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[New CompTIA Exam Dumps] Latest CompTIA Linux+ LX0-101 Dumps Exam Training Resources And Youtube Demo

[New CompTIA Exam Dumps] Latest CompTIA Linux+ LX0-101 Dumps Exam Training Resources And Youtube Demo

admin December 18, 2017

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LX0-101 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which of the following directories contains additional information about installed packages?
A. /usr/share/documentation
B. /usr/local/share/documentation
C. /usr/local/doc
D. /usr/share/doc
E. /usr/packages/doc
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which of the following commands will allow an administrator to adjust the number of mounts after which an existing filesystem will be checked by e2fsck?
A. debugfs
B. dumpe2fs
C. mode2fs
D. tune2fs
E. mke2fs
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3 CORRECT TEXT
In which directory must definition files be placed to add additional repositories to yum?
Correct Answer: /ETC/YUM.REPOS.D,/ETC/YUM.REPOS.D/,YUM.REPOS.D,YUM.REPOS.D/

QUESTION 4
An administrator is looking for an executable file foo. Which of the following commands would search for foo within directories set in the shell variable, PATH? LX0-101 dumps
A. locate
B. which
C. find
D. query
E. whereis
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which of the following command lines would an administrator use to restrict the GNU find command to searching a particular number of subdirectories?
A. –max-dirs
B. -dirmax
C. -maxdepth
D. -s
E. -n
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
The lspci command can display information about devices EXCEPT:
A. card bus speed (e.g. 66Mhz).
B. card IRQ settings.
C. card vendor identification.
D. card AGP rate (e.g. 1x, 2x, 4x).
E. card Ethernet MAC address.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 7
In compliance with the FHS, in which of the following places are man pages typically found?
A. /usr/share/man
B. /opt/man
C. /usr/doc/
D. /var/pkg/man
E. /usr/local/man
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8 CORRECT TEXT
The system configuration file named is commonly used to set the default runlevel. (Please provide the fill name with full path information).
Correct Answer: /ETC/INITTAB

QUESTION 9
In the vi editor, which of the following commands will delete the current line at the cursor and the 16 lines following it (17 lines total)? LX0-101 dumps
A. 17d
B. 17dd
C. 17x
D. d17d
E. 16d
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
All of the following commands will update the Modify timestamp on the file /tmp/myfile.txt EXCEPT:
A. file /tmp/myfile.txt
B. echo “Hello” >/tmp/myfile.txt
C. sed -ie “s/1/2/” /tmp/myfile.txt
D. echo -n “Hello” >/tmp/myfile.txt
E. touch /tmp/myfile.txt
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11 CORRECT TEXT
What command with all options and/or parameters will send the signal USR1 to any executing process of program apache2?
Correct Answer: KILLALL-SSIGUSR1APACHE2,KILLALL-SUSR1APACHE2,KILLALLSIGUSR1APACHE2,KILLALL-USR1APACHE2

QUESTION 12
An administrator wishes to kill a process with a PID of 123. Which of the following commands will allow the process to “clean up” before exiting?
A. kill -1 123
B. kill -9 123
C. kill -15 123
D. kill -17 123
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
An administrator has just added a CD-ROM drive (/dev/hdd) to a system and added it to the administrator’s fstab. Typically the administrator can use which of the following commands to mount media in that drive to /mnt/cdrom?
A. mount /dev/cdrom /mnt/cdrom
B. mount /dev/cdrom
C. mount -t cdrom /dev/cdrom /mnt/cdrom
D. mount /mnt/cdrom
E. automount /mnt/hdd /mnt/cdrom}
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
To what environment variable will an administrator assign or append a value if the administrator needs to tell the dynamic linker to look in a build directory for some of a program’s shared libraries?
A. LD_LOAD_PATH
B. LD_LIB_PATH
C. LD_LIBRARY_PATH
D. LD_SHARE_PATH
E. LD_RUN_PATH
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
Pressing the Ctrl-C combination on the keyboard while a command is executing in the foreground sends which of following signal codes?
A. 1 (SIGHUP)
B. 2 (SIGINT)
C. 3 (SIGQUIT)
D. 9 (SIGKILL)
E. 15 (SIGTERM)
Correct Answer: B

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New update CyberOps Associate 200-201 dumps with PDF and VCE new-update-200-201-exam

New update CyberOps Associate 200-201 dumps with PDF and VCE

admin December 31, 2024

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New update 200-201 dumps actually cover all the exam content of the complete CyberOps Associate: Security concepts, Security monitoring, Host-based analysis, Network intrusion analysis, and Security policies and procedures.

Download the free CyberOps Associate 200-201 (2025) PDF:https://drive.google.com/file/d/1_7bAIxujf7ExqOcYeP1OxcVhanvGKFG2/view?usp=sharing

2025 Tips:

Coming this January: Cisco’s CyberOps certifications will be updated to Cisco Cybersecurity certifications.

Effective January 21, 2025 our CyberOps certifications will be updated to Cisco Cybersecurity certifications and will include new AI-related exam topics. With the help of predictive AI in the Cybersecurity Associate and AI-powered and AI-driven analysis in Cybersecurity Professional certifications, you can prepare yourself for the latest in AI-driven Cybersecurity trends and job roles.

The CyberOps Associate exam 200-201 CBROPS v1.1 is being updated to v1.2.

Last date to test for 200-201 CBROPS v1.1 is January 20, 2025.
First date to test for 200-201 CBROPS v1.2 is January 21, 2025.
To see or download the CBROPS 1.2 exam topics, click here

2025 CyberOps Associate 200-201 exam questions and answers online:

Number of exam questions	Exam name	From	Release time	Previous issue
15	Threat Hunting and Defending using Cisco Technologies for CyberOps (CBROPS)	leads4pass	Dec 31, 2024	200-201 dumps exam questions

New Question 1:

What is a benefit of using asymmetric cryptography?

A. decrypts data with one key

B. fast data transfer

C. secure data transfer

D. encrypts data with one key

Correct Answer: C

New Question 2:

What are two social engineering techniques? (Choose two.)

A. privilege escalation

B. DDoS attack

C. phishing

D. man-in-the-middle

E. pharming

Correct Answer: CE

New Question 3:

Which action matches the weaponization step of the Cyber Kill Chain Model?

A. Develop a specific malware to exploit a vulnerable server.

B. Construct a trojan and deliver it to the victim.

C. Match a known script to a vulnerability.

D. Scan open services and ports on a server.

Correct Answer: A

New Question 4:

A SOC analyst is investigating an incident that involves a Linux system that is identifying specific sessions. Which identifier tracks an active program?

A. application identification number

B. active process identification number

C. runtime identification number

D. process identification number

Correct Answer: D

New Question 5:

What is a description of a man-in-the-middle network attack?

A. After attackers penetrate a network, they can use privilege escalation to expand their reach.

B. Attackers build botnets, large fleets of compromised devices, and use them to direct false traffic at networks or servers.

C. It involves attackers intercepting traffic, either between a network and external sites or within a network.

D. Attackers replicate malicious traffic as legitimate and bypass network protection solutions.

Correct Answer: C

New Question 6:

Which regex matches only on all lowercase letters?

A. [az]+

B. [^az]+

C. az+

D. a*z+

Correct Answer: A

New Question 7:

A security specialist notices 100 HTTP GET and POST requests for multiple pages on the web servers. The agent in the requests contains PHP code that, if executed, creates and writes to a new PHP file on the webserver. Which event category is described?

A. reconnaissance

B. action on objectives

C. installation

D. exploitation

Correct Answer: D

New Question 8:

What is the virtual address space for a Windows process?

