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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: ICND1
Exam Name: Cisco Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1 v3.0)
Exam Code: 100-105
Total Questions: 332 Q&As
100-105 dumps
QUESTION 1
The command ip route 192.168.100.160 255.255.255.224 192.168.10.2 was issued on a router. No routing protocols or other static routes are configured on the router. Which statement is true about this command?
A. The interface with IP address 192.168.10.2 is on this router.
B. The command sets a gateway of last resort for the router.
C. Packets that are destined for host 192.168.100.160 will be sent to 192.168.10.2.
D. The command creates a static route for all IP traffic with the source address 192.168.100.160.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Some routers have been configured with default routes. What are some of the advantages of using default routes? (Choose two)
A. They establish routes that will never go down.
B. They keep routing tables small.
C. They require a great deal of CPU power.
D. They allow connectivity to remote networks that are not in the routing table
E. They direct traffic from the internet into corporate networks.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 3
Which two statements describe the process identifier that is used in the command to configure OSPF on a router? (Choose two.) 100-105 dumps
Router(config)# router ospf 1
A. All OSPF routers in an area must have the same process ID.
B. Only one process number can be used on the same router.
C. Different process identifiers can be used to run multiple OSPF processes
D. The process number can be any number from 1 to 65,535.
E. Hello packets are sent to each neighbor to determine the processor identifier.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 4
Which statements are TRUE regarding Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) addresses? (Choose three.)
A. An IPv6 address is divided into eight 16-bit groups.
B. A double colon (::) can only be used once in a single IPv6 address.
C. IPv6 addresses are 196 bits in length.
D. Leading zeros cannot be omitted in an IPv6 address.
E. Groups with a value of 0 can be represented with a single 0 in IPv6 address.
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 5
Which two of these statements are true of IPv6 address representation? (Choose two.)
A. There are four types of IPv6 addresses: unicast, multicast, anycast, and broadcast.
B. A single interface may be assigned multiple IPv6 addresses of any type.
C. Every IPv6 interface contains at least one loopback address.
D. The first 64 bits represent the dynamically created interface ID.
E. Leading zeros in an IPv6 16 bit hexadecimal field are mandatory.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 6
Which destination IP address can a host use to send one message to multiple devices across different subnets?
A. 172.20.1.0
B. 127.0.0.1
C. 192.168.0.119
D. 239.255.0.1
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which method does a connected trunk port use to tag VLAN traffic?
A. IEEE 802 1w
B. IEEE 802 1D
C. IEEE 802 1Q
D. IEEE 802 1p
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
100-105 dumps Which route source code represents the routing protocol with a default administrative distance of 90 in the routing table?
A. S
B. E
C. D
D. R
E. O
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
ROUTER# show ip route
192.168.12.0/24 is variably subnetted, 9 subnets, 3 masks
C 192.168.12.64 /28 is directly connected, Loopback1
C 192.168.12.32 /28 is directly connected, Ethernet0
C 192.168.12.48 /28 is directly connected, Loopback0
O 192.168.12.236 /30 [110/128] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:36, Serial0
C 192.168.12.232 /30 is directly connected, Serial0 O 192.168.12.245 /30 [110/782] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:36, Serial0
O 192.168.12.240 /30 [110/128] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:36, Serial0
O 192.168.12.253 /30 [110/782] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:37, Serial0
O 192.168.12.249 /30 [110/782] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:37, Serial0
O 192.168.12.240/30 [110/128] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:36, Serial 0
To what does the 128 refer to in the router output above?
A. OSPF cost
B. OSPF priority
C. OSPF hop count
D. OSPF ID number
E. OSPF administrative distance
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
The ip helper-address command does what?
A. assigns an IP address to a host
B. resolves an IP address from a DNS server
C. relays a DHCP request across networks
D. resolves an IP address overlapping issue
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
A receiving host has failed to receive all of the segments that it should acknowledge. What can the host do to improve the reliability of this communication session?
