facebook post because the category “Social Networking” is blocked. Which configuration allows the user to see the Facebook post?

new cisco 300-725 exam questions 14

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-7/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide_11_7/b_WSA_UserGuide_11_7_chapter_01001.html

Question 15:

Which two features can be used with an upstream and downstream Cisco WSA web proxy to have the upstream WSA identify users by their client IP address? (Choose two.)

A. X-Forwarded-For

B. high availability

C. web cache

D. via

E. IP spoofing

Correct Answer: AD

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-0/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide/b_WSA_UserGuide_chapter_0100.html

…

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300-425 dumps: Latest CCNP Enterprise 300-425 ENWLSD exam material

300-425 dumps: Latest CCNP Enterprise 300-425 ENWLSD exam material

admin June 26, 2023

leads4pass 300-425 dumps have been released! Contains 120 of the latest exam questions and answers, which is the latest CCNP Enterprise 300-425 ENWLSD exam material.

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Share some of the latest leads4pass 300-425 dumps exam questions online for free

FromNumber of exam questionsAssociated certificationsLast updated
leads4pass15CCNP Enterprise300-425 dumps
New Question 1:

A customer has multiple WLCs running N+1 redundancy with APs equally distributed. Only one WLC is a designated backup for all other WLCs so the customer must ensure that the most critical APs remain registered or get priority over other APs in case of a WLC failure. However, the customer notices on WLC failure that some critical APs remain unregistered What needs to be addressed in the design?

A. AP fallback is not enabled on the backup WLC.

B. AP failover priority is not enabled globally on the backup WLC.

C. AP failover priority is not enabled globally on the failed WLC.

D. AP fallback is not enabled on the failed WLC.

Correct Answer: B

New Question 2:

During a wireless design, all APs are mapped to designated controllers in case of failure. The controllers are located in the same data center but in different racks. An AP failed over to a controller that was not defined on its High Availability tab. The customer does not want the AP to move back to its defined Cisco WLCs until they manually intervene. What needs to be addressed in the design?

A. Set AP fallback to enabled.

B. Set AP fallback to disabled.

C. Change the HA SKU secondary unit option.

D. Change the default mobility domain.

Correct Answer: B

New Question 3:

An engineer has configured guest anchoring for a newly created SSD however, the mobility tunnels are not up, and EPING is failing from the foreign WLC to the anchor WLC. Which traffic flow must be allowed at the firewall to enable communication?

A. UDP port 16666

B. IP protocol 97

C. UDP port 97

D. TCP port 97

Correct Answer: B

Reference:

New leads4pass 300-425 dumps exam questions 3

New Question 4:

An engineer is designing a new wireless network. The network needs to fulfill the following requirements:

1.

support multimedia applications

2.

support a high concentration of wireless clients

3.

support data over wireless

4.

support roaming Which approach should be used?

A. use of microcells with reduced power levels

B. use of macro cells with reduced power levels

C. coverage for cells at maximum power levels

D. use of macro cells with maximum power levels

Correct Answer: A

New Question 5:

An engineer is configuring a centralized set of controllers for separate facilities. Which two Cisco wireless architectures must be used to ensure flexible sizing of WLAN to VLAN mappings? (Choose two.)

A. interface group

B. mobility group

C. AP group

D. controller group

E. RF group

Correct Answer: BC

New Question 6:

A network engineer is preparing for an office site survey with a height of 2.5 meters. Which three components are recommended to complete the survey? (Choose three.)

A. Use a battery pack to power APs

B. Use a drawing of the office space to draw AP and client placements.

C. Use DoS attack on APs while measuring the throughput.

D. Use APs with directional antennas.

E. Use APs with external antennas.

F. Use APs with built-in antennas.

Correct Answer: ABF

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/technology/mesh/8-4/b_mesh_84/Site_Preparation_and_Planning.html#ID3405

New Question 7:

A company has 10 access point licenses available on their backup Cisco WLC and their primary Cisco WLC is at full capacity, 5 access points are set to high failover priority and 7 access points are set to critical failover priority. During a failure, not all critical access points failed over to the backup Cisco WLC. Which configuration is the cause of this issue?

A. The high-priority access point is oversubscribed.

B. network ap-priority is set to enable.

C. The critical priority access point count is oversubscribed.

D. network ap-priority is set to disable.

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.ciscolive.com/c/dam/r/ciscolive/emea/docs/2016/pdf/BRKCOL-2275.pdf

New Question 8:

An engineer is conducting a Layer 2 site survey. Which type of client must the engineer match to the survey?

A. best client available

B. phone client

C. normal client

D. worst client available

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless/5500-series-wireless-controllers/116057-site-survey-guidelines-wlan-00.html

New Question 9:

An enterprise is using the wireless network as the main network connection for corporate users and guests. To wireless network availability. Two Standalone controllers are installed in the head office. APs are connected to the controllers using a round-robin approach to load balance the traffic. After a power cut, the wireless clients disconnect while roaming. An engineer tried to ping from the controller but failed. Which protocol needs to be allowed between the networks that the controllers are installed?

A. IP Protocol 67

B. IP Protocol 77

C. IP Protocol 87

D. IP Protocol 97

Correct Answer: D

Reference:

New leads4pass 300-425 dumps exam questions 9

New Question 10:

An engineer must create data-link redundancy for the company\’s Cisco Wireless LAN Controller. The engineer has decided to configure LAG-based redundancy instead of port-based redundancy. Which three features of LAG-based redundancy influenced this decision? (Choose three.)

A. Packets are always sent out on the same port they are received on.

B. All interface traffic passes as long as one port is up.

C. The same port has multiple untagged dynamics interfaces.

D. Interface connection to two separate nonstacked switches is available.

E. Full bandwidth of all links is available.

F. Ports are grouped into multiple LAGs.

Correct Answer: ABF

Reference: https://community.cisco.com/t5/wireless-mobility-documents/lag-link-aggregation/ta-p/3128669

New Question 11:

Refer to the exhibit.

New leads4pass 300-425 dumps exam questions 11

A client roams between two APs that are registered to two different controllers, where each controller has an interface in the client subnet. Both controllers are running AireOS. Which scenario explains the client roaming behavior?

A. Controllers exchange mobility control messages (over UDP port 16666) and the client database entry is moved from the original controller to the new controller.

B. Controllers do not exchange mobility control messages (over UDP port 16666) and the client database, entry is not moved from the original controller to the new controller.

C. Controllers exchange mobility control messages (over UDP port 16666) and a new client session is started with the new controller.

D. Controllers exchange mobility control messages (over UDP port 16666) and the client database entry is tunneled from the original controller to the new controller.

Correct Answer: A

Reference:

New leads4pass 300-425 dumps exam questions 11-1

New Question 12:

An engineer has designed an anchor redundancy for guest clients connecting to SSID with auto-anchor configured. After adding a second Anchor WLC under the SSID mobility anchor list, clients are load-balanced between existing and new anchors instead of having one anchor as active and the other one as standby. Which feature should be included in the design that will be configured on the WLC running 8.1 or above to ensure anchor redundancy?

A. Auto-Anchor Foreign Mapping

B. AP groups

C. Guest Anchor Priority

D. 802.11r

Correct Answer: C

New Question 13:

A customer has noticed that Client Band Select is enabled and no clients are utilizing the 5 GHz band. Which three parameters must be met to ensure that wireless clients use the 5 GHz bands? (Choose three.)