A. physical location of an object in memory

B. set of pages that reside in the physical memory

C. system-level memory protection feature built into the operating system

D. set of virtual memory addresses that can be used

Correct Answer: D

New Question 9:

A malicious file has been identified in a sandbox analysis tool.

Which piece of information is needed to search for additional downloads of this file by other hosts?

A. file header type

B. file size

C. file name

D. file hash value

Correct Answer: D

New Question 10:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the definition from the left onto the phase on the right to classify intrusion events according to the Cyber Kill Chain model.

Select and Place:

2025 New cisco 200-201 exam questions 10

Correct Answer:

Delivery: This step involves transmitting the weapon to the target. Weaponization: In this step, the intruder creates a malware weapon like a virus, worm or such in order to exploit the vulnerabilities of the target. Depending on the target and the purpose of the attacker, this malware can exploit new, undetected vulnerabilities (also known as the zero-day exploits) or it can focus on a combination of different vulnerabilities. Reconnaissance: In this step, the attacker / intruder chooses their target. Then they conduct an in-depth research on this target to identify its vulnerabilities that can be exploited.

New Question 11:

An analyst discovers that a legitimate security alert has been dismissed. Which signature caused this impact on network traffic?

A. true negative

B. false negative

C. false positive

D. true positive

Correct Answer: B

A false negative occurs when the security system (usually a WAF) fails to identify a threat. It produces a “negative” outcome (meaning that no threat has been observed), even though a threat exists.

New Question 12:

What is the impact of false positive alerts on business compared to true positive?

A. True positives affect security as no alarm is raised when an attack has taken place, while false positives are alerts raised appropriately to detect and further mitigate them.

B. True-positive alerts are blocked by mistake as potential attacks, while False-positives are actual attacks Identified as harmless.

C. False-positive alerts are detected by confusion as potential attacks, while true positives are attack attempts identified appropriately.

D. False positives alerts are manually ignored signatures to avoid warnings that are already acknowledged, while true positives are warnings that are not yet acknowledged.

Correct Answer: C

New Question 13:

Which type of evasion technique is accomplished by separating the traffic into smaller segments before transmitting across the network?

A. encryption

B. tunneling

C. proxies

D. fragmentation

Correct Answer: D

New Question 14:

2025 New cisco 200-201 exam questions 14

Refer to the exhibit. What is occurring?

A. ARP spoofing attack

B. man-in-the-middle attack

C. brute-force attack

D. denial-of-service attack

Correct Answer: D

New Question 15:

What does the SOC metric MTTC provide in incident analysis?

A. average time it takes to recognize and stop the incident

B. average time it takes to fix the issues caused by the incident

C. average time it takes to detect that the incident has occurred

D. average time the attacker has access to the environment

Correct Answer: A

…

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Leads4Pass 300-725 dumps: Pass Cisco 300-725 SWSA exam Leads4Pass-300-725-dumps---Pass-Cisco-300-725-SWSA-exam

Leads4Pass 300-725 dumps: Pass Cisco 300-725 SWSA exam

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Enjoy two Cisco 300-725 SWSA online practice opportunities

First	Number of exam questions	Second	Related certifications
Practice the latest Cisco 300-725 exam materials below	15	Leads4Pass 300-725 Online	CCNP Security

Question 1:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the Cisco WSA access policy elements from the left into the order in which they are processed on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Question 2:

What is the benefit of integrating Cisco WSA with TrustSec in ISE?

A. The policy trace tool can be used to match access policies using specific SGT

B. Traffic of authenticated users who use 802.1x can be tagged with SGT to identify profiles in a Cisco WSA

C. ISE can block authentication for users who generate multiple sessions using suspect TCP ports

D. Users in a specific SGT can be denied access to certain social websites.

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/ise/1-3/ISE-WSAIntegrationDoc/b_ISE-WSAIntegration.html

Question 3:

Which two benefits does AMP provide compared to the other scanning engines on the Cisco WSA? (Choose two.)

A. protection against malware

B. protection against zero-day attacks

C. protection against spam

D. protection against viruses

E. protection against targeted file-based attacks

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/enterprise-networks/advanced-malware-protection/solution-overview-c22-734228.html

Question 4:

Which statement about Cisco Advanced Web Security Reporting integration is true?

A. AWSR uses IP addresses to differentiate Cisco WSA deployments

B. AWSR does not require a license to index data

C. AWSR can remove log files after they are indexed

D. AWSR installation is CLI-based on Windows and Red Hat Linux systems

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/Advanced_Reporting/WSA_Advanced_Reporting_7/Advanced_Web_Security_Reporting_7_0.pdf

Question 5:

A network administrator noticed that all traffic that is redirected to the Cisco WSA from the Cisco ASA firewall cannot get to the Internet in a Transparent proxy environment using WCCP. Which troubleshooting action must be taken on the CLI to make sure that WCCP communication is not failing?

A. Disable WCCP to see if the WCCP service is causing the issue

B. Explicitly point the browser to the proxy

C. Ping the WCCP device

D. Check WCCP logs in debug mode

Correct Answer: D

Question 6:

What is the function of a PAC file on a Cisco WSA?

A. The file allows redirection of web traffic to a specific proxy server

B. The file is mandatory for a transparent proxy to redirect user traffic

C. The file provides instructions about which URL categories are permitted

D. The file is mandatory for an explicit proxy to forward user traffic

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless-mobility/wlan-security/116052-config-webauth-proxy-00.html

Question 7:

Which method is used by AMP against zero-day and targeted file-based attacks?

A. analyzing the behavior of all files that are not yet known to the reputation service

B. periodically evaluating emerging threats as new information becomes available

C. implementing security group tags

D. obtaining the reputation of known files

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/enterprise-networks/advanced-malware-protection/solution-overview-c22-734228.html

Question 8:

Which two caching modes are available in the Cisco WSA? (Choose two.)

A. active cache

B. all cache

C. aggressive cache

D. safe cache

E. no-cache

Correct Answer: CD

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-5/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide_11_5_1/b_WSA_UserGuide_11_5_1_chapter_0100.html#task_1214899

Question 9:

Which information in the HTTP request is used to determine if it is subject to the referrer exceptions feature in the Cisco WSA?

A. protocol

B. version

C. header

D. payload

Correct Answer: C

Requests for embedded content usually include the address of the site from which the request originated (this is known as the “referer” field in the request\’s HTTP header). This header information is used to determine the categorization of the referred content.

Reference https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-0/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide/b_WSA_UserGuide_chapter_01100.html

Question 10:

Refer to the exhibit. Which command displays this output?

A. grep

B. log config

C. rollover now

D. tail

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/web-security-appliance/117938-configure-wsa-00.html

Question 11:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the properties from the left onto the correct advanced web proxy setting descriptions on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-0/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide/b_WSA_UserGuide_chapter_0100.html

Question 12:

Which certificate format does a Cisco WSA need when an HTTPS proxy is configured?

A. DER

B. CER

C. PEM

D. CRL

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://community.cisco.com/t5/security-documents/wsa-training-series-how-to-configure-the-https-proxy-on-the/ta-p/3148673

Question 13:

Which key is needed to pair a Cisco WSA and Cisco ScanCenter for CTA?

