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300-101 dumps

High quality Cisco CCDP 300-101 dumps exam questions and answers (1-20)

QUESTION 1
Which option is one way to mitigate symmetric routing on an active/active firewall setup for TCP-based connections?
A. performing packet captures
B. disabling asr-group commands on interfaces that are likely to receive asymetric traffic
C. replacing them with redundant routers and allowing load balancing
D. disabling stateful TCP checks
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which option is invalid when configuring Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding?
A. allow self ping to router
B. allow default route
C. allow based on ACL match
D. source reachable via both
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which traffic characteristic is the reason that UDP traffic that carries voice and video is assigned to the queue only on a link that is at least 768 kbps?
A. typically is not fragmented
B. typically is fragmented
C. causes windowing
D. causes excessive delays for video traffic
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Refer to the following configuration command.
router(config)# ip nat inside source static tcp 172.16.10.8 8080 172.16.10.8 80
Which statement about the command is true? 300-101 dumps
A. Any packet that is received in the inside interface with a source IP port address of 172.16.10.8:80 is translated to 172.16.10.8:8080.
B. Any packet that is received in the inside interface with a source IP port address of 172.16.10.8:8080 is translated to 172.16.10.8:80.
C. The router accepts only a TCP connection from port 8080 and port 80 on IP address 172.16.10.8
D. Any packet that is received in the inside interface with a source IP address of 172.16.10.8 is redirected to port 8080 or port 80.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
What type of IPv6 packet will indicate traffic from single host and single node?
A. multicast
B. unicast
C. broadcast
D. anycast
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about the command output is true?
300-101 dumps
A. The router exports flow information to 10.10.10.1 on UDP port 5127.
B. The router receives flow information from 10.10.10.2 on UDP port 5127.
C. The router exports flow information to 10.10.10.1 on TCP port 5127.
D. The router receives flow information from 10.10.10.2 on TCP port 5127.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which three IP SLA performance metrics can you use to monitor enterprise-class networks? (Choose three.)
A. Packet loss
B. Delay
C. bandwidth
D. Connectivity
E. Reliability
F. traps
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 8
What is the administrative distance for EBGP?
A. 200
B. 30
C. 70
D. 20
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
A network engineer is configuring the router for NetFlow data exporting. What is required in order for NDE to begin exporting data?
A. Source
B. Flow mask
C. Destination
D. Interface type
E. Traffic type
F. NetFlow version
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
A network administrator creates a static route that points directly to a multi-access interface, instead of the next-hop IP address. 300-101 dumps The administrator notices that Cisco Express Forwarding ARP requests are being sent to all destinations. Which issue might this configuration create?
A. Low bandwidth usage
B. High memory usage
C. Cisco Express Forwarding routing loop
D. High bandwidth usage
E. IP route interference
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.
300-101 dumps
The DHCP client is unable to receive a DHCP address from the DHCP server. Consider the following output:
hostname RouterB
!
interface fastethernet 0/0
ip address 172.31.1.1 255.255.255.0
interface serial 0/0
ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.252
!
ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 10.1.1.2
Which configuration is required on the Router B fastethernet 0/0 port in order to allow the DHCP client to successfully receive an IP address from the DHCP server?
A. RouterB(config-if)# ip helper-address 172.16.1.2
B. RouterB(config-if)# ip helper-address 172.16.1.1
C. RouterB(config-if)# ip helper-address 172.31.1.1
D. RouterB(config-if)# ip helper-address 255.255.255.255
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which is the asymmetric Rotuing?
A. active/active firewall
B. active/passive firwall
C. single path
D. using VRRP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit.
300-101 dumps
Routers R2, R3, R4, and R5 have OSPF enabled. What should be configured on the routers in area 1 to ensure that all default summary routes and redistributed EIGRP routes will be forwarded from R6 to area 1, and only a default route for all other OSPF routes will be forwarded from R5 to area 1.
A. R5(config-router)# area 1 stubR6(config-router)# area 1 stub
B. R5(config-router)# area 1 stub no-summaryR6(config-router)# area 1 stub
C. R5(config-router)# area 1 nssaR6(config-router)# area 1 nssa
D. R5(config-router)# area 1 nssa no-summaryR6(config-router)# area 1 nssa
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Which of the following NSAP addresses is a private, locally administered address?
A. 39.0f01.0002.0000.0c00.1111.00
B. 48.0f01.0002.0000.0c00.1111.00
C. 49.0004.30ac.0000.3090.c7df.00
D. 52.0f01.0002.0000.0c00.1111.00
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
Which two phases of DMVPN allow to spoke sites to create dynamic tunnels to one another? (Choose Two)
A. Phase 1
B. Phase 2
C. Phase 3
D. Phase 4
E. Phase 5
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 16
Which two statements about 6to4 tunneling are accurate? 300-101 dumps (Choose two.)