A. Ensure that channel bonding is enabled on the WLAN.

B. Ensure that the co-channel interference has not exceeded-85 dBm.

C. Ensure that the UNII-2 extended channels are enabled on the 802.11a radios.

D. Ensure that the client is receiving RSSI above the minimum band select RSSI threshold.

E. Ensure that the client is dual-band capable.

F. Ensure that the WLAN has 802.11a enabled.

Correct Answer: DEF

Reference:

New leads4pass 300-425 dumps exam questions 13

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Mobility/emob41dg/emob41dg-wrapper/ch3_WLAN.pdf

New Question 14:

A wireless engineer is designing a wireless network to support real-time applications over wireless. Which IEEE protocol must the engineer enable on the WLC so that the number of packets that are exchanged between an access point and client are reduced and fast roaming occurs?

A. 802.11w

B. 802.11r

C. 802.11i

D. 802.11k

Correct Answer: B

New Question 15:

A high-density wireless network is designed. Which Cisco WLC configuration setting must be incorporated in the design to encourage clients to use the 5 GHz spectra?

A. RRM

B. Cisco centralized key management

C. Band select

D. Load balancing

Correct Answer: C

…

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The latest updated 300-910 dumps serve all Cisco 300-910 DEVOPS exam candidates

The latest updated 300-910 dumps serve all Cisco 300-910 DEVOPS exam candidates

admin June 20, 2023

The newly updated Cisco 300-910 dumps provide 114 exam questions and answers, covering the full range of practice exam questions, for all candidates taking the 300-910 DevOps exam.

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Latest Cisco 300-910 Dumps exam questions online practice test

FromNumber of exam questionsAssociated certificationUpdate time
leads4pass15CCDP, CCDA …June 2023
New Question 1:

A developer is nearing the end of a software development cycle and is ready to deploy the software. The customer wants to continue using a secure software development lifecycle methodology and must plan for postproduction components. Which two areas should the developer address? (Choose two.)

A. performing code reviews

B. requirement gathering

C. change management process

D. new code scanning

E. rollback plans

Correct Answer: AC

New Question 2:

FILL BLANK

Fill in the blanks to complete the statement.

When creating multiple containers, in order to allow communication with each other, you must create a __________ of type _________.

Correct Answer: pod, volume

New Question 3:

Which Kubernetes object is used to create a ClusterIP or NodePort?

A. service

B. pod

C. deployment

D. load balancer

Correct Answer: A

New Question 4:

DRAG DROP

An application is being built to collect and display telemetry streaming data. Drag and drop the elements of this stack from the left onto the correct functions on the right.

Select and Place:

New 300-910 dumps exam questions 4

Correct Answer:

New 300-910 dumps exam questions 4-1

New Question 5:

A DevOps engineer has built a container to host a web server and it must run as an executable. Which command must be configured in a Dockerfile to accomplish this goal?

A. ENTRYPOINT

B. ENTRYPOINT [“/usr/sbin/apache2ctl”, “-D”, “FOREGROUND”]

C. ENTRYPOINT [“BACKGROUND”, “-D”, “/usr/sbin/apache2ctl”]

D. ENTRYPOINT {usr/sbin/apache2ctl}

Correct Answer: B

New Question 6:

What is the purpose of using a build tool in software development?

A. It complies with source code into binaries and executables.

B. It provides a way to edit source code using a graphical interface.

C. It is a manual process that is followed to build software.

D. It tracks bugs and incidents in a built application.

Correct Answer: A

New Question 7:

ConfigMap keys have been mapped to different file names using the volumes.configMap.items field. What is the result if a wrong ConfigMap key is specified?

A. The default path is not used.

B. The volume is not created.

C. The volume is created.

D. The volume is created with errors.

Correct Answer: A

New Question 8:

Which type of testing should be integrated into a CI/CD pipeline to ensure the correct behavior of all of the modules in the source code that were developed using TDD?

A. soak testing

B. unit testing

C. load testing

D. volume testing

Correct Answer: B

New Question 9:

When static routes are added to a router in a network using a CI/CD pipeline, an Ansible playbook is used to make these changes. Which steps must be added to the pipeline to validate that the changes have the intended effect on the traffic flow?

A. Add a step to run the debug ip routing command before the change, and add a step after the change to issue the no debug ip routing command.

B. Add a step to capture the routing table before the change, and add a step after the change to capture it again. Calculate the difference between the two for review.

C. Add a step to ping a host on each of the static routes before the change and a step after to repeat the same check. Calculate the difference between the two checks for review.

D. Add a step to run the same playbook again with the debug option enabled and use grep on the log output to ensure that the commands are not applied again.

Correct Answer: B

New Question 10:

What is the effective way to manage computing costs in a public cloud?

A. Monitor data transfers to minimize cost.

B. Use dedicated hardware for all instances.

C. Select the largest instance option available in order to pay for only one instance.

D. Make use of elastic services and scale on demand.

Correct Answer: D

New Question 11:

A DevOps engineer has built a new container and must open port 8080 for inter container communication. Which command must be added in a Dockerfile to accomplish this goal?

A. EXPOSE 8080

B. FIREWALL ADD-PORT 8080

C. PORT 8080

D. OPEN PORT 8080

Correct Answer: A

New Question 12:

How long do analysis systems such as Elasticsearch, Logstash, and Kibana Stack handle ingesting unstructured logs from different devices in various formats?

A. All devices that generate syslogs must use agents that process the local logs and transmit them in a specific format to the ELK Stack.

B. All logs are stored in their unstructured text format, and the ELK Stack performs data analysis by intelligently parsing the logs using machine learning algorithms.

C. All different message formats are parsed separately using custom filters, and the resulting structured data is stored for later analysis.

D. A single, comprehensive log format is defined on the ELK Stack. All incoming logs, regardless of format, are transformed to match the comprehensive format, and only applicable fields are populated.

Correct Answer: D

New Question 13:
New 300-910 dumps exam questions 13

Refer to the exhibit. What is causing the request code to fail?

A. Rython3 is not compatible with requests.

B. The requests library is not imported.

C. The requests library is not installed.

D. The requests coming into stdin fail because device_ip cannot be parsed.

Correct Answer: B

New Question 14:

Which action should the system administrator take to start looking for the cause of this issue?

A. Check to make sure Nginx is running.

B. Check for response times in Nginx logs.

C. Check to make sure the web API response is coming back in JSON.

D. Check the size of the database that the application is using.

Correct Answer: B

New Question 15:

FILL BLANK Fill in the blanks to describe the concepts of extending DevOps practices to the network for NetDevOps. NetDevOps builds and manages networks as a system that enables network services to be consumed in a DevOps approach. Organizations practicing NetDevOps see changes in the _________ as routine and expected activities, with a well-

defined and practiced process for _________ , testing, and __________ network changes. By making them routine, network changes can be small and simple.

Correct Answer: network, designing, deploying

Reference: https://blogs.cisco.com/developer/embrace-netdevops-part-1

…

Number of exam questionsUpdate time
15Sep 2022
Question 1:

A DevOps engineer must validate the working state of the network before implementing a CI/CD pipeline model. Which configuration management tool is designed to accomplish this?

A. Jenkins

B. Genie CLI

C. Travis CI

D. Python YAML data libraries

Check answer ➠

Question 2:

A CI/CD pipeline that builds infrastructure components using Terraform must be designed. A step in the pipeline is needed that checks for errors in any of the .tf files in the working directory. It also checks the existing state of the defined infrastructure.

Which command does the pipeline run to accomplish this goal?

A. terraform plan

B. terraform check

C. terraform fmt

D. terraform validate

Check answer ➠

Question 3:
cisco 300-910 exam questions 3
cisco 300-910 exam questions 3

Refer to the exhibit. How should the Jenkins job be troubleshot based on the error provided?