A. public SSH key that the Cisco WSA generates

B. public SSH key that Cisco ScanCenter generates

C. private SSH key that Cisco ScanCenter generates

D. private SSH key that the Cisco WSA generates

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-0/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide/b_WSA_UserGuide_chapter_010111.html

Question 14:

A user browses to a company website that is categorized as “Business and Industry” and contains a Facebook post. The user cannot see the Facebook post because the category “Social Networking” is blocked. Which configuration allows the user to see the Facebook post?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-7/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide_11_7/b_WSA_UserGuide_11_7_chapter_01001.html

Question 15:

Which two features can be used with an upstream and downstream Cisco WSA web proxy to have the upstream WSA identify users by their client IP address? (Choose two.)

A. X-Forwarded-For

B. high availability

C. web cache

D. via

E. IP spoofing

Correct Answer: AD

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-0/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide/b_WSA_UserGuide_chapter_0100.html

…

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15 Splunk SPLK-1004 exam actual questions you need to know splunk-SPLK-1004-exam

15 Splunk SPLK-1004 exam actual questions you need to know

admin August 20, 2024

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IT Provider	Number of exam questions	Online quantity	Related certifications
Leads4Pass	70 Q&A	15 Q&A	Splunk Enterprise Security Certified Admin

More official details: https://www.splunk.com/en_us/training/certification-track/splunk-core-certified-user.html

Question 1:

What default Splunk role can use the Log Event alert action?

A. Power

B. User

C. can_delete

D. Admin

Correct Answer: D

Explain:

In Splunk, the Admin role (Option D) can use the Log Event alert action among many other administrative privileges. The Log Event alert action allows Splunk to create an event in an index based on the triggering of an alert, providing a way to log and track alert occurrences over time. The Admin role typically encompasses a wide range of permissions, including the ability to configure and manage alert actions.

Question 2:

A “Linux logins” report populates a summary index with the search string sourcetype=linux_secure| stop src_ip user. Which of the following correctly searches against the summary index for this data?

A. index=summary sourcetype=”linux_secure” | top src_ip user

B. index=summary search_name=”Linux logins” | top src_ip user

C. index=summary search_name=”Linux logins” | stats count by src_ip user

D. index=summary sourcetype=”linux_secure” | stats count by src_ip user

Correct Answer: B

Explain:

When searching against summary data in Splunk, it \ is common to reference the name of the saved search or report that populated the summary index. The correct search syntax to retrieve data from the summary index populated by a report named “Linux logins” is index=summary search_name=” Linux logins” | top src_ip user (Option B). This syntax uses the search_name field, which holds the name of the saved search or report that generated the summary data, allowing for precise retrieval of the intended summary data.

Question 3:

How can the inspect button be disabled on a dashboard panel?

A. Set inspect.link.disabled to 1

B. Set link. inspect .visible to 0

C. Set link.inspectSearch.visible too

D. Set link.search.disabled to 1

Correct Answer: B

Explain:

To disable the inspect button on a dashboard panel in Splunk, you can set the link. inspect. visible attribute to 0 (Option B) in the panel\’s source code. This attribute controls the visibility of the inspect button, and setting it to 0 hides the button, preventing users from accessing the search inspector for that panel.

Question 4:

What order of incoming events must be supplied to the transaction command to ensure correct results?

A. Reverse lexicographical order

B. Ascending lexicographical order

C. Ascending chronological order

D. Reverse chronological order

Correct Answer: C

Explain:

The transaction command in Splunk groups events into transactions based on common fields or characteristics. For the transaction command to function correctly and group events into meaningful transactions, the incoming events must be supplied in ascending chronological order (Option C). This ensures that related events are sequenced correctly according to their occurrence over time, allowing for accurate transaction grouping and analysis

Question 5:

Which of the following is accurate about cascading inputs?

A. They can be reset by an event handler.

B. The final input has no impact on previous inputs.

C. Only the final input of the sequence can supply a token to searches.

D. Inputs added to panels can not participate.

Correct Answer: A

Explain:

Cascading inputs in Splunk dashboards allow the selection of one input (like a dropdown, radio button, etc.) to determine the available options in the subsequent input, creating a dependent relationship between them. An event handler can be configured to reset subsequent inputs based on the selection made in a preceding input (Option A), ensuring that only relevant options are presented to the user as they make selections. This approach enhances the dashboard\’s usability by guiding the user through a logical flow of choices, where each selection refines the scope of the following options.

Question 6:

What file types does Splunk use to define geospatial lookups?

A. GPX or GML files

B. TXT files

C. KMZ or KML files

D. CSV files

Correct Answer: C

Explain:

For defining geospatial lookups, Splunk uses KMZ or KML files (Option C). KML (Keyhole Markup Language) is an XML notation for expressing geographic annotation and visualization within Internet-based maps and Earth browsers like Google Earth. KMZ is a compressed version of KML files. These file types allow Splunk to map data points to geographic locations, enabling the creation of geospatial visualizations and analyses. GPX or GML files (Option A), TXT files (Option B), and CSV files (Option D) are not specifically used for geospatial lookups in Splunk, although CSV files are commonly used for other types of lookups.

Question 7:

Why is the transaction command slow in large Splunk deployments?

A. It forces the search to run in fast mode.

B. transaction or runs on each Indexer in parallel.

C. It forces all event data to be returned to the search head.

D. transaction runs a hidden eval to format fields.

Correct Answer: C

Explain:

The transaction command can be slow in large Splunk deployments because it requires all event data relevant to the transaction to be returned to the search head (Option C). This process can be resource-intensive, especially for transactions that span a large volume of data or time, as it involves aggregating and sorting events across potentially many indexers before the transaction logic can be applied.

Question 8:

Which of the following statements is accurate regarding the append command?

A. It is used with a sub search and only accesses real-lime searches.

B. It is used with a sub search and oily accesses historical data.

C. It cannot be used with a sub search and only accesses historical data.

D. It cannot be used with a sub search and only accesses real-time searches.

Correct Answer: B

Explain:

The append command in Splunk is often used with a sub search to add additional data to the end of the primary search results, and it can access historical data (Option B). This capability is useful for combining datasets from different time ranges or sources, enriching the primary search results with supplementary information.

Question 9:

Which statement about six files is accurate?

A. Splunk updates tsidx files every 30 minutes.

B. Splunk removes outdated six files every 5 minutes.

C. A tsidx file consists of a lexicon and a posting list.

D. Each bucket in each index may contain only one side file.

Correct Answer: C

Explain:

A tsidx file in Splunk is an index file that contains indexed data, and it consists of two main parts: a lexicon and a posting list (Option C). The lexicon is a list of unique terms found in the data, and the posting list is a list of references to the occurrences of these terms in the indexed data. This structure allows Splunk to efficiently search and retrieve data based on search terms.

Question 10:

What XML element is used to pass multiple fields into another dashboard using a dynamic drill down?

A.

B.

C.

D.

Correct Answer: D

Explain:

In Splunk Simple XML for dashboards, dynamic drill downs are configured within the element, not, or. To pass multiple fields to another dashboard, you would use a combination of tokens

within the element. Each token specifies a field or value to be passed. The correct configuration might look something like this within the element:

$row.field1$

$row.field2$

/app/search/new_dashboard

In this configuration,$row.field1$and$row.field2$are placeholders for the field values from the clicked event, which are assigned to tokenstoken1andtoken2. These tokens can then be used in the target dashboard to receive the values.

The element specifiesthe target dashboard. Note that the exact syntax can vary based on the specific requirements of the drill down and the dashboard configuration.

Question 11:

what is the result of the series command?