A. Prepending a reserved IPv6 code to the hexadecimal representation of 192.168.0.1 facilitates 6to4 tunneling.
B. Each 6to4 site receives a /48 prefix in a 6to4 tunnel.
C. 2002::/48 is the address range specifically assigned to 6to4.
D. Prepending 0x2002 with the IPv4 address creates an IPv6 address that is used in 6to4 tunneling.
E. 6to4 is a manual tunnel method.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 17
Which three statements are true when configuring redistribution for OSPF? (Choose three)
A. The default metric is 10.
B. The default metric is 20.
C. The default metric type is 2.
D. The default metric type is 1.
E. Subnets do not redistribute by default.
F. Subnets redistribute by default.
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 18
R3#show run | include defaultip default-network 140.140.0.0 ip default-network 130.130.0.0 R3#show ip route | begin Gateway Gateway of last resort is 0.0.0.0 to network 130.130.0.0 116.0.0.0/8 is variably subnetted, 5 subnets, 3 masks C 116.16.37.0/30 is directly connected, Serial1/0.2 C 116.16.32.0/30 is directly connected, Serial2/0.2 C 116.16.34.0/28 is directly connected, Serial1/0.1 C 116.16.35.0/28 is directly connected, Serial2/0.1 S 116.0.0.0/8 [1/0] via 116.16.34.0
* 140.140.0.0/32 is subnetted, 3 subnets O 140.140.1.1 [110/65] via 116.16.34.4, 00:14:54, Serial1/0.1 O 140.140.3.1 [110/65] via 116.16.34.4, 00:14:54, Serial1/0.1 O 140.140.2.1 [110/65] via 116.16.34.4, 00:14:54, Serial1/0.1
* 130.130.0.0/16 is variably subnetted, 4 subnets, 2 masks D* 130.130.0.0/16 is a summary, 00:30:04, Null0 C 130.130.1.0/24 is directly connected, Ethernet0/0 C 130.130.2.0/24 is directly connected, Ethernet0/1 C 130.130.3.0/24 is directly connected, Ethernet1/0 D 150.150.0.0/16 [90/679936] via 116.16.35.5, 00:02:58, Serial2/0.1 Refer to the exhibit. Why is the 140.140.0.0 network not used as the gateway of last resort even though it is configured first?
A. The last default-network statement will always be preferred.
B. A route to the 140.140.0.0 network does not exist in the routing table.
C. Default-network selection will always prefer the statement with the lowest IP address.
D. A router will load balance across multiple default-networks; repeatedly issuing the show ip route command would show the gateway of last resort changing between the two networks.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
Which two reason for IP SLA tracking failure are likely true (choose two)
A. The source-interface is configured incorrectly
B. The destination must be 172.30.30.2 for icmp-echo
C. A route back to the R1 LAN network is missing in R2
D. The default routehas wrong next hop IP address
E. The threshold value is wrong
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 20
A network engineer receives reports about poor voice quality issues at a remote site. The network engineer does a packet capture and sees out-of-order packets being delivered. Which option can cause the VOIP quality to suffer?
A. traffic over backup redundant links
B. misconfigured voice vlan
C. speed duplex link issues
D. load balancing over redundant links
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
A technician completing a server room build out encounters a bundle of un-terminated network cables that are not labeled. Which of the following tools would be the BEST to determine which devices the cables are run to?
A. Toner probe
B. Multimeter
C. Cable tester
D. Loopbackplug
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
A smartphone user experiences difficulty removing the back cover of the device. Once finally removed, the battery appears to have swollen. The battery is still functional, but requires more frequent charging than it used to. Which of the following should the user do NEXT?
A. Remove the battery and let it cool for 24 hours
B. Fully discharge and then fully recharge the battery
C. Short the battery terminals with a paper clip
D. Replace the battery with a new one
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which of the following cable connection types is an example of a mini DIN?
A. BNC
B. PS/2
C. RCA
D. DB9
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
A technician is troubleshooting a desktop PC. When the power button is pressed, the fan momentarily spins and the PC does not boot. Which of the following components is MOST likely the problem?
A. CPU
B. CMOS battery
C. RAM
D. Power supply
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
An example of built-in system diagnostics includes which of the following? 220-801 dumps
A. POST cards
B. Indicator lights
C. TPM
D. BIOS settings
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Which of the following cable types should be installed to minimize toxic fumes in the event of a fire?
A. Fiber
B. STP CAT6
C. Plenum
D. Coaxial
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which of the following memory types is used exclusively in laptops?
A. DIMM
B. DDR3
C. RAMBUS
D. SODIMM
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which of the following socket types is for an Intel CPU?
A. F
B. 940
C. AM3
D. 1156
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which of the following cable types has extra shielding built into the cable to guard against EMI?