A. Verify what the responding file created.

B. Update pip.

C. Install dependencies.

D. Place the code in a container and run the job again.

Check answer ➠

Question 4:

Which description of a canary deployment is true?

A. deployment by accident

B. deployment that is rolled back automatically after a configurable amount of minutes

C. deployment relating to data mining development

D. deployment to a limited set of servers or users

Check answer ➠

Question 5:
cisco 300-910 exam questions 5

Refer to the exhibit. What is causing the requests code to fail?

A. Rython3 is not compatible with requests.

B. The requests library is not imported.

C. The requests library is not installed.

D. The requests coming into stdin fail because device_ip cannot be parsed.

Check answer ➠

Question 6:

Which two actions help limit the attack surface of your Docker container? (Choose two.)

A. Run only a single service in each container.

B. Run all services in a single image.

C. Use version tags for base images and dependencies.

D. Use Kali Linux as a base image.

E. Download images over HTTPS supporting sites.

Check answer ➠

Question 7:

A DevOps engineer has built a container to host a web server and it must run as an executable. Which command must be configured in a Dockerfile to accomplish this goal?

A. ENTRYPOINT

B. ENTRYPOINT [“/usr/sbin/apache2ctl”, “-D”, “FOREGROUND”]

C. ENTRYPOINT [“BACKGROUND”, “-D”, “/usr/sbin/apache2ctl”]

D. ENTRYPOINT {usr/sbin/apache2ctl}

Check answer ➠

Question 8:

The company has experienced serious growth and the hosted applications are getting more and more hits. Based on the increased workload, applications have started to show signs of reduced performance, which is affecting the user experience.

Which two server metrics should be tracked to ensure that the customer experience remains within acceptable limits? (Choose two.)

A. application feature sprawl

B. CPU peak usage

C. CPU average usage

D. microservices count

E. CPU frequency

Check answer ➠

Question 9:
cisco 300-910 exam questions 9

Refer to the exhibit. What is the reason for this error message?

A. The required dependencies for the urllib3 module are not installed.

B. The requests module is not installed.

C. The required dependencies for the requests module are not installed.

D. The site-packages directory has been corrupted.

Check answer ➠

Question 10:
cisco 300-910 exam questions 10

Refer to the exhibit. What is the user doing with Drone in this automated test?

A. testing Alpine Linux versus Ubuntu Linux

B. testing a PostgreSQL DB against multiple architectures

C. testing only the amd64 architecture

D. testing PostgreSQL deployment in an Alpine Linux VM

Check answer ➠

Question 11:

An interface on a router as a Layer 3 link has been configured to another device by updating an Ansible playbook that is executed via a CI/CD pipeline. The Ansible playbook was written to push the configuration change using the ios_config module.

Which automated test validates that the interface is functioning as it should?

A. Add a pipeline step that runs the playbook a second type. If it does not modify the device on the second run, then the interface is correctly configured.

B. Automated testing is already built in because the playbook execution is successful only after Ansible validates that it applied the change.

C. Add a pipeline step that captures and parses the packet flow for the interface.

D. Add a pipeline step that captures and parses the show IP interface output so that the operational state can be referenced.

Check answer ➠

Question 12:

Which two characteristics of a build tool that is used in an automated build pipeline? (Choose two.)

A. It runs unit tests against code that is committed.

B. It builds your software in the production environment.

C. It builds your software when changes are committed.

D. It builds your software every 500 milliseconds.

E. It must have a plug-in for Puppet and Maven.

Check answer ➠

Question 13:
cisco 300-910 exam questions 13

Refer to the exhibit. A developer needs to scale the existing pods within the worked nodes. Which object should be edited to achieve this goal?

A. ReplicaSet

B. PriorityClass

C. Deployment

D. Pod

Check answer ➠

Question 14:

When static routes are added to a router in a network using a CI/CD pipeline, an Ansible playbook is used to make these changes. Which steps must be added to the pipeline to validate that the changes have the intended effect on the traffic flow?

A. Add a step to run the debug IP routing command before the change, and add a step after the change to issue the no debug IP routing command.

B. Add a step to capture the routing table before the change, and add a step after the change to capture it again. Calculate the difference between the two for review.

C. Add a step to ping a host on each of the static routes before the change, and a step after to repeat the same check. Calculate the difference between the two checks for review.

D. Add a step to run the same playbook again with the debug option enabled and use grep on the log output to ensure that the commands are not applied again.

Check answer ➠

Question 15:

A DevOps engineer is supporting a containerized application with multiple components running across the Kubernetes cluster. Metrics from the container (CPU and memory) and application (requests per second and heap size) are being collected by Prometheus and displayed with Grafana. Users report transaction timeout problems with the application, but the metric graphs all look within normal levels.

Which type of failure would prevent the engineer from seeing the problem using the captured metrics?

A. Grafana has lost connectivity to Prometheus, which causes graphs to display only the cached data.

B. CPU and memory metrics from Kubernetes nodes are not accurate due to the way that containers share resources.

C. Some containers are crashing regularly and being restarted automatically by Kubernetes.

D. The metric beat agent has crashed and is no longer sending new data to Prometheus, so the metrics are not updating.

Check answer ➠

…

Verify answer:

Numbers:Q1Q2Q3Q4Q5Q6Q7Q8Q9Q10Q11Q12Q13Q14Q15
Answers:ADADBCEBBCBDBACABD

Download the Cisco 300-910 PDF 2022 Timeline:

https://drive.google.com/file/d/1rIdz2ZXpq2rZ52IuhNaGtTStG0WJgqfW/

Download the Cisco 300-910 PDF 2023 Timeline:

https://drive.google.com/file/d/1xk6QFkrnSPPSOtszdkkMORsYGuKsENYL/

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[April 2023] Leads4Pass 200-901 dumps full upgrade sharing 200-901-exam

[April 2023] Leads4Pass 200-901 dumps full upgrade sharing

admin April 13, 2023
200-901 exam

leads4pass 200-901 dumps April update fully upgraded! Contains 442 latest exam questions and answers, verified by a professional team to be true and effective!

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You can also take the Cisco 200-901 online exam practice

FromNumber of exam questionsExam nameExam codeLast updated
Free15Developing Applications and Automating Workflows using Cisco Platforms (DEVASC)200-901200-901 dumps
Question 1:

A development team is using a version control system that has a centralized workflow. Which feature of the version control system ensures the integrity of the central repository?

A. central common code versioning backup

B. built-in conflict resolution mechanism

C. distributed nature of the version control system architecture

D. tracked code changes of the developers

Correct Answer: D

Question 2:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the capabilities from the left onto the Cisco Network Management Platforms that support the capabilities on the right.

Select and Place:

200-901 dumps practice questions 2

Correct Answer:

200-901 dumps practice answers 1
Question 3:

What is the function of an Ethernet switch in a networking environment?

A. to switch a frame from one port to another port based on the IP address

B. to switch a frame from one port to another port based on the MAC address

C. to provide IP addressing to connected hosts

D. to block unwanted traffic

Correct Answer: B

Question 4:

DRAG DROP

Refer to the exhibit. Drag and drop the actions from the left that the contents of this Dockerfile accomplish onto the right. Not all options are used.

200-901 dumps practice questions 4

Select and Place:

200-901 dumps practice questions 4-1

Correct Answer:

200-901 dumps practice questions 4-2
Question 5:

What is a capability of an agentless configuration management system?