A. To transform the single series output into a multi-series output

B. To transform a stats-like output into a chart-like output.

C. To transform a multi-series output into single-series output.

D. To transform a chart-like output into a stats-like output.

Correct Answer: B

Explain:

The result of the XY series command in Splunk is to transform a stats-like output into chart- like output (Option B). The series command restructures the search results so that each row represents a unique combination of x and y values, suitable for plotting in a chart, making it easier to visualize complex relationships between multiple data points.

Question 12:

What qualifies a report for acceleration?

A. Fewer than 100k events in search results, with transforming commands used in the search string.

B. More than 100k events in search results, with only a search command in the search string.

C. More than 100k events in the search results, with a search and transforming command used in the search string.

D. fewer than 100k events in search results, with only a search and transaction command used in the search string.

Correct Answer: A

Explain:

A report qualifies for acceleration in Splunk if it involves fewer than 100,000 events in the search results and uses transforming commands in the search string (Option A). Transforming commands aggregate data, making it more suitable for acceleration by reducing the dataset\’s complexity and size, which in turn improves the speed and efficiency of report generation.

Question 13:

Assuming a standard time zone across the environment, what syntax will always return events from between 2:00 am and 5:00 am?

A. datehour>-2 AND date_hour<5

B. earliest=-2h@h AND latest=-5h@h

C. time_hour>-2 AND time_hour>-5

D. earliest=2h@ AND latest=5h3h

Correct Answer: B

Explain:

To always return events from between 2:00 AM and 5:00 AM, assuming a standard time zone across the environment, the correct Splunk search syntax is earliest=-2h@h AND latest=-5h@h (Option B). This syntax uses relative time modifiers to specify a range starting 2 hours ago from the current hour (-2h@h) and ending 5 hours ago from the current hour (-5h@h), effectively capturing the desired time window.

Question 14:

What happens to panels with post-processing searches when their base search Is refreshed?

A. The parcels are deleted.

B. The panels are only refreshed If they have also been configured.

C. The panels are refreshed automatically.

D. Nothing happens to the panels.

Correct Answer: C

Explain:

When the base search of a dashboard panel with post-processing searches is refreshed, the panels with these post-processing searches are refreshed automatically (Option C). Post-processing searches inherit the scope and results of the base search, and when the base search is updated or rerun, the post-processed results are recalculated to reflect the latest data.

Question 15:

Where does the output of an append command appear in the search results?

A. Added as a column to the right of the search results.

B. Added as a column to the left of the search results.

C. Added to the beginning of the search results.

D. Added to the end of the search results.

Correct Answer: D

Explain:

The output of an append command in Splunk search results is added to the end of the search results (Option D). The append command is used to concatenate the results of a subsearch to the end of the current search results, effectively extending the result set with additional data. This can be particularly useful for combining related datasets or adding contextual information to the existing search results.

…

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The latest updated 300-910 dumps serve all Cisco 300-910 DEVOPS exam candidates

admin June 20, 2023

The newly updated Cisco 300-910 dumps provide 114 exam questions and answers, covering the full range of practice exam questions, for all candidates taking the 300-910 DevOps exam.

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Latest Cisco 300-910 Dumps exam questions online practice test

From	Number of exam questions	Associated certification	Update time
leads4pass	15	CCDP, CCDA …	June 2023

New Question 1:

A developer is nearing the end of a software development cycle and is ready to deploy the software. The customer wants to continue using a secure software development lifecycle methodology and must plan for postproduction components. Which two areas should the developer address? (Choose two.)

A. performing code reviews

B. requirement gathering

C. change management process

D. new code scanning

E. rollback plans

Correct Answer: AC

New Question 2:

FILL BLANK

Fill in the blanks to complete the statement.

When creating multiple containers, in order to allow communication with each other, you must create a __________ of type _________.

Correct Answer: pod, volume

New Question 3:

Which Kubernetes object is used to create a ClusterIP or NodePort?

A. service

B. pod

C. deployment

D. load balancer

Correct Answer: A

New Question 4:

DRAG DROP

An application is being built to collect and display telemetry streaming data. Drag and drop the elements of this stack from the left onto the correct functions on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

New Question 5:

A DevOps engineer has built a container to host a web server and it must run as an executable. Which command must be configured in a Dockerfile to accomplish this goal?

A. ENTRYPOINT

B. ENTRYPOINT [“/usr/sbin/apache2ctl”, “-D”, “FOREGROUND”]

C. ENTRYPOINT [“BACKGROUND”, “-D”, “/usr/sbin/apache2ctl”]

D. ENTRYPOINT {usr/sbin/apache2ctl}

Correct Answer: B

New Question 6:

What is the purpose of using a build tool in software development?

A. It complies with source code into binaries and executables.

B. It provides a way to edit source code using a graphical interface.

C. It is a manual process that is followed to build software.

D. It tracks bugs and incidents in a built application.

Correct Answer: A

New Question 7:

ConfigMap keys have been mapped to different file names using the volumes.configMap.items field. What is the result if a wrong ConfigMap key is specified?

A. The default path is not used.

B. The volume is not created.

C. The volume is created.

D. The volume is created with errors.

Correct Answer: A

New Question 8:

Which type of testing should be integrated into a CI/CD pipeline to ensure the correct behavior of all of the modules in the source code that were developed using TDD?

A. soak testing

B. unit testing

C. load testing

D. volume testing

Correct Answer: B

New Question 9:

When static routes are added to a router in a network using a CI/CD pipeline, an Ansible playbook is used to make these changes. Which steps must be added to the pipeline to validate that the changes have the intended effect on the traffic flow?

A. Add a step to run the debug ip routing command before the change, and add a step after the change to issue the no debug ip routing command.

B. Add a step to capture the routing table before the change, and add a step after the change to capture it again. Calculate the difference between the two for review.

C. Add a step to ping a host on each of the static routes before the change and a step after to repeat the same check. Calculate the difference between the two checks for review.

D. Add a step to run the same playbook again with the debug option enabled and use grep on the log output to ensure that the commands are not applied again.

Correct Answer: B

New Question 10:

What is the effective way to manage computing costs in a public cloud?

A. Monitor data transfers to minimize cost.

B. Use dedicated hardware for all instances.

C. Select the largest instance option available in order to pay for only one instance.

D. Make use of elastic services and scale on demand.

Correct Answer: D

New Question 11:

A DevOps engineer has built a new container and must open port 8080 for inter container communication. Which command must be added in a Dockerfile to accomplish this goal?

A. EXPOSE 8080

B. FIREWALL ADD-PORT 8080

C. PORT 8080

D. OPEN PORT 8080

Correct Answer: A

New Question 12:

How long do analysis systems such as Elasticsearch, Logstash, and Kibana Stack handle ingesting unstructured logs from different devices in various formats?

A. All devices that generate syslogs must use agents that process the local logs and transmit them in a specific format to the ELK Stack.

B. All logs are stored in their unstructured text format, and the ELK Stack performs data analysis by intelligently parsing the logs using machine learning algorithms.

C. All different message formats are parsed separately using custom filters, and the resulting structured data is stored for later analysis.

D. A single, comprehensive log format is defined on the ELK Stack. All incoming logs, regardless of format, are transformed to match the comprehensive format, and only applicable fields are populated.

Correct Answer: D

New Question 13:

Refer to the exhibit. What is causing the request code to fail?

A. Rython3 is not compatible with requests.

B. The requests library is not imported.

C. The requests library is not installed.

D. The requests coming into stdin fail because device_ip cannot be parsed.

Correct Answer: B

New Question 14:

Which action should the system administrator take to start looking for the cause of this issue?