A. decrease the window size
B. use a different source port for the session
C. decrease the sequence number
D. obtain a new IP address from the DHCP server
E. start a new session using UDP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Why would a network administrator configure port security on a switch?
A. to prevent unauthorized Telnet access to a switch port
B. to prevent unauthorized hosts from accessing the LAN
C. to limit the number of Layer 2 broadcasts on a particular switch port
D. block unauthorized access to the switch management interfaces
Correct Answer: B

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: ICND2
Exam Name: Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2 v3.0)
Exam Code: 200-105
Total Questions: 204 Q&As
200-105 dumps
QUESTION 1
When the enterprise-based authentication method is used for WPA2, a bidirectional handshake exchange occurs between the client and the authenticator.
Which five options are results of that exchange being used on a controller-based network? (Choose five.)
A. a bidirectional exchange of a nonce used for key generation
B. binding of a Pairwise Master Key at the client and the controller
C. creation of the Pairwise Transient Key
D. distribution of the Group Transient Key
E. distribution of the Pairwise Master key for caching at the access point
F. proof that each side is alive
Correct Answer: A,B,C,D,F

QUESTION 2
Which type of management tasks can be completed on a Cisco WLC remotely from a wireless client?
A. All management and configuration tasks can be performed from a wireless client except for using debug commands.
B. In the default configuration, no management or configuration is possible through the GUI or CLI on the Cisco WLC.
C. The default configuration of the Cisco WLC allows only CLI access and then only the use of show commands, so no configuration is possible.
D. All management and configuration tasks, except uploads from and downloads to the Cisco WLC, are permitted.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
The network administrator wants an access point to be able to find rogue APs and to support location-based services. 200-105 dumps Which AP mode meets this requirement while having the radios up and preventing client connections?
A. monitor
B. sniffer
C. rogue-detection
D. H-REAP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which architecture is used to divide the roles between the access point and the WLC when deploying a centralized wireless solution?
A. Split MAC
B. CAPWAP
C. LWAPP
D. Local MAC
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which statement about customization of a web page that is used on a WLC to authorize guest users is true?
A. The administrator can use either a modified internal login page or the customized web page.
B. The administrator can use only the internal login page, and only the organization logo can be changed.
C. The administrator can use only the internal login page with a customized logo, headline, and message.
D. The administrator can use only the customized web page that is uploaded to a WLC.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:
200-105 dumps
Correct Answer:
200-105 dumps
QUESTION 7
A network administrator is troubleshooting an EIGRP problem on a router and needs to confirm the IP addresses of the devices with which the router has established adjacency. 200-105 dumps The retransmit interval and the queue counts for the adjacent routers also need to be checked. What command will display the required information?
A. Router# show ip eigrp adjacency
B. Router# show ip eigrp topology
C. Router#show ip eigrp interfaces
D. Router#show ip eigrp neighbors
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which Cisco program for WLAN client vendors helps to ensure that their devices are interoperable with Cisco WLAN infrastructure?
A. CCX
B. CCMP
C. ASDM
D. WLSE
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which statement describes spread spectrum technology in wireless communications?
A. Signal is spread across optical pulses.
B. Signal is spread across variations of amplitudes.
C. Signal is spread across one frequency.
D. Signal is spread across a whole band of frequencies.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
What can be done to secure the virtual terminal interfaces on a router? (Choose two.)
A. Administratively shut down the interface.
B. Physically secure the interface.
C. Create an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces with the access-group command.
D. Configure a virtual terminal password and login process.
E. Enter an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces using the access-class command.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 11
An engineer has been asked to upgrade the FUS on the Wireless LAN controller. How can they monitor the status of the upgrade?
A. WLC GUI
B. WLC CLI
C. WLC Console
D. WLC Management in Prime Infrastructure
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
The network administrator receives complaints of slow wireless network performance and performs a sniffer trace of the wireless network in preparation for migration to 802.11n. 200-105 dumps The sample capture shows frames that contains AP beacons with NonERP_Present bit set to 1 and frames with RTS/CTS.