A. It requires managed hosts to have an interpreter for a high-level language such as Python or Ruby.

B. It requires managed hosts to connect to a centralized host to receive updated configurations.

C. It uses compiled languages as the basis of the domain-specific language to interface with managed hosts.

D. It uses existing protocols to interface with the managed host.

Correct Answer: D

Question 6:

A developer is reviewing a code that was written by a colleague. It runs fine, but there are many lines of code to do a seemingly simple task repeatedly. Which action organizes the code?

A. Refactor the code by removing any unnecessary tests.

B. Reverse engineer and rewrite the code logic.

C. Using functions, rewrite any pieces of code that are repeated.

D. Modify the code to use loops.

Correct Answer: C

Question 7:

How do XML and JSON compare regarding functionality?

A. XML provides support for mapping data structures into host languages than JSON.

B. XML provides more human readability than JSON.

C. JSON provides more support for data types than XML.

D. JSON natively supports arrays and XML does not natively support arrays.

Correct Answer: B

Question 8:

Which IP service synchronizes the time across devices?

A. DNS

B. NTP

C. SNMP

D. NAT

Correct Answer: B

Question 9:

What is a feature of XML compared to other data formats?

A. It uses tags to define the structure.

B. It uses parenthesis for key-value pairs.

C. It uses indentation to define the structure.

D. It uses namespaces for list representation.

Correct Answer: A

Question 10:

An automation script fails to connect to an internal server exactly 1 out of 2 times it is executed. This behavior is seen in different clients. Which networking device must be at fault?

A. load balancer

B. laptop on which the script is running

C. switch

D. router

Correct Answer: A

Question 11:

What is the function of the default gateway in a network?

A. to drop traffic that is destined for the default gateway

B. to drop traffic that is not destined for the default gateway

C. to forward traffic to the same subnet

D. to forward traffic to different subnets

Correct Answer: D

Question 12:

Refer to the exhibit.

200-901 dumps practice questions 12

A developer is part of a team that is working on an open-source project in which source code is hosted in a public GitHub repository.

While the application was built, security concerns were addressed by encrypting the credentials on the server. After a few months, the developer realized that a hacker managed to gain access to the account. The exhibit contains part of the source code for the login process.

Why was the attacker able to access the developer\’s account?

A. The encoded credentials were available in the source code.

B. The application was not encrypting the communication with the server.

C. The credentials were encrypted in the source code.

D. An SSL certificate was used instead of the TLS protocol to authenticate.

Correct Answer: A

Question 13:

When a Cisco IOS XE networking device is configured by using RESTCONF, what is the default data encoding method?

A. application/yaml-data+json

B. application/yang-data+json

C. application/xml-data+json

D. application/json-data+xml

Correct Answer: B

Question 14:

Several teams at a company are developing a new CRM solution to track customer interactions with the goal of improving customer satisfaction and driving higher revenue. The proposed solution contains these components:

1.

MySQL database that stores data about customers

2.

HTML5 and JavaScript UI that runs on Apache

3.

REST API is written in Python

What are the two advantages of applying the MVC design pattern to the development of the solution? (Choose two.)

A. to enable multiple views of the same data to be presented to different groups of users

B. to provide separation between the view and the model by ensuring that all logic is separated out into the controller

C. to ensure data consistency, which requires that changes to the view are also made to the model

D. to ensure that only one instance of the data model can be created

E. to provide only a single view of the data to ensure consistency

Correct Answer: AB

Question 15:

Which CI/CD component allows for the storing of code packages and enables the testing of the same code that is running on the live system?

A. Artifactory

B. Jira

C. ITSM

D. Git

Correct Answer: A

…

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Latest CCNP dumps to pass the 350-401 ENCOR exam answers

Latest CCNP dumps to pass the 350-401 ENCOR exam

admin February 15, 2023

Share the latest exam questions and answers of the 350-401 ENCOR certification exam online, and use ChatGPT to answer the most popular topics that all candidates care about. Using AI can help you better prepare for the next exam, AI will not help you with the exam, but it can provide the exam details you need.

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ChatGPT’s answer:

Q1: What is the 350-401 ENCOR certification exam?

The 350-401 ENCOR (Implementing Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies) certification exam is a test offered by Cisco that validates a candidate’s knowledge and skills in implementing and operating core enterprise network technologies. The exam is one of the requirements for obtaining the CCNP Enterprise certification, which is a professional-level certification designed for network engineers, network administrators, and other IT professionals who work with enterprise networking technologies.

The 350-401 ENCOR exam covers a range of topics, including network infrastructure, security, automation, virtualization, and network assurance. Specifically, the exam tests the candidate’s knowledge and skills in the following areas:

  • Architecture
  • Virtualization
  • Infrastructure
  • Network assurance
  • Security
  • Automation

The exam consists of 90-110 questions and lasts for 120 minutes. To pass the exam, candidates must score a minimum of 825 out of 1000 points. Passing the 350-401 ENCOR exam, along with passing one of the concentration exams, is required to earn the CCNP Enterprise certification.

Q2: What are the 350-401 ENCOR certification examination methods?

The 350-401 ENCOR (Implementing Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies) certification exam can be taken using two methods:

1. Online Proctored Exam: This is an online version of the exam that can be taken from any location with a reliable internet connection. The exam is proctored remotely, which means that candidates must follow strict exam rules and regulations to ensure a secure and fair testing environment. The online proctored exam can be scheduled through Pearson VUE, the official testing provider for Cisco certifications.

2. In-Person Exam: This is a traditional exam that can be taken at a Pearson VUE testing center. Candidates must travel to the testing center to take the exam, which is proctored on-site. The in-person exam is generally available in areas where the online proctored exam is not possible.

Both exam methods cover the same content and have the same number of questions, format, and time limit. However, the online proctored exam may have some additional technical requirements, such as a webcam, microphone, and a quiet testing environment. It’s important to note that both exam methods require candidates to register and pay for the exam in advance through the Pearson VUE website.

Q3: How to pass the 350-401 ENCOR certification exam?

Passing the 350-401 ENCOR (Implementing Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies) certification exam requires a combination of knowledge, skills, and test-taking strategies. Here are some tips to help you prepare and pass the exam:

1. Understand the exam objectives: Review the exam objectives and the topics that will be covered in the exam. You can find the exam objectives on the Cisco website or through the exam study materials.

2. Use official study materials: Cisco offers a range of study materials, including books, video courses, and practice exams. These materials are designed to help you prepare for the exam and provide an in-depth understanding of the exam topics.

3. Practice, practice, practice: Practice is key to passing the exam. Use the official practice exams and other resources (https://www.leads4pass.com/350-401.html) to test your knowledge and identify areas that require more study.

4. Build a lab: Build a lab environment using Cisco networking equipment or software simulations to gain practical experience in configuring and troubleshooting the technologies covered in the exam.

5. Join a study group: Join a study group or online forum to connect with other candidates, ask questions, and share study resources.

6. Manage your time: The exam is timed, so it’s important to manage your time during the exam. Pace yourself and don’t spend too much time on any one question.

7. Read the questions carefully: Read each question carefully and make sure you understand what is being asked. Look for keywords that can help you identify the correct answer.

8. Eliminate wrong answers: If you’re unsure of the answer, eliminate the wrong answers to narrow down the choices and improve your chances of selecting the correct answer.

9. Review your answers: Once you’ve completed the exam, review your answers and make sure you’ve answered all the questions.

By following these tips and investing time and effort into your study, you can increase your chances of passing the 350-401 ENCOR exam and earning your CCNP Enterprise certification.

Q4: Is the 350-401 ENCOR certification exam worth it?