A. Check to make sure Nginx is running.

B. Check for response times in Nginx logs.

C. Check to make sure the web API response is coming back in JSON.

D. Check the size of the database that the application is using.

Correct Answer: B

New Question 15:

FILL BLANK Fill in the blanks to describe the concepts of extending DevOps practices to the network for NetDevOps. NetDevOps builds and manages networks as a system that enables network services to be consumed in a DevOps approach. Organizations practicing NetDevOps see changes in the _________ as routine and expected activities, with a well-

defined and practiced process for _________ , testing, and __________ network changes. By making them routine, network changes can be small and simple.

Correct Answer: network, designing, deploying

Reference: https://blogs.cisco.com/developer/embrace-netdevops-part-1

…

Number of exam questions	Update time
15	Sep 2022

Question 1:

A DevOps engineer must validate the working state of the network before implementing a CI/CD pipeline model. Which configuration management tool is designed to accomplish this?

A. Jenkins

B. Genie CLI

C. Travis CI

D. Python YAML data libraries

Check answer ➠

Question 2:

A CI/CD pipeline that builds infrastructure components using Terraform must be designed. A step in the pipeline is needed that checks for errors in any of the .tf files in the working directory. It also checks the existing state of the defined infrastructure.

Which command does the pipeline run to accomplish this goal?

A. terraform plan

B. terraform check

C. terraform fmt

D. terraform validate

Check answer ➠

Question 3:

Refer to the exhibit. How should the Jenkins job be troubleshot based on the error provided?

A. Verify what the responding file created.

B. Update pip.

C. Install dependencies.

D. Place the code in a container and run the job again.

Check answer ➠

Question 4:

Which description of a canary deployment is true?

A. deployment by accident

B. deployment that is rolled back automatically after a configurable amount of minutes

C. deployment relating to data mining development

D. deployment to a limited set of servers or users

Check answer ➠

Question 5:

Refer to the exhibit. What is causing the requests code to fail?

A. Rython3 is not compatible with requests.

B. The requests library is not imported.

C. The requests library is not installed.

D. The requests coming into stdin fail because device_ip cannot be parsed.

Check answer ➠

Question 6:

Which two actions help limit the attack surface of your Docker container? (Choose two.)

A. Run only a single service in each container.

B. Run all services in a single image.

C. Use version tags for base images and dependencies.

D. Use Kali Linux as a base image.

E. Download images over HTTPS supporting sites.

Check answer ➠

Question 7:

A DevOps engineer has built a container to host a web server and it must run as an executable. Which command must be configured in a Dockerfile to accomplish this goal?

A. ENTRYPOINT

B. ENTRYPOINT [“/usr/sbin/apache2ctl”, “-D”, “FOREGROUND”]

C. ENTRYPOINT [“BACKGROUND”, “-D”, “/usr/sbin/apache2ctl”]

D. ENTRYPOINT {usr/sbin/apache2ctl}

Check answer ➠

Question 8:

The company has experienced serious growth and the hosted applications are getting more and more hits. Based on the increased workload, applications have started to show signs of reduced performance, which is affecting the user experience.

Which two server metrics should be tracked to ensure that the customer experience remains within acceptable limits? (Choose two.)

A. application feature sprawl

B. CPU peak usage

C. CPU average usage

D. microservices count

E. CPU frequency

Check answer ➠

Question 9:

Refer to the exhibit. What is the reason for this error message?

A. The required dependencies for the urllib3 module are not installed.

B. The requests module is not installed.

C. The required dependencies for the requests module are not installed.

D. The site-packages directory has been corrupted.

Check answer ➠

Question 10:

Refer to the exhibit. What is the user doing with Drone in this automated test?

A. testing Alpine Linux versus Ubuntu Linux

B. testing a PostgreSQL DB against multiple architectures

C. testing only the amd64 architecture

D. testing PostgreSQL deployment in an Alpine Linux VM

Check answer ➠

Question 11:

An interface on a router as a Layer 3 link has been configured to another device by updating an Ansible playbook that is executed via a CI/CD pipeline. The Ansible playbook was written to push the configuration change using the ios_config module.

Which automated test validates that the interface is functioning as it should?

A. Add a pipeline step that runs the playbook a second type. If it does not modify the device on the second run, then the interface is correctly configured.

B. Automated testing is already built in because the playbook execution is successful only after Ansible validates that it applied the change.

C. Add a pipeline step that captures and parses the packet flow for the interface.

D. Add a pipeline step that captures and parses the show IP interface output so that the operational state can be referenced.

Check answer ➠

Question 12:

Which two characteristics of a build tool that is used in an automated build pipeline? (Choose two.)

A. It runs unit tests against code that is committed.

B. It builds your software in the production environment.

C. It builds your software when changes are committed.

D. It builds your software every 500 milliseconds.

E. It must have a plug-in for Puppet and Maven.

Check answer ➠

Question 13:

Refer to the exhibit. A developer needs to scale the existing pods within the worked nodes. Which object should be edited to achieve this goal?

A. ReplicaSet

B. PriorityClass

C. Deployment

D. Pod

Check answer ➠

Question 14:

When static routes are added to a router in a network using a CI/CD pipeline, an Ansible playbook is used to make these changes. Which steps must be added to the pipeline to validate that the changes have the intended effect on the traffic flow?

A. Add a step to run the debug IP routing command before the change, and add a step after the change to issue the no debug IP routing command.

B. Add a step to capture the routing table before the change, and add a step after the change to capture it again. Calculate the difference between the two for review.

C. Add a step to ping a host on each of the static routes before the change, and a step after to repeat the same check. Calculate the difference between the two checks for review.

D. Add a step to run the same playbook again with the debug option enabled and use grep on the log output to ensure that the commands are not applied again.

Check answer ➠

Question 15:

A DevOps engineer is supporting a containerized application with multiple components running across the Kubernetes cluster. Metrics from the container (CPU and memory) and application (requests per second and heap size) are being collected by Prometheus and displayed with Grafana. Users report transaction timeout problems with the application, but the metric graphs all look within normal levels.

Which type of failure would prevent the engineer from seeing the problem using the captured metrics?

A. Grafana has lost connectivity to Prometheus, which causes graphs to display only the cached data.

B. CPU and memory metrics from Kubernetes nodes are not accurate due to the way that containers share resources.

C. Some containers are crashing regularly and being restarted automatically by Kubernetes.

D. The metric beat agent has crashed and is no longer sending new data to Prometheus, so the metrics are not updating.

Check answer ➠

…

Verify answer:

Numbers:

Q1

Q2

Q3

Q4

Q5

Q6

Q7

Q8

Q9

Q10

Q11

Q12

Q13

Q14

Q15

Answers:

A

D

A

D

B

CE

B

BC

B

D

B

AC

A

B

D

Download the Cisco 300-910 PDF 2022 Timeline:

https://drive.google.com/file/d/1rIdz2ZXpq2rZ52IuhNaGtTStG0WJgqfW/

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[Update Nov 01, 2022] CCNP Security 300-725 dumps from Leads4Pass with PDF and VCE

admin November 1, 2022

leads4pass has shared the latest 300-725 dumps exam questions and answers more than once, and today continues to share some free 300-725 exam questions and answers to help all candidates progress.

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Read the CCNP Security 300-725 exam questions and answers shared online today:

Number of exam questions	Exam name	From	Release time	Previous issue
15	Securing the Web with Cisco Web Security Appliance (SWSA)	leads4pass	Nov 01, 2022	300-725 dumps questions 1-15

New Question 16:

What causes authentication failures on a Cisco WSA when LDAP is used for authentication?