Which two conclusions can be interpreted from these frames? (Choose two.)
A. The network is performing slowly because 802.11n clients are already mixed with 802.11g clients.
B. The network is performing slowly because 802.11b clients still exist in the network.
C. The network is performing slowly because a wireless client is incorrectly configured, which results in RF interference.
D. Possible 802.11b wireless clients are located only in the AP cell radius where the sniffer capture was performed.
E. Possible 802.11b wireless clients could be located anywhere in the wireless network.
Correct Answer: B,E

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA Wireless
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Wireless Network Fundamentals
Exam Code: 200-355
Total Questions: 378 Q&As
200-355 dumps
QUESTION 1
When an AP, in its default configuration mode, connects to a Cisco WLC, which methods are available forremote management access to an AP?
A. SSL and SSH are available only after configuration by a Cisco WLC version 7.0.
B. SSH only
C. HTTPS, and SSH
D. SSH and Telnet
E. SSH and Telnet are available only after configuration by a Cisco WLC version 7.0.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
A lightweight AP has been deployed in local mode in a network that consists of 10 wireless LAN controllers in a single mobility group. The AP has been configured to use primary, secondary, and tertiary Cisco WLCs. Due to a major power failure, all those Cisco WLCs are unavailable.
Which step does the AP take next?
A. The AP reboots and repeatedly attempts to join the configured primary, secondary, and tertiary Cisco WLCs in that order. The process continues until one of the configured Cisco WLCs is available.
B. The AP attempts to join a Cisco WLC configured as a master controller.
C. The AP attempts to join the Cisco WLC that has the greatest capacity available.
D. The AP state transitions to AP Fallback Mode and continues to provide limited WLAN services (that is, no new client authentications) until a Cisco WLC is available.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
A customer is reviewing Cisco Prime Infrastructure to identify malicious rogue access points that are operating within the customer environment. 200-355 dumps Which dashboard in Cisco Prime Infrastructure displays this information by default?
A. Context Aware
B. CleanAir
C. Security
D. General
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
What must be done for Cisco WLC and Cisco WCS to communicate?
A. The IP address and subnet mask of the Cisco WLC must be configured in the Cisco WCS.
B. The IP address and subnet mask of the Cisco WCS must be configured in the Cisco WLC.
C. The identity certificate of the Cisco WLC must be added to the Cisco WCS.
D. The Cisco WLC and Cisco WCS must exchange identity certificates.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which architecture is used to divide the roles between the access point and the WLC when deploying a centralized wireless solution?
A. Split MAC
B. CAPWAP
C. LWAPP
D. Local MAC
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
200-355 dumps
Refer to the exhibit. The wireless engineer has deployed the Cisco 5508 Wireless Controller. The controller is responding on the service port; however, it will not respond on the management interface. 200-355 dumps
Which configuration revision will fix the management interface?
A. On the switch interface, configure switch(config-if)#switchport trunk allowed vlan add 10.
B. On the WLC management interface, disable LAG on the management network.
C. On the switch interface, configure switch(config-if)#switchport trunk allowed vlan 10.
D. On the WLC management interface, change the VLAN ID to 20.
E. On the switch interface, configure no spanning-tree portfast trunk.
F. On WLC Controller > General, disable LAG and reboot.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which Cisco AnyConnect module allows troubleshooting for core Cisco AnyConnect problems?
A. telemetry
B. web security
C. VPN
D. NAM
E. DART
F. posture
G. CSSC
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 8
The administrator needs to create a report that shows all controllers, APs, and Cisco 3300 Series MSEs in the WLAN, including hardware and software information. Which report includes this information?
A. Device > Inventory
B. Mesh > Nodes
C. Network Summary > Executive Summary
D. Network Summary > 802.11 Summary
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which two statements about the requirements to configure inter-controller roaming are true? (Choose two.)