The 350-401 ENCOR (Implementing Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies) certification exam is definitely worth it for network engineers and other IT professionals who work with enterprise network technologies. Here are some reasons why:

1. Industry recognition: The CCNP Enterprise certification, which is obtained by passing the 350-401 ENCOR exam, is recognized worldwide as a valuable credential for network engineers and other IT professionals.

2. Career advancement: Earning the CCNP Enterprise certification can help you advance your career by demonstrating your knowledge and skills in enterprise network technologies. It can also make you a more competitive candidate for job opportunities and promotions.

3. Skill development: Preparing for and passing the 350-401 ENCOR exam requires a deep understanding of enterprise network technologies, which can help you develop your skills and become a more effective network engineer or IT professional.

4. Networking opportunities: Joining a study group or online forum to prepare for the exam can help you connect with other IT professionals and build your professional network.

5. Cisco partnership benefits: If your organization is a Cisco partner, having CCNP Enterprise-certified professionals on staff can help you achieve partner status and access partner benefits.

Overall, the 350-401 ENCOR certification exam is definitely worth it for IT professionals who work with enterprise network technologies. It can help you advance your career, develop your skills, and gain industry recognition for your expertise.

Real Valid 350-401 ENCOR certification exam questions and answers for free from leads4pass:

TypeNumber of exam questionsExam nameExam code
Free15Implementing and Operating Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (ENCOR) & CCIE Enterprise Infrastructure & CCIE Enterprise Wireless350-401
Question 1:

Which First Hop Redundancy Protocol maximizes uplink utilization and minimizes the amount of configuration that is necessary?

A. GLBP

B. HSRP v2

C. VRRP

D. HSRP v1

Correct Answer: A

only GLBP can maximize utilization of links by being ACTIVE/ACTIVE while all others are ACTIVE/STANDBY/LISTENING

NOTE!!!! there is NO MHSRP only HSRP v1 and 2.

Question 2:

Refer to the exhibit.

New 350-401 questions 2

Which IPv6 OSPF network type is applied to interface Fa0/0 of R2 by default?

A. multipoint

B. broadcast C. Ethernet

D. point-to-point

Correct Answer: B

The Broadcast network type is the default for an OSPF-enabled ethernet interface (while Point-to-Point is the default OSPF network type for a Serial interface with HDLC and PPP encapsulation). Reference: https:// www.oreilly.com/library/view/cisco-ios-cookbook/0596527225/ch08s15.html

Question 3:

Which three resources must the hypervisor make available to the virtual machines? (Choose three)

A. memory

B. bandwidth

C. IP address

D. processor

E. storage

F. secure access

Correct Answer: ADE

Question 4:

What are some of the key differences between HSRPv1 and HSRPv2? (Choose two.)

A. HSRPv1 uses the multicast address of 224.0.0.102 while HSRPv2 uses 225.0.0.2.

B. HSRP uses a group range of 0-255, while HSRP uses a group range of 0-4095.

C. HSRPv1 uses seconds-based timers, while HSRPv2 uses milliseconds-based timers.

D. HSRPv1 provides support for IPv6, while HSRPv2 supports IPv4 only.

Correct Answer: BC

should be HSRPv1, HSRPv2

Question 5:

Which component does Cisco Threat Defense use to measure bandwidth, application performance, and utilization?

A. NetFlow

B. Cisco Umbrella

C. TrustSec

D. Advanced Malware Protection for Endpoints

Correct Answer: A

NetFlow was initially created to measure network traffic characteristics such as bandwidth, application performance, and utilization.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/security/network_security/ctd/ctd2-0/design_guides/ctd_2-0_cvd_guide_jul15.pdf

Question 6:

What is the difference in dBm when an AP power increases from 25 mW to 100 mW?

A. 75dBm

B. 150dBm

C. 6dBm

D. 125dBm

Correct Answer: C

Question 7:

Two Cisco switches are logically configured as a single switch using Cisco StackWise technology. This will result in virtually combining which two planes? (Choose two.)

A. Data Plane

B. Control Plane

C. Forwarding Plane

D. Management Plane

E. Bearer Plane

Correct Answer: BD

StackWise Virtual (SV) combines two switches into a single logical network entity from the network control plane and management perspectives. reference:https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/switches/catalyst-9000/nb-06-cat-9k-stack-wp-cte-en.html

Question 8:

Which LISP infrastructure device provides connectivity between non-sites and LISP sites by receiving non-LISP traffic with a LISP site destination?

A. PETR

B. PITR

C. map resolver

D. map server

Correct Answer: B

Proxy ingress tunnel router (PITR): answer \’PETR\’ PITR is an infrastructure LISP network entity that receives packets from non-LISP sites and encapsulates the packets to LISP sites or natively forwards them to non-LISP sites.

Reference: https://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=2992605 https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Data_Center/DCI/5-0/LISPmobility/DCI_LISP_Host_Mobility/LISPmobile_2.html

Question 9:

How is Layer 3 roaming accomplished in a unified wireless deployment?

A. An EoIP tunnel is created between the client and the anchor controller to provide seamless connectivity as the client is associated with the new AP.

B. The client entry on the original controller is passed to the database on the new controller.

C. The new controller assigns an IP address from the new subnet to the client

D. The client database on the original controller is updated with the anchor entry, and the new controller database is updated with the foreign entry.

Correct Answer: D

Question 10:

A customer has recently implemented a new wireless infrastructure using WLC-5520S at a site directly next to a large commercial airport Users report that they intermittently lose Wi-Fi connectivity, and troubleshooting reveals it is due to frequent channel changes Which two actions fix this issue? (Choose two)

A. Remove UNII-2 and Extended UNII-2 channels from the 5 Ghz channel list

B. Restore the OCA default settings because this automatically avoids channel interference

C. Disable DFS channels to prevent interference writ) Doppler radar

D. Enable DFS channels because they are immune to radar interference

E. Configure channels on the UNII-2 and the Extended UNII-2 sub-bands of the 5 Ghz band only

Correct Answer: AC

Question 11:

What does Call Admission Control require the client to send in order to reserve the bandwidth?

A. SIP flow information

B. Wi-Fi multimedia

C. traffic specification

D. VoIP media session awareness

Correct Answer: C

Question 12:

What Is the difference between the MAC address table and TCAM?

A. The MAC address table supports partial matches. TCAM requires an exact match.

B. The MAC address table is contained in TCAM ACL and QoS information is stored in CAM.

C. Router prefix lookups happen in TCAM. MAC address table lookups happen In CAM.

D. TCAM is used to make L2 forwarding decisions. CAM is used to build routing tables

Correct Answer: C

“TCAM is most useful for building tables for searching on longest matches such as IP routing tables organized by IP prefixes. The TCAM table stores ACL, QoS, and other information generally associated with upper-layer processing. As a result of using TCAM, applying ACLs does not affect the performance of the switch.”

https://community.cisco.com/t5/networking-documents/cam-content-addressable-memory-vs-tcam-ternary-content/ta-p/3107938

Question 13:

Refer to the exhibit.

new 350-401 questions 13

What does the snippet of code achieve?

A. It creates a temporary connection to a Cisco Nexus device and retrieves a token to be used for API calls.

B. It opens a tunnel and encapsulates the login information if the host key is correct.

C. It opens a client connection to a Cisco Nexus device and maintains it for the duration of the context.

D. It creates an SSH connection using the SSH key that is stored, and the password is ignored.

Correct Answer: C

the client is a Python library that facilitates client-side scripting and application development around the NETCONF protocol. The above Python snippet uses the client to connect and establish a NETCONF session to a Nexus device (which is also a NETCONF server).