A. when the passphrase contains only 5 characters

B. when the passphrase contains characters that are not 7-bit ASCI

C. when the passphrase contains one of the following characters `@ # $ % ^\’

D. when the passphrase contains 50 characters

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-0/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide/b_WSA_UserGuide_appendix_011001.html

New Question 17:

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about the transaction log is true?

A. The log does not have a date and time

B. The proxy had the content and did not contact other servers

C. The transaction used TCP destination port 8187

D. The AnalizeSuspectTraffic policy group was applied to the transaction

Correct Answer: D

New Question 18:

Which two features can be used with an upstream and downstream Cisco WSA web proxy to have the upstream WSA identify users by their client IP address? (Choose two.)

A. X-Forwarded-For

B. high availability

C. web cache

D. via

E. IP spoofing

Correct Answer: AD

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-0/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide/b_WSA_UserGuide_chapter_0100.html

New Question 19:

Which information in the HTTP request is used to determine if it is subject to the referrer exceptions feature in the Cisco WSA?

A. protocol

B. version

C. header

D. payload

Correct Answer: C

Requests for embedded content usually include the address of the site from which the request originated (this is known as the “referer” field in the request\’s HTTP header). This header information is used to determine the categorization of the referred content.

Reference https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-0/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide/b_WSA_UserGuide_chapter_01100.html

New Question 20:

Which key is needed to pair a Cisco WSA and Cisco ScanCenter for CTA?

A. public SSH key that the Cisco WSA generates

B. public SSH key that Cisco ScanCenter generates

C. private SSH key that Cisco ScanCenter generates

D. private SSH key that the Cisco WSA generates

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-0/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide/b_WSA_UserGuide_chapter_010111.html

New Question 21:

Which behavior is seen while the policy trace tool is used to troubleshoot a Cisco WSA?

A. External DLP policies are evaluated by the tool

B. A real client request is processed and a EUN page is displayed

C. SOCKS policies are evaluated by the tool

D. The web proxy does not record the policy trace test requests in the access log when the tool is in use

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-0/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide/b_WSA_UserGuide_appendix_011001.html#con_1415277

New Question 22:

What are all of the available options for configuring an exception to blocking for referred content?

A. all embedded/referred and all embedded/referred except

B. selected embedded/referred except, all embedded/referred, and selected embedded/referred

C. selected embedded/referred and all embedded/referred except

D. all embedded/referred, selected embedded/referred, and all embedded/referred except

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-7/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide_11_7/b_WSA_UserGuide_11_7_chapter_01001.html (procedure)

New Question 23:

Which two parameters are mandatory to control access to websites with proxy authentication on a Cisco WSA? (Choose two.)

A. External Authentication

B. Identity-Enabled Authentication

C. Transparent User Identification

D. Credential Encryption

E. Authentication Realm

Correct Answer: DE

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-7/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide_11_7/b_WSA_UserGuide_11_7_appendix_010111.html

New Question 24:

Which configuration option is suitable for explicit mode deployment?

A. PAC

B. WCCP

C. ITD

D. PBR

Correct Answer: A

In explicit-mode deployment, users will point the proxy setting to WSA. This can be done by pointing directly to WSA or via a PAC (Proxy Auto-Config) file.

New Question 25:

Which two sources provide data to Cisco Advanced Web Security Reporting to create dashboards? (Choose two.)

A. Cisco WSA devices

B. Cisco ISE

C. Cisco ASAv

D. Cisco Security MARS

E. Cisco Cloud Web Security gateways

Correct Answer: AE

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/Advanced_Reporting/WSA_Advanced_Reporting_6/Advanced_Web_Security_Reporting_6_1.pdf

New Question 26:

Which statement about Cisco Advanced Web Security Reporting integration is true?

A. AWSR uses IP addresses to differentiate Cisco WSA deployments

B. AWSR does not require a license to index data

C. AWSR can remove log files after they are indexed

D. AWSR installation is CLI-based on Windows and Red Hat Linux systems

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/Advanced_Reporting/WSA_Advanced_Reporting_7/Advanced_Web_Security_Reporting_7_0.pdf

New Question 27:

Which two types of reports are scheduled on the Cisco WSA to analyze traffic? (Choose two.)

A. Layer 3 traffic monitor

B. URL categories

C. host statistics

D. application visibility

E. system capacity

Correct Answer: AD

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-0/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide/b_WSA_UserGuide_chapter_010101.pdf (8)

New Question 28:

Which two caches must be cleared on a Cisco WSA to resolve an issue in processing requests? (Choose two.)

A. authentication cache

B. application cache

C. logging cache

D. DNS cache

E. HTTP cache

Correct Answer: AD

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/web-security-appliance/118259-technote-wsa-00.html

New Question 29:

Which statement about configuring an identification profile for machine authentication is true?

A. Cloud Web Security Connector mode with an active directory enabled supports machine authentication

B. Identification profile machine ID is supported locally, but the Cisco WSA does not support machine ID authentication

C. Cloud Web Security with Kerberos enabled supports machine authentication

D. If an Active Directory realm is used, identification can be performed for an authenticated user or IP address but not for a machine ID

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-0/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide/b_WSA_UserGuide_chapter_01001.html

New Question 30:

Which two benefits does AMP provide compared to the other scanning engines on the Cisco WSA? (Choose two.)

A. protection against malware

B. protection against zero-day attacks

C. protection against spam

D. protection against viruses

E. protection against targeted file-based attacks

Correct Answer: BD

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/enterprise-networks/advanced-malware-protection/solution-overview-c22-734228.html

…

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Latest updated CCNA 200-301 dumps from Leads4Pass q1-1

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Number of exam questions	Release time	Exam name	From	Previous issue
15	Sep 20, 2022	Implementing and Administering Cisco Solutions (CCNA)	leads4pass	Sep 2, 2022

New Question 1:

DRAG DROP

A network engineer is configuring an OSPFv2 neighbor adjacency. Drag and drop the parameters from the left onto their required categories on the right. Not all parameters are used.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

New Question 2:

Drag and drop the threat-mitigation techniques from the left onto the types of threat or attack they mitigate on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Double-Tagging attack:

In this attack, the attacking computer generates frames with two 802.1Q tags. The first tag matches the native VLAN of the trunk port (VLAN 10 in this case), and the second matches the VLAN of a host it wants to attack (VLAN 20).

When the packet from the attacker reaches Switch A, Switch A only sees the first VLAN 10 and it matches with its native VLAN 10 so this VLAN tag is removed. Switch A forwards the frame out all links with the same native VLAN 10. Switch B

receives the frame with a tag of VLAN 20 so it removes this tag and forwards it out to the Victim’s computer.

Note: This attack only works if the trunk (between two switches) has the same native VLAN as the attacker.

To mitigate this type of attack, you can use VLAN access control lists (VACLs, which apply to all traffic within a VLAN. We can use VACL to drop attacker traffic to specific victims/servers) or implement Private VLANs.

ARP attack (like ARP poisoning/spoofing) is a type of attack in which a malicious actor sends falsified ARP messages over a local area network as ARP allows a gratuitous reply from a host even if an ARP request was not received. This

results in the linking of an attacker\’s MAC address with the IP address of a legitimate computer or server on the network. This is an attack based on ARP which is at Layer 2. Dynamic ARP inspection (DAI) is a security feature that validates ARP packets in a network which can be used to mitigate this type of attack.