A. The same mobility domain names are configured across controllers.
B. The same RF group names are configured across controllers.
C. The same controller hardware version is configured across controllers.
D. The same AP manager interface is configured across controllers.
E. The same virtual interface is configured across controllers.
F. The same controller software version is configured across controllers.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 10
Which two Cisco WLC management-access methods are available as the default setting? 200-355 dumps (Choose two.)
A. SSH
B. HTTPS
C. Telnet
D. HTTP
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 11
During the deployment of a wireless network for data and location services, an engineer is to fine-tune the location services. What is this type of survey called?
A. passive fingerprinting
B. passive calibrating
C. active fingerprinting
D. active calibrating
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
The network administrator receives complaints of slow wireless network performance and performs a sniffer trace of the wireless network in preparation for migration to 802.11n. The sample capture shows frames that contains AP beacons with NonERP_Present bit set to 1 and frames with RTS/CTS.
Which two conclusions can be interpreted from these frames? (Choose two.)
A. The network is performing slowly because 802.11n clients are already mixed with 802.11g clients.
B. The network is performing slowly because 802.11b clients still exist in the network.
C. The network is performing slowly because a wireless client is incorrectly configured, which results in RF interference.
D. Possible 802.11b wireless clients are located only in the AP cell radius where the sniffer capture was performed.
E. Possible 802.11b wireless clients could be located anywhere in the wireless network.
Correct Answer: BE

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA
Exam Name: CCNA Cisco Certified Network Associate CCNA (v3.0)
Exam Code: 200-125
Total Questions: 966 Q&As

QUESTION 1
Under normal operations, cisco recommends that you configure switch ports on which vlan?
A. on the default vlan
B. on the management vlan
C. on the native vlan
D. on any vlan except the default vlan
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which function does IP SLA ICMP ECHO operation perform to assist with troubleshooting
A. packet-loss detection
B. congestion detection
C. hop-by-hop response time
D. one way jitter measurement
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which command can you enter to display the operational status of the network ports on a router? 200-125 dumps
A. show interface switchport
B. show ip interface brief
C. show running-config interface fastethernet 0/1
D. show interface status
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
If a router has 3 hosts connected in one port and two other hosts connected in another port, how may broadcast domains are present on the router?
A. 5
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Three switches are connected to one another via trunk ports. Assuming the default switch configuration, which switch is elected as the root bridge for the spanning-tree instance of VLAN 1?
A. the switch with the highest MAC address
B. the switch with the lowest MAC address
C. the switch with the highest IP address
D. the switch with the lowest IP address
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.
200-125 dumps
Switch port FastEthernet 0/24 on ALSwitch1 will be used to create an IEEE 802.1Q- compliant trunk to another switch. Based on the output shown, what is the reason the trunk does not form, 200-125 dumps even though the proper cabling has been attached?
A. VLANs have not been created yet.
B. An IP address must be configured for the port.
C. The port is currently configured for access mode.
D. The correct encapsulation type has not been configured.
E. The “no shutdown” command has not been entered for the port.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which type of mac address is aged automatically by the switch?
A. Dynamic
B. Static
C. automatic
D. manual
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which Cisco platform can verify ACLs?
A. Cisco Prime Infrastructure
B. Cisco Wireless LAN Controller
C. Cisco APIC-EM
D. Cisco IOS-XE
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
What are two benefits of private IPv4 IP addresses? (Choose two.)
A. They are routed the same as public IP addresses.
B. They are less costly than public IP addresses.
C. They can be assigned to devices without Internet connections.
D. They eliminate the necessity for NAT policies.
E. They eliminate duplicate IP conflicts.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 10
Which command is necessary to permit SSH or Telnet access to a cisco switch that is otherwise configured for these vty line protocols?
A. transport type all
B. transport output all
C. transport preferred all
D. transport input all
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
In which three ways is an IPv6 header simpler than an IPv4 header? 200-125 dumps (Choose three.)