Question 14:

A customer has 20 stores located throughout the city. Each store has a single Cisco AP managed by a central WLC. The customer wants to gather analytics for users in each store. Which technique supports these requirements?

A. angle of arrival

B. presence

C. hyper location

D. trilateration

Correct Answer: D

Question 15:

Which feature does Cisco TrustSec use to provide scalable, secure communication throughout a network?

A. security group tag ACL assigned to each port on a switch

B. security group tag number assigned to each port on a network

C. security group tag number assigned to each user on a switch

D. security group tag ACL assigned to each router on a network

Correct Answer: C

Cisco TrustSec uses tags to represent logical group privilege. This tag, called a Security Group Tag (SGT), is used in access policies. The SGT is understood and is used to enforce traffic by Cisco switches, routers, and firewalls. Cisco TrustSec is defined in three phases: classification, propagation, and enforcement. When users and devices connect to a network, the network assigns a specific security group. This process is called classification. Classification can be based on the results of the authentication or by associating the SGT with an IP, VLAN, or port profile (-> Answer \’security group tag ACL assigned to each port on a switch\’ and answer \’security group tag number assigned to each user on a switch\’ are not correct as they say “assigned … on a switch” only. Answer \’security group tag ACL assigned to each router on a network\’ is not correct either as it says “assigned to each router”).

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/solutions/collateral/borderless-networks/trustsec/C07-730151-00_overview_of_trustSec_og.pdf

…

Download leads4pass 350-401 dumps: https://www.leads4pass.com/350-401.html Practice 944 latest exam questions and answers to help candidates successfully pass the 350-401 ENCOR certification exam.

Use ChatGPT to quickly answer our more detailed exam preparation details, leads4pass can help all candidates to really practice effective 350-401 ENCOR certification exam questions and help everyone pass the exam successfully.

Good luck!

[Dec 28, 2022] Latest Update Leads4Pass 300-920 dumps latest-update

[Dec 28, 2022] Latest Update Leads4Pass 300-920 dumps

admin December 28, 2022
latest update

Use the Latest update 300-920 Dumps as your preparation plan to help you pass the 300-920 DEVWBX exam with ease.

leads4pass 300-920 dumps https://www.leads4pass.com/300-920.html, contains 60 newly updated exam questions and answers. You can go to the 300-920 dumps page to use PDF or VCE study tools to help you with Easy Learning 300-920 DEVWBX Exam core content to help you successfully pass the 300-920 DEVWBX exam on your first attempt.

Share the latest 300-920 exam questions and answers again

Number of exam questionsExam nameExam codeLast updated
15Developing Applications for Cisco Webex and Webex Devices (DEVWBX)300-920300-920 dumps
New Question 1:

Which two statements describe valid limitations for Webex Teams bot accounts in a group space? (Choose two.)

A. A bot account cannot send a message without an SSL certificate.

B. A bot account cannot hear a message unless the bot is @ mentioned.

C. A bot account cannot send a message without a valid access token.

D. A bot account cannot respond to another bot.

E. A bot account cannot send a message with an @mention.

Correct Answer: BC

Reference: https://developer.webex.com/docs/bots

New Question 2:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the code snippets onto the exhibit to create a valid Webex Meetings API request allowing Jane (an admin) to reset John\’s PMR pin. Not all options are used.

Select and Place:

300-920 questions 2

Correct Answer:

300-920 questions 2-1

Question 3:

DRAG DROP Refer to the exhibit. A training coordinator must post links to Webex recordings on a company SharePoint site. This is usually a manual process, but a DevOps engineer wants to automate it using Webex XML APIs. After a successful LstRecording call wrapped in xml2js, the ‘console dir(result)’ output is shown in the exhibit. Using ‘dot notation’, drag and drop the code below onto the code snippet to output the streamURL for each recording.

300-920 questions 3

Select and Place:

300-920 questions 3-1

Correct Answer:

300-920 questions 3-2

Question 4:

Which two capabilities are currently supported by the Webex Meetings XML API? (Choose two.)

A. Request a recording link for playback.

B. Send a text message to the meeting host.

C. Request permissions to schedule on someone else\’s behalf.

D. Schedule a new meeting.

E. Send a problem report.

Correct Answer: CD

Reference: https://community.cisco.com/t5/cloud-collaboration/api-for-scheduling-a-webex-meeting-on-behalf-of-other-user/td-p/3472319

Question 5:
300-920 questions 5

Refer to the exhibit. Which code completes the return statement that initiates local screen sharing on the active meeting?

A. activeMeeting.updateShare({ sendShare: true receiveShare: true, stream: null

})

B. activeMeeting.updateShare({ sendShare: true receiveShare: false, stream: remoteShare })

C. activeMeeting.updateShare({ sendShare: true receiveShare: true, stream: localShare })

D. activeMeeting.updateShare({ sendShare: false receiveShare: false, stream: null })

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://github.com/webex/webex-js-sdk/tree/master/packages/node_modules/%40webex/plugin-meetings

Question 6:
300-920 questions 6

Refer to the exhibit. A macro and a UI extension (also called In-Room Control) are being developed. What is the reason for the error displayed in the console?

A. Widgets of type “Slider” are not supported on the device.

B. The UI extension was not exported to the device.

C. The name of the widget in the macro and the UI extension must match.

D. Promises are not supported for this device.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/telepresence/endpoint/ce99/webex-board-administrator-guide-ce99.pdf

Question 7:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the code to complete the JavaScript snippet so that it:

1.

retrieves the details of an individual user

2.

checks what licenses they have already

3.

updates their account with a new license Options can be used more than once.

Select and Place:

300-920 questions 7

Correct Answer:

300-920 questions 7-1

Question 8:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the code to create a valid Guest Issuer JWT token to use with the Webex Teams Browser SDK. Not all options are used.

Select and Place:

300-920 questions 8

Correct Answer:

300-920 questions 8-1

Reference: https://developer.webex.com/docs/guest-issuer

Question 9:

Which two statements about incoming WebEx call notifications on iOS and Android applications are true? (Choose two.)

A. When running in the background on Android, Firebase Cloud Messaging must use a notification message.

B. When running in the background on Android, Firebase Cloud Messaging must use a data message.

C. Webhooks are required with the iOS SDK only when the application is in the background.

D. When running in the background on iOS, Application Push Notifications must be configured to be silent.

E. Webhooks are required in the foreground and background for iOS and Android applications.

Correct Answer: BC

Reference: https://github.com/webex/webex-android-sdk-example-push-notification-server/blob/master/README.md https://developer.webex.com/docs/sdks/ios

Question 10:
300-920 questions 10

Refer to the exhibit. What is the Webex Teams REST API HTTP response status code, based on this code snippet?

A. 401

B. 403

C. 429

D. 501

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://developer.webex.com/docs/api/v1/messages/get-message-details

Question 11:
300-920 questions 11

Refer to the exhibit. A developer must construct an HTTP Request to use the XML API to set a Personal Meeting Room PIN for a given user. Which code completes the code to create the request?

A. xmlhttp.open(“GET”, “https://cisco.webex.com/WBXService/XMLService”);

B. xmlhttp.open(“PATCH”, “https://cisco.webex.com/WBXService/XMLService”);

C. xmlhttp.open(“PUT”, “https://cisco.webex.com/WBXService/XMLService”);

D. xmlhttp.open(“POST”, “https://cisco.webex.com/WBXService/XMLService”);

Correct Answer: D

The post method can be used for the HTTP requests that set up a personal meeting room PIN for a user.