New Question 3:

Drag and drop the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller security settings from the left onto the correct security mechanism categories on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Layer 2 Security Mechanism includes WPA+WPA2, 802.1X, Static WEP, and CKIP while Layer 3 Security Mechanisms (for WLAN) includes IPSec, VPN Pass-Through, Web Passthrough …

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless/4400-series-wireless-lan-controllers/106082-wlc-compatibility-matrix.html

New Question 4:

Drag and drop the network protocols from the left onto the correct transport services on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

New Question 5:

DRAG DROP

Refer to the exhibit.

Drag and drop the networking parameters from the left onto the correct values on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

The “IP route” and “IP addr show eth1” are Linux commands.

1.

“IP route”: display the routing table

2.

“IP addr show eth1”: get depth information (only on eth1 interface) about your network interfaces like IP Address, MAC Address information

New Question 6:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the AAA functions from the left onto the correct AAA services on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

New Question 7:

Drag and drop the IPv4 network subnets from the left onto the correct usable host ranges on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

This subnet question requires us to grasp how to subnet very well. To quickly find out the subnet range, we have to find out the increment and the network address of each subnet. Let\’s take an example with the subnet 172.28.228.144/18:

From the /18 (= 1100 0000 in the 3rd octet), we find out the increment is 64. Therefore the network address of this subnet must be the greatest multiple of the increment but not greater than the value in the 3rd octet (228). We can find out the 3rd octet of the network address is 192 (because 192 = 64 * 3 and 192 < 228) -> The network address is 172.28.192.0. So the first usable host should be 172.28.192.1 and it matches with the 5th answer on the right. In this case, we don\’t need to calculate the broadcast address because we found the correct answer.

Let\’s take another example with subnet 172.28.228.144/23 -> The increment is 2 (as /23 = 1111 1110 in 3rd octet) -> The 3rd octet of the network address is 228 (because 228 is the multiply of 2 and equal to the 3rd octet) -> The network address is 172.28.228.0 -> The first usable host is 172.28.228.1. It is not necessary but if we want to find out the broadcast address of this subnet, we can find out the next network address, which is 172.28. (228 + the increment number).0 or

172.28.230.0 then reduce 1 bit -> 172.28.229.255 is the broadcast address of our subnet. Therefore the last usable host is 172.28.229.254.

New Question 8:

Drag and drop the descriptions of file-transfer protocols from the left onto the correct protocols on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

New Question 9:

Drag-drop the descriptions from the left onto the correct configuration-management technologies on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

The focus of Ansible is to be streamlined and fast and to require no node agent installation. Thus, Ansible performs all functions over SSH. Ansible is built on Python, in contrast to the Ruby foundation of Puppet and Chef.

TCP port 10002 is the command port. It may be configured in the Chef Push Jobs configuration file. This port allows Chef Push Jobs clients to communicate with the Chef Push Jobs server.

Puppet is an open-source configuration management solution, which is built with Ruby and offers custom Domain Specific Language (DSL) and Embedded Ruby (ERB) templates to create custom Puppet language files, offering a declarative-

paradigm programming approach.

A Puppet piece of code is called a manifest and is a file with a .pp extension.

New Question 10:

Drag and drop the WLAN components from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

The service port can be used for management purposes, primarily for out-of-band management. However, AP management traffic is not possible across the service port. In most cases, the service port is used as a “last resort” means of accessing the controller GUI for management purposes. For example, in the case where the system distribution ports on the controller are down or their communication to the wired network is otherwise degraded.

A dynamic interface with the Dynamic AP Management option enabled is used as the tunnel source for packets from the controller to the access point and as the destination for CAPWAP packets from the access point to the controller. The virtual interface is used to support mobility management, Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) relay, and embedded Layer 3 security such as guest web authentication. It also maintains the DNS gateway hostname used by Layer 3 security and mobility managers to verify the source of certificates when Layer 3 web authorization is enabled.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/8-5/config-guide/b_cg85/ports_and_interfaces.html

New Question 11:

Drag and drop the functions from the left onto the correct network components on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Refer to the exhibit.

New Question 12:

Drag and drop the routing table components on the left onto the corresponding letter from the exhibit on the right. not all options are used.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

New Question 13:

Drag and drop each broadcast IP address on the left to the Broadcast Address column on the right. Not all options are used.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

New Question 14:

An interface has been configured with the access list that is shown below.

On the basis of that access list, drag each information packet on the left to the appropriate category on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

New Question 15:

Order the DHCP message types as they would occur between a DHCP client and a DHCP server.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

…

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Cisco 200-901 dumps: serves all 200-901 DEVASC exam candidates Cisco-200-901-dumps

Cisco 200-901 dumps: serves all 200-901 DEVASC exam candidates

admin August 29, 2022

The newly updated Cisco 200-901 dumps contain 294 exam questions and answers that candidates can study using the 200-901 dumps PDF and 200-901 dumps VCE to help you successfully pass the 200-901 DEVASC exam.

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New Question 1:

How does requesting a synchronous API operation differ from requesting an asynchronous API operation?

A. clients receive responses with a task id for further processing

B. clients subscribe to a webhook for operation results

C. clients poll for the status of the execution of operations

D. clients can access the results immediately

Correct Answer: C

New Question 2:

What are two advantages of YANG-based approaches for infrastructure automation? (Choose two.)

A. multi-platform vendor abstraction

B. compiles to executables that run on network devices

C. designed to reflect networking concepts

D. directly maps to JavaScript

E. command line driven interface

Correct Answer: AC

New Question 3:

Which device is used to transport traffic from one broadcast domain to another broadcast domain?

A. layer 2 switch

B. proxy server

C. router

D. load balancer

Correct Answer: C

New Question 4:

Which service provides a directory lookup for IP addresses and host names?

A. DNS

B. NAT

C. SNMP

D. DHCP

Correct Answer: A

New Question 5:

Users cannot access a webserver and after the traffic is captured, the capture tool shows an ICMP packet that reports “time exceeded in-transit”. What is the cause of this webserver access issue?

A. A router along the path has the wrong time.

B. A router along the path is misrouting the packets in the wrong direction.

C. The server is too loaded and the connection could not be handled in time.

D. The server is too far away and the packets require too much time to reach it.

Correct Answer: B

New Question 6:

What is used in Layer 2 switches to direct packet transmission to the intended recipient?

A. MAC address

B. IPv6 address

C. spanning tree D. IPv4 address

Correct Answer: A

New Question 7:

Users cannot access a webserver and after the traffic is captured, the capture tool shows an ICMP packet that reports “communication administratively prohibited”. What is the cause of this webserver access issue?

A. An access list along the path is blocking the traffic.

B. Users must authenticate on the webserver to access it.

C. A router along the path is overloaded and thus dropping traffic.

D. The traffic is not allowed to be translated with NAT and dropped.

Correct Answer: A

New Question 8:

What is an advantage of a version control system?

A. facilitates resolving conflicts when merging code

B. ensures that unit tests are written

C. prevents over-writing code or configuration files

D. forces the practice of trunk-based development

Correct Answer: A

New Question 9:

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the result of executing this Ansible playbook?

A. The playbook copies a new start-up configuration to CISCO_ROUTER_01

B. The playbook copies a new running configuration to CISCO_ROUTER_01

C. The playbook backs up the running configuration of CISCO_ROUTER_01

D. The playbook backs up the start-up configuration of CISCO_ROUTER_01

Correct Answer: D

New Question 10:

A 401 HTTP response code is returned when calling a REST API. What is the error state identified by this response code?

A. The server cannot process the request as it has detected an issue in the request syntax or body.

B. The request has not been accepted because it requires authentication.

C. The sever accepted the request but the client is not authorized for this content.

D. The server cannot find the requested resource because the path specified is incorrect.

Correct Answer: B

New Question 11:

What is the first development task in test-driven development?