A. Unlike IPv4 headers, IPv6 headers have a fixed length.
B. IPv6 uses an extension header instead of the IPv4 Fragmentation field.
C. IPv6 headers eliminate the IPv4 Checksum field.
D. IPv6 headers use the Fragment Offset field in place of the IPv4 Fragmentation field.
E. IPv6 headers use a smaller Option field size than IPv4 headers.
F. IPv6 headers use a 4-bit TTL field, and IPv4 headers use an 8-bit TTL field.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 12
Which three statements about static routing are true? (Choose three.)
A. It uses consistent route determination.
B. It is best used for small-scale deployments.
C. Routing is disrupted when links fail.
D. It requires more resources than other routing methods.
E. It is best used for large-scale deployments.
F. Routers can use update messages to reroute when links fail.
Correct Answer: ABC

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA Collaboration
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Collaboration Devices (CICD)
Exam Code: 210-060
Total Questions: 203 Q&As
210-060 dumps
QUESTION 1
An administrator group is looking to on-board multiple users with Cisco Unified Communications Manager at one time. Which option should be used?
A. Bulk Administration Tool
B. Product Upgrade Tool
C. Command Lookup Tool
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager User Options Page
E. Cisco Upload Tool
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
A user would like all calls to be forwarded to voice mail. The user’s phone is not set up with a soft key for this feature. 210-060 dumps Which option accomplishes this configuration from within the Cisco Unified Communication Administrator Directory Number configuration page?
A. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward No Coverage External > Select voice mail check box
B. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward Busy External > Select voice mail check box
C. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward All > Select voice mail check box
D. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward Unregistered External > Select voice mail check box
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which option would an administrator use to find all unassigned directory numbers in Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. Route plan report
B. CDR
C. CAR
D. Cisco Reporting Tool
E. Directory number lookup
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
A technician is preparing to activate the needed services in Cisco Unified Communications Manager to integrate with an IM and Presence server. Which four services must be enabled? (Choose four.)
A. Cisco TFTP
B. Cisco AXL Web Service
C. Cisco CTI Manager
D. Cisco Messaging Interface
E. Cisco Intercluster Lookup Service
F. Cisco Extended Functions
G. Cisco Unified Communications Manager
H. Cisco Directory Sync
Correct Answer: ABCG

QUESTION 5
An engineer receives a report that Cisco Unified Communications Manager is not responding. 210-060 pdf The engineer needs to use RTMT to check errors. Which menu path should the engineer follow to install RTMT?
A. System Settings > Plugins > RTMT
B. Unified Communications Serviceability > Downloads > RTMT
C. Application > Plugins > RTMT
D. System > Plugins > RTMT
Correct Answer: C
210-060 dumps
QUESTION 6
An administrator wants to gauge the load and performance capacity of Cisco Unified Communication Manager devices, including conference bridges, gateways, and trunks. Which report would the administrator run?
A. CAR
B. CDR
C. SIP
D. RTMT
E. CUBE
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
A user wants their name to show on their phone instead of their directory number. Which configuration item allows an administrator to do this?
A. Line Text Label
B. Alerting Name
C. External Phone Number Mask
D. Caller Name
E. Description
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
An engineer is configuring a group of DNs and wants the external phone number mask to match the last four digits of the DN. Which option should be used?
A. 123555xxxx
B. 123555XXXX
C. 123555****
D. 123555….
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
An end user is unable to sign into Jabber. Assuming that network connectivity has been verified, which three settings for the end user should be checked? 210-060 dumps (Choose three.)
A. Jabber Advanced Settings
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Service Profile
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager User Management
D. Cisco Unified Presence Server Advanced Settings
E. Cisco Unified Presence Server Application Listener
F. Cisco Unified Presence Server System Topology
G. Jabber Version
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 10
A new user has successfully registered Cisco Jabber. Which option verifies that the Jabber client is connected to all appropriate back-end systems?
A. Show Connection Status
B. Report A Problem
C. Advanced Settings
D. About Jabber
E. Reset Jabber
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
You want to gather as much detail as possible during a network audit, to include data time stamping across a large number of interfaces, customized according to interface, with a minimal impact on the network devices themselves. Which tool would you use to meet these requirements?