Question 12:
300-920 questions 12

Refer to the exhibit. Assume that there is already a connection to a device for this jsxapi.code snippet. Which snippet completes the code so that the connected device makes a call to the user [email protected]?

300-920 questions 12-1

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://github.com/CiscoDevNet/labs-xapi/pull/12/files/40c9fc38e115f4dec4709836501a165008caeaba

Question 13:

Which two items are needed to give a Webex user the ability to archive all Webex Teams messages for an organization? (Choose two.)

A. Give the user “Read-only administrator privileges” in the Webex Control Hub.

B. Create an Integration app with all “spark_compliance” read scopes enabled.

C. Use the Webex Meetings XML API “SetUser” to update the user\’s “” value to “TRUE”.

D. Configure the user as a “Compliance Officer” in the Webex Control Hub.

E. Create a Bot app with all “webex_compliance” read scopes enabled.

Correct Answer: AD

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cloudCollaboration/spark/esp/Webex-Teams-Security-Frequently-Asked-Questions.pdf

Question 14:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the code segments to construct a script that carries out these functions:

1.

adds a new room

2.

adds two users, Bob, and Alice, to the room

3.

when both users have been added, send a welcome message

Select and Place:

300-920 questions 14

Correct Answer:

300-920 questions 14-1

Reference: https://github.com/webex/webex-js-sdk/tree/master/packages/node_modules/webex (see usage)

Question 15:

A company wants to adopt Webex Teams as a messaging platform and use REST APIs to automate the creation of teams and rooms. Which sequence of REST API requests is needed to create and populate a new Webex team and create a populated Webex room for the team?

A. POST /teams, POST /memberships, POST /rooms

B. POST /teams, POST /people, POST /rooms

C. POST /teams, POST /team/memberships, POST /rooms

D. POST /teams, POST /team/memberships, POST /rooms, POST /memberships

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://developer.webex.com/docs/api/basics

…

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[Update Nov 01, 2022] CCNP Security 300-725 dumps from Leads4Pass with PDF and VCE

[Update Nov 01, 2022] CCNP Security 300-725 dumps from Leads4Pass with PDF and VCE

admin November 1, 2022

leads4pass has shared the latest 300-725 dumps exam questions and answers more than once, and today continues to share some free 300-725 exam questions and answers to help all candidates progress.

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Full 300-725 dumps with PDF and VCE: https://www.leads4pass.com/300-725.html (60 Q&A).

Check out the CCNP Security 300-725 PDF exam questions and answers shared for free:
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Read the CCNP Security 300-725 exam questions and answers shared online today:

Number of exam questionsExam nameFromRelease timePrevious issue
15Securing the Web with Cisco Web Security Appliance (SWSA)leads4passNov 01, 2022300-725 dumps questions 1-15
New Question 16:

What causes authentication failures on a Cisco WSA when LDAP is used for authentication?

A. when the passphrase contains only 5 characters

B. when the passphrase contains characters that are not 7-bit ASCI

C. when the passphrase contains one of the following characters `@ # $ % ^\’

D. when the passphrase contains 50 characters

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-0/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide/b_WSA_UserGuide_appendix_011001.html

New Question 17:
new 300-725 exam questions 17

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about the transaction log is true?

A. The log does not have a date and time

B. The proxy had the content and did not contact other servers

C. The transaction used TCP destination port 8187

D. The AnalizeSuspectTraffic policy group was applied to the transaction

Correct Answer: D

New Question 18:

Which two features can be used with an upstream and downstream Cisco WSA web proxy to have the upstream WSA identify users by their client IP address? (Choose two.)

A. X-Forwarded-For

B. high availability

C. web cache

D. via

E. IP spoofing

Correct Answer: AD

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-0/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide/b_WSA_UserGuide_chapter_0100.html

New Question 19:

Which information in the HTTP request is used to determine if it is subject to the referrer exceptions feature in the Cisco WSA?

A. protocol

B. version

C. header

D. payload

Correct Answer: C

Requests for embedded content usually include the address of the site from which the request originated (this is known as the “referer” field in the request\’s HTTP header). This header information is used to determine the categorization of the referred content.

Reference https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-0/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide/b_WSA_UserGuide_chapter_01100.html

New Question 20:

Which key is needed to pair a Cisco WSA and Cisco ScanCenter for CTA?

A. public SSH key that the Cisco WSA generates

B. public SSH key that Cisco ScanCenter generates

C. private SSH key that Cisco ScanCenter generates

D. private SSH key that the Cisco WSA generates

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-0/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide/b_WSA_UserGuide_chapter_010111.html

New Question 21:

Which behavior is seen while the policy trace tool is used to troubleshoot a Cisco WSA?

A. External DLP policies are evaluated by the tool

B. A real client request is processed and a EUN page is displayed

C. SOCKS policies are evaluated by the tool

D. The web proxy does not record the policy trace test requests in the access log when the tool is in use

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-0/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide/b_WSA_UserGuide_appendix_011001.html#con_1415277

New Question 22:

What are all of the available options for configuring an exception to blocking for referred content?

A. all embedded/referred and all embedded/referred except

B. selected embedded/referred except, all embedded/referred, and selected embedded/referred

C. selected embedded/referred and all embedded/referred except

D. all embedded/referred, selected embedded/referred, and all embedded/referred except

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-7/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide_11_7/b_WSA_UserGuide_11_7_chapter_01001.html (procedure)

New Question 23:

Which two parameters are mandatory to control access to websites with proxy authentication on a Cisco WSA? (Choose two.)

A. External Authentication

B. Identity-Enabled Authentication

C. Transparent User Identification

D. Credential Encryption

E. Authentication Realm

Correct Answer: DE

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-7/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide_11_7/b_WSA_UserGuide_11_7_appendix_010111.html

New Question 24:

Which configuration option is suitable for explicit mode deployment?

A. PAC

B. WCCP

C. ITD

D. PBR

Correct Answer: A

In explicit-mode deployment, users will point the proxy setting to WSA. This can be done by pointing directly to WSA or via a PAC (Proxy Auto-Config) file.

New Question 25:

Which two sources provide data to Cisco Advanced Web Security Reporting to create dashboards? (Choose two.)

A. Cisco WSA devices

B. Cisco ISE

C. Cisco ASAv

D. Cisco Security MARS

E. Cisco Cloud Web Security gateways

Correct Answer: AE

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/Advanced_Reporting/WSA_Advanced_Reporting_6/Advanced_Web_Security_Reporting_6_1.pdf

New Question 26:

Which statement about Cisco Advanced Web Security Reporting integration is true?

A. AWSR uses IP addresses to differentiate Cisco WSA deployments

B. AWSR does not require a license to index data

C. AWSR can remove log files after they are indexed

D. AWSR installation is CLI-based on Windows and Red Hat Linux systems

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/Advanced_Reporting/WSA_Advanced_Reporting_7/Advanced_Web_Security_Reporting_7_0.pdf

New Question 27:

Which two types of reports are scheduled on the Cisco WSA to analyze traffic? (Choose two.)

A. Layer 3 traffic monitor

B. URL categories

C. host statistics

D. application visibility

E. system capacity

Correct Answer: AD

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-0/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide/b_WSA_UserGuide_chapter_010101.pdf (8)

New Question 28:

Which two caches must be cleared on a Cisco WSA to resolve an issue in processing requests? (Choose two.)

A. authentication cache

B. application cache

C. logging cache

D. DNS cache

E. HTTP cache

Correct Answer: AD

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/web-security-appliance/118259-technote-wsa-00.html

New Question 29:

Which statement about configuring an identification profile for machine authentication is true?