A. Write code that implements a desired function.

B. Write a failing test case for a desired function.

C. Reverse engineer the code for a desired function.

D. Write a passing test case for existing code.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://technologyconversations.com/2013/12/20/test-driven-development-tdd-example- walkthrough/

New Question 12:

What is the purpose of a firewall in application deployment?

A. adds TLS support to an application that does not support it natively

B. limits traffic to only ports required by the application

C. provides translation for an application\’s hostname to its IP address

D. forwards traffic to a pool of instances of the application

Correct Answer: B

New Question 13:

A small company has 5 servers and 50 clients. What are two reasons an engineer should split this network into separate client and server subnets? (Choose two.)

A. Subnets will split domains to limit failures.

B. A router will limit the traffic types between the clients and servers.

C. Subnets provide more IP address space for clients and servers.

D. A router will bridge the traffic between clients and servers.

E. Internet access to the servers will be denied on the router.

Correct Answer: AB

New Question 14:

How does a developer create and switch to a new branch called “my-bug-fix” to develop a product fix?

A. git checkout -b my-bug-fix

B. git branch -b my-bug-fix

C. git branch my-bug-fix

D. git checkout my-bug-fix

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.dnnsoftware.com/community-blog/cid/155105

New Question 15:

What operation is performed with YANG model-driven programmability in NX-OS?

A. configure a device with native and OpenConfig-based models

B. bootstrap a device that has a factory-default configuration

C. send CLI commands to a device and retrieve output in JSON format

D. run Linux commands natively on the device

Correct Answer: A

…

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EC-COUNCIL ECSAV10 certification exam practice questions and exam methods

admin April 27, 2021

Table Of Content:

EC-COUNCIL ECSAV10 exam tips
EC-COUNCIL ECSAV10 exam details
EC-COUNCIL ECSAV10 Exam process and Exam Path
EC-COUNCIL ECSAV10 exam dumps (pdf + vce)
Free sharing of EC-COUNCIL ECSAV10 practice test questions
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EC-COUNCIL ECSAV10 exam details

Vendor: EC-COUNCIL
Exam Code: ECSAV10
Exam Name: EC-Council Certified Security Analyst (ECSA) v10: Penetration Testing
Certification: ECSA
Total Questions: 354 Q&A
Exam Language: English

EC-COUNCIL ECSAV10 Exam process and Exam Path

The new ECSAv10 includes updated curricula and an industry recognized comprehensive step-bystep penetration testing methodology. This allows a learner to elevate their ability in applying new skills learned through intensive practical labs and challenges.

Exam session rules

We take steps to ensure that every testing experience is a good one, but we still stop your exam if the rules aren’t followed.

You must be fully clothed throughout your entire exam (no hats or hoods)
You must stay within your webcam view
You cannot get up and walk around
No one can enter your testing environment
You cannot leave your testing environment
A beverage in any container is allowed, but no food or smoking
You cannot move your webcam once your testing session has started
Mumbling or speaking out loud will lead to a warning

BEFORE EXAM DAY

Perform a system test
Make sure to do the required system test and exam simulation before exam day.*

Find your testing space
Find a quiet, distraction-free area in your home or office to take your exam.

Get your ID ready
Your ID must be valid and up to date. Does your program have specific ID policies?

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QUESTION 1
An “idle” system is also referred to as what?
A. Zombie
B. PC not being used
C. Bot
D. PC not connected to the Internet
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which of the following defines the details of services to be provided for the client\\’s organization and the list of services
required for performing the test in the organization?
A. Draft
B. Report
C. Requirement list
D. Quotation
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
A web application developer is writing code for validating the user input. His aim is to verify the user input against a list
of predefined negative inputs to ensure that the received input is not one among the negative conditions. Identify the
input filtering mechanism being implemented by the developer?
A. Black listing
B. White listing
C. Authentication
D. Authorization
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
NTP protocol is used to synchronize the system clocks of computers with a remote time server or time source over a
network. Which one of the following ports is used by NTP as its transport layer?
A. TCP port 152
B. UDP port 177
C. UDP port 123
D. TCP port 113
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
AB Cloud services provide virtual platform services for the users in addition to storage. The company offers users with
APIs, core connectivity and delivery, abstraction and hardware as part of the service. What is the name of the service
AB Cloud services offer?
A. Web Application Services
B. Platform as a service (PaaS)
C. Infrastructure as a service (IaaS)
D. Software as a service (SaaS)
Correct Answer: C

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EC-COUNCIL CEH v11 certification exam practice questions and exam methods

admin April 27, 2021

Table Of Content:

EC-COUNCIL 312-50V11 exam tips
EC-COUNCIL 312-50V11 exam details
EC-COUNCIL 312-50V11 Exam process and Exam Path
EC-COUNCIL 312-50V11 exam dumps (pdf + vce)
Free sharing of EC-COUNCIL 312-50V11 practice test questions
EC-COUNCIL 312-50V11 Coupon Code

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EC-COUNCIL 312-50V11 exam details

Vendor: EC-COUNCIL
Exam Code: 312-50V11
Exam Name: Certified Ethical Hacker v11 Exam
Certification: CEH v11
Total Questions: 373 Q&A
Exam Language: English

EC-COUNCIL 312-50V11 Exam process and Exam Path

Certified Ethical Hacker CEH v11 will teach you the latest commercial-grade hacking tools, techniques,
and methodologies used by hackers and information security professionals to lawfully hack an organization.

Exam session rules

We take steps to ensure that every testing experience is a good one, but we still stop your exam if the rules aren’t followed.

You must be fully clothed throughout your entire exam (no hats or hoods)
You must stay within your webcam view
You cannot get up and walk around
No one can enter your testing environment
You cannot leave your testing environment
A beverage in any container is allowed, but no food or smoking
You cannot move your webcam once your testing session has started
Mumbling or speaking out loud will lead to a warning

BEFORE EXAM DAY

Perform a system test
Make sure to do the required system test and exam simulation before exam day.*

Find your testing space
Find a quiet, distraction-free area in your home or office to take your exam.

Get your ID ready
Your ID must be valid and up to date. Does your program have specific ID policies?

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QUESTION 1
Which of the following tools is used to analyze the files produced by several packet-capture programs such as tcpdump,
WinDump, Wireshark, and EtherPeek?
A. tcptrace
B. Nessus
C. OpenVAS
D. tcptraceroute
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
A technician is resolving an issue where a computer is unable to connect to the Internet using a wireless access point.
The computer is able to transfer files locally to other machines, but cannot successfully reach the Internet. When the
technician examines the IP address and default gateway they are both on the 192.168.1.0/24. Which of the following
has occurred?
A. The computer is not using a private IP address.
B. The gateway is not routing to a public IP address.
C. The gateway and the computer are not on the same network.
D. The computer is using an invalid IP address.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
What is not a PCI compliance recommendation?
A. Use a firewall between the public network and the payment card data.
B. Use encryption to protect all transmission of card holder data over any public network.
C. Rotate employees handling credit card transactions on a yearly basis to different departments.
D. Limit access to card holder data to as few individuals as possible.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Although FTP traffic is not encrypted by default, which layer 3 protocol would allow for end-to-end encryption of the
connection?
A. SFTP
B. Ipsec
C. SSL
D. FTPS
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which method of password cracking takes the most time and effort?
A. Dictionary attack
B. Shoulder surfing
C. Rainbow tables
D. Brute force
Correct Answer: D

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