A. UTP
B. Multimode
C. STP
D. Single-mode
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
A technician is helping set up a new networking closet and notices that the humidity level is low in the room. Which of the following should be installed FIRST before rack mounting equipment?
A. A dehumidifier
B. A fire suppression system
C. ESD strap
D. Grounding bars
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Which of the following devices is MOST likely to outperform a 15,000 rpm SAS hard drive in read speed? 220-801 dumps
A. Compact flash
B. SSD
C. Tape
D. SD
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which of the following is an example of an APIPA address?
A. 4.2.2.2
B. 10.23.145 90
C. 169.254.44.157
D. 192.168.32.59
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
A technician is building a custom gaming computer. Which of the following is the FASTEST memory the technician can use?
A. DDR2 CAS7
B. DDR3 CAS9
C. DDR3 CAS10
D. DDR3 CAS11
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
Which of the following are steps to take before replacing or updating the memory in a laptop? (Select TWO).
A. Unplug the AC power adapter
B. Remove the keyboard and touchpad
C. Separate the screen from the base
D. Remove the battery
E. Remove all of the screws from the bottom of the case
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 15
An end user is designing a PC with a clear acrylic access panel to show off the insides. The user wants the inside to stay cool, but as dust free as possible. Which of the following would BEST meet this scenario?
A. Create a positive pressure air flow with unfiltered intakes and filtered exhausts
B. Create a positive pressure air flow with filtered intakes and unfiltered exhausts
C. Create a negative pressure air flow with unfiltered intakes and unfiltered exhausts
D. Create a negative pressure air flow with filtered exhausts and unfiltered exhausts
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
A technician observes another technician trying to steal a company laptop. 220-801 dumps Which of the following should the first technician do NEXT?
A. Confront the technician stealing the laptop
B. Preserve the laptop for evidence
C. Report through proper channels
D. Document the incident
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Which of the following is a private class B IP address?
A. 10.0.15.1
B. 172.16.0.1
C. 172.33.1.1
D. 192.168.1.1
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
A CAD/CAM user requires faster onscreen refresh rates. Which of the following slots allows for faster graphic performance?
A. AGP
B. AGP x8
C. PCIe
D. PCI
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Which of the following expansion cards would provide support for additional internal storage?
A. Video capture
B. Modem
C. USB port
D. RAID controller
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20
A consultant has been asked to install the brightest possible projector into an office conference room that has a lot of natural sunlight. Which of the following specifications would BEST meet the client\’s needs?
A. Highest possible resolution
B. High lumens
C. High contrast
D. HDMI 1.4 compatibility
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
Which statement about slow inter VLAN forwarding is true?
A. The VLAN is experiencing slowness in the point-to-point collisionless connection.
B. The VLANs are experiencing slowness because multiple devices are connected to the same hub.
C. The local VLAN is working normally, but traffic to the alternate VLAN is forwarded slower than expected.
D. The entire VLAN is experiencing slowness.
E. The VLANs are experiencing slowness due to a duplex mismatch.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 2
What is the advantage of using a multipoint interface instead of point-to-point subinterfaces when configuring a Frame Relay hub in a hub-and-spoke topology?
A. It avoids split-horizon issues with distance vector routing protocols.
B. IP addresses can be conserved if VLSM is not being used for subnetting.
C. A multipoint interface offers greater security compared to point-to-point subinterface configurations.
D. The multiple IP network addresses required for a multipoint interface provide greater addressing flexibility over pointto-point configurations.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
What are three values that must be the same within a sequence of packets for Netflow to consider them a network flow? (Choose three.)
A. source IP address
B. source MAC address
C. egress interface
D. ingress interface
E. destination IP address
F. IP next-hop
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 4
What occurs on a Frame Relay network when the CIR is exceeded?
A. All TCP traffic is marked discard eligible.
B. All UDP traffic is marked discard eligible and a BECN is sent.
C. All TCP traffic is marked discard eligible and a BECN is sent.
D. All traffic exceeding the CIR is marked discard eligible.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which command is used to enable CHAP authentication, 200-155 dumps with PAP as the fallback method, on a serial interface?
A. Router(config-if)# ppp authentication chap fallback ppp
B. Router(config-if)# ppp authentication chap pap
C. Router(config-if)# authentication ppp chap fallback ppp
D. Router(config-if)# authentication ppp chap pap
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Which port state is introduced by Rapid-PVST?
A. learning
B. listening
C. discarding
D. forwarding
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
The output of the show frame-relay pvc command shows andquot;PVC STATUS = INACTIVEandquot;. What does this mean?
A. The PVC is configured correctly and is operating normally, but no data packets have been detected for more than five minutes.
B. The PVC is configured correctly, is operating normally, and is no longer actively seeking the address of the remote router.