A. Cloud Web Security Connector mode with an active directory enabled supports machine authentication

B. Identification profile machine ID is supported locally, but the Cisco WSA does not support machine ID authentication

C. Cloud Web Security with Kerberos enabled supports machine authentication

D. If an Active Directory realm is used, identification can be performed for an authenticated user or IP address but not for a machine ID

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-0/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide/b_WSA_UserGuide_chapter_01001.html

New Question 30:

Which two benefits does AMP provide compared to the other scanning engines on the Cisco WSA? (Choose two.)

A. protection against malware

B. protection against zero-day attacks

C. protection against spam

D. protection against viruses

E. protection against targeted file-based attacks

Correct Answer: BD

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/enterprise-networks/advanced-malware-protection/solution-overview-c22-734228.html

…

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DevNet Professional 300-915 DEVIOT exam questions latest update from Leads4Pass

DevNet Professional 300-915 DEVIOT exam questions latest update from Leads4Pass

admin October 10, 2022

leads4pass continues to share the latest 15 DevNet Professional 300-915 DEVIOT exam questions and answers to help you study online, welcome to download the 300-915 dumps provided by leads4pass:https://www.leads4pass.com/300-915.html Contains 59 practical and valid exam questions and answers, and provides PDF files and VCE simulation tools to help you quickly learn and pass the DevNet Professional 300-915 DEVIOT exam.

Number of exam questionsExam nameFromRelease timePrevious issue
15Developing Solutions using Cisco IoT and Edge Platforms (DEVIOT)leads4passOct 10, 2022300-915 exam dumps questions (Q1-Q15)

Continue your DevNet Professional 300-915 DEVIOT exam knowledge:

New Question 16:

Which two states are applications expected to be seen in when they are managed on Cisco IOx? (Choose two.)

A. DEACTIVATED

B. ACTIVATED

C. ALLOWED

D. STOPPED

E. VALIDATED

Correct Answer: BD

New Question 17:

When an RS232 device is connected to a Cisco IR829 router, the data collected is not being parsed correctly by the edge application.

Which two steps should be taken to troubleshoot the issue? (Choose two.)

A. SSH access on the Cisco IR829 router must be enabled for IOx Guest OS.

B. Communication mode must be set to half duplex over a serial connection.

C. Serial cable length should not exceed 1.5 meters.

D. Ensure that communication parameters like baud rate and parity are set correctly.

E. Set the cable connections based on the PIN layout from the sensor vendor.

Correct Answer: DE

New Question 18:

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about MQTT messaging are true? (Choose two.)

A. Result in code 5 means the connection is accepted; result code 0 means the connection is “refused, not authorized”.

B. Redundant ClientIDs are supported by MQTT brokers.

C. MQTT does not support a “keep alive” functionality because it runs on top of TCP.

D. Result code 0 means the connection is accepted; result code 5 means the connection is “refused, not authorized”.

E. Brokers can send the Last Will and Testament messages on behalf of the client.

Correct Answer: DE

New Question 19:

How do the Cisco router (IR) and switch (IE) portfolios support edge data services?

A. Edge data services can be run and managed as containers using Cisco IOx.

B. Edge data services can run only in virtual machines on a separate compute layer.

C. Edge data services are aliases for IR/IE configuration services.

D. Edge data services run as separate instances only on virtual machines.

Correct Answer: C

New Question 20:

Refer to the exhibit. While troubleshooting an error on an application descriptor for a Docker app in Cisco IOx (package.YAML), the app type appears to be missing. Which app type must be added to the snippet to resolve the issue?

A. paas

B. docker-vm

C. docker

D. docker-app

Correct Answer: C

New Question 21:

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about data flow are true? (Choose two.)

A. Another AMQP broker should be implemented on the customer cloud.

B. Instead of AMQP, MQTT should be used for compatibility issues in a cloud-to-cloud connection.

C. A VPN tunnel is not necessary because the MQTT payload is encrypted by default.

D. The gateway must stay constantly connected to the Kinetic cloud to avoid blank data sets, even when using caching functions.

E. The Python application could use the paho-mqtt library.

Correct Answer: BE

New Question 22:

Which two statements define the mechanism for console access of the Guest Operating System from the Cisco IR829 router? (Choose two.)

A. The Guest OS can be accessed by default on Telnet port 2070 from the Cisco IR829 console.

B. The Guest OS console is available directly by the AUX port 3362 from the Cisco IR829 router.

C. The Guest OS can be accessed directly using the console port on the Cisco IR829 router.

D. The Guest OS can be accessed by initiating SSH from the Cisco IR829 console.

E. The Guest OS console is available only when a static IP is configured on the host.

Correct Answer: AD

New Question 23:

The environment for an Industrial IoT project in a large open pit mine is being scoped. The location has a large amount of dust and the device will be exposed to less than 1 meter of water temporarily.

When the edge device is being chosen, which Ingress protection rating must be used?

A. IP37

B. IP61

C. IP67

D. IP76

Correct Answer: C

New Question 24:

Which two statements about how to provision and manage data originators in a cloud environment are true? (Choose two.)

A. The provisioning of digital identities is the responsibility of the data originators.

B. Cloud providers offer services for automated device provisioning, which allows the lifecycle of the cloud representation for data originators to be managed.

C. Cloud providers offer application programming interfaces, which allow a programmatic provisioning of data originators.

D. There is no need to provision and manage access for data originators in the cloud.

E. access to public clouds must be configured and managed manually.

Correct Answer: CE

New Question 25:

Refer to the exhibit. Which line of code completes the Dockerfile?

A. RUN chmod 777 /usr/bin/sample.py

B. RUN chown root:root /usr/bin/sample.py

C. WORKDIR /usr/bin

D. USER root

Correct Answer: A

New Question 26:

As part of an IoT project, an organization is developing an application that will share multiple clients using a REST API.

Based on the software development process, what are two valid technical activities that can be suggested to secure the REST API that is developed during the development of the software? (Choose two.)

A. Respond to request failures in detail to allow users for easier troubleshoot.

B. Implement HTTP whitelisting to only methods that are allowed.

C. Implement and review audit logs for security-related events.

D. Reject HTTP methods that are invalid with an error code 404.

E. Implement physical firewalling and access control to the resources.

Correct Answer: BD

New Question 27:

Which two actions must be completed before starting the process of sending IoT data to the cloud via edge routers? (Choose two.)

A. Measure the voltage, power rating, and quiescent current for the sensors that send data to the cloud.

B. Gather the hardware (MAC) addresses of local and cloud routers to ensure low-latency communication.

C. Collect information about the CPU architecture in the cloud and edge to ensure that they match.

D. Gather the interval, the volume, and the latency that the data must be provisioned with.

E. Collect information about growth, required elasticity, and high availability of the provisioning process.

Correct Answer: DE

New Question 28:

After an application is deployed, potential issues arise around connectivity. As part of the troubleshooting process, the IP address must be determined to ensure end-to-end communication.

Which method provides the required details using the Cisco IOx CLI?

A. ioxclient application status

B. ioxclient application metrics

C. ioxclient application getconfig

D. ioxclient application info

Correct Answer: D

New Question 29:

Where are edge data services typically instantiated?

A. at the edge of the network

B. in the cloud

C. in the data center

D. in a private cloud

Correct Answer: A

New Question 30:

Refer to the exhibit. A new application has just been developed as a Docker container. What is the missing step for packaging the container ready for deployment in IOx?

A. Pull/push the image to the Docker registry.

B. Build the package.YAML files.

C. Build the package. cert file to sign the app.

D. Log in to the device manager and load the application.

Correct Answer: B

…

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