A. RMON
B. SNMPv3
C. NetFlow
D. Cisco Discovery Protocol
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
You want to gather as much detail as possible during a network audit, to include data time stamping across a large number of interfaces, 200-310 pdf customized according to interface, with a minimal impact on the network devices themselves. Which tool would you use to meet these requirements?
A. RMON
B. SNMPv3
C. NetFlow
D. Cisco Discovery Protocol
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which technology should a company use to connect a branch office to headquarters via an Internet connection while maintaining confidentiality and the flexibility to run a routing protocol between the two locations? 200-310 dumps
A. GRE over IPsec
B. IPsec
C. GRE
D. SSL VPN
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.
200-310 dumps
Which layer is the distribution layer?
A. Layer A
B. Layer B
C. Layer C
D. Layers A and B form a consolidated core and distribution layer
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
A network engineer requires that an OSPF ASBR must only flood external LSAs only within its own area. What OSPF area type should be configured?
A. Backbone Area
B. Totally Stub Area
C. Not So Stubby Area
D. Stub Area
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
A network engineer requires that an OSPF ASBR must only flood external LSAs only within its own area. What OSPF area type should be configured?
A. Backbone Area
B. Totally Stub Area
C. Not So Stubby Area
D. Stub Area
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
An enterprise campus module is typically made up of four submodules, as described by the Cisco Enterprise Architecture Model. Which two submodules are part of this module? 200-310 pdf (Choose two.)
A. DMZ
B. enterprise branch
C. building distribution
D. server farm/data center
E. MAN
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.
200-310 dumps
Which configuration can be used to implement FHRP protocol and load balancing at the same time?
A. R1Interface Ethernet0ip address 171.16.6.5 255.255.255.0standby 1 preemptstandby 1 ip 171.16.6.100standby 1 track Serial0standby 2 preemptstandby 2 ip 171.16.6.200standby 2 track serial 0standby 2 priority 95!!R2interface Ethernet0ip address 171.16.6.6 255.255.255.0standby 1 preemptstandby 1 ip 171.16.6.100standby 1 track Serial0standby 1 priority 95standby 2 preemptstandby 2 ip 171.16.6.200standby 2 track serial 0
B. R1Interface Ethernet0ip address 171.16.6.5 255.255.255.0standby 1 preemptstandby 1 ip 171.16.6.100standby 1 track Serial0standby 1 priority 95!!R2interface Ethernet0ip address 171.16.6.6 255.255.255.0standby 1 preemptstandby 1 ip 171.16.6.100standby 1 track Serial0standby 1 priority 95
C. R1Interface Ethernet0ip address 171.16.6.5 255.255.255.0standby 1 preemptstandby 1 ip 171.16.6.100standby 1 track Serial0standby 1 priority 95standby 2 preemptstandby 2 ip 171.16.6.200standby 2 track serial 0standby 2 priority 95!!R2interface Ethernet0ip address 171.16.6.6 255.255.255.0standby 1 preemptstandby 1 ip 171.16.6.100standby 1 track Serial0standby 2 preemptstandby 2 ip 171.16.6.200standby 2 track serial 0
D. R1Interface Ethernet0ip address 171.16.6.5 255.255.255.0standby 1 preemptstandby 1 ip 171.16.6.100standby 1 track Serial0standby 1 priority 95!!R2interface Ethernet0ip address 171.16.6.6 255.255.255.0standby 1 preemptstandby 1 ip 171.16.6.100
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
A network engineer requires that an OSPF ASBR must only flood external LSAs only within its own area. 200-310 dumps What OSPF area type should be configured?
A. Backbone Area
B. Totally Stub Area
C. Not So Stubby Area
D. Stub Area
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
A data center is being deployed, and one design requirement is to be able to readily scale server virtualization. Which IETF standard technology can provide this requirement?
A. Transparent Interconnection of Lots of Links
B. Cisco FabricPath
C. data center bridging
D. Cisco Unified Fabric
Correct Answer: A

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