C. The PVC is configured correctly, is operating normally, and is waiting for interesting traffic to trigger a call to the remote router.
D. The PVC is configured correctly on the local switch, but there is a problem on the remote end of the PVC.
E. The PVC is not configured on the local switch.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which EIGRP for IPv6 command can you enter to view the link-local addresses of the neighbors of a device?
A. show ipv6 eigrp 20 interfaces
B. show ipv6 route eigrp
C. show ipv6 eigrp neighbors
D. show ip eigrp traffic
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Which two switch states are valid for 802.1w? (Choose two.)
A. listening
B. backup
C. disabled
D. learning
E. discarding
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 10
Which parameter would you tune to affect the selection of a static route as a backup, when a dynamic protocol is also being used?
A. hop count
B. administrative distance
C. link bandwidth
D. link delay
E. link cost
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
A router has two Fast Ethernet interfaces and needs to connect to four VLANs in the local network. How can you accomplish this task, 200-155 dumps using the fewest physical interfaces and without decreasing network performance?
A. Use a hub to connect the four VLANS with a Fast Ethernet interface on the router.
B. Add a second router to handle the VLAN traffic.
C. Add two more Fast Ethernet interfaces.
D. Implement a router-on-a-stick configuration.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Which statement about MPLS is true?
A. It operates in Layer 1.
B. It operates between Layer 2 and Layer 3.
C. It operates in Layer 3.
D. it operates in Layer 2.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which of the following correctly describe steps in the OSI data encapsulation process? (Choose two.)
A. The transport layer divides a data stream into segments and may add reliability and flow control information.
B. The data link layer adds physical source and destination addresses and an FCS to the segment.
C. Packets are created when the network layer encapsulates a frame with source and destination host addresses and protocol-related control information.
D. Packets are created when the network layer adds Layer 3 addresses and control information to a segment.
E. The presentation layer translates bits into voltages for transmission across the physical link.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 14
The command show frame-relay map gives the following output:
Serial 0 (up): ip 192.168.151.4 dlci 122, dynamic, broadcast, status defined, active
Which statements represent what is shown?(Choose three.)
A. 192.168.151.4 represents the IP address of the remote router
B. 192.168.151.4 represents the IP address of the local serial interface
C. DLCI 122 represents the interface of the remote serial interface
D. DLCI 122 represents the local number used to connect to the remote address
E. broadcast indicates that a dynamic routing protocol such as RIP v1 can send packets across this PVC
F. active indicates that the ARP process is working
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 15
Which Cisco platform can verify ACLs?
A. Cisco Prime Infrastructure
B. Cisco Wireless LAN Controller
C. Cisco APIC-EM
D. Cisco IOS-XE
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
In an Ethernet network, under what two scenarios can devices transmit? (Choose two.)
A. when they receive a special token
B. when there is a carrier
C. when they detect no other devices are sending
D. when the medium is idle
E. when the server grants access
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 17
Which option describes what a switch does after it items that a host has connected to a switch port? 200-155 dumps
A. Flood the frame only on all of its trunk ports.
B. Create a MAC to port mapping entry in MAC table.
C. Flood the frame only on all of its access ports.
D. Discard the frame.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
A network interface port has collision detection and carrier sensing enabled on a shared twisted pair network. From this statement, what is known about the network interface port?
A. This is a 10 Mb/s switch port.
B. This is a 100 Mb/s switch port.
C. This is an Ethernet port operating at half duplex.
D. This is an Ethernet port operating at full duplex.
E. This is a port on a network interface card in a PC.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
An engineer is configuring a new MDS switch. The switch is powered on, the customer connects to the console, and the initial setup script is started.
Which two items can be configured during this setup process?
A. default port-channel mode
B. default port VSAN membership
C. default switch port interface state
D. default zone mode
E. default storage VDC
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 20
What are two drawbacks of implementing a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.)
A. the sequencing and acknowledgment of link-state packets
B. the requirement for a hierarchical IP addressing scheme for optimal functionality
C. the high volume of link-state advertisements in a converged network
D. the high demand on router resources to run the link-state routing algorithm
E. the large size of the topology table listing all advertised routes in the converged network
Correct Answer: BD

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QUESTION 1
An administrator needs to validate the data store in a XenApp farm.
The administrator should use the DSCHECK command with the /CLEAN parameter after _______. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. restoring the data store
B. backing up the data store
C. restarting the XenApp server
D. restarting the IMA Service on the data collector
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Scenario: An administrator in a XenApp farm is in the process of replacing a couple of the failed XenApp servers in the farm. The administrator has been instructed to execute the DSCHECK command once the servers have been replaced.
What will be the outcome of executing the DSCHECK command?
A. Recover the local data store
B. Purge corrupt local host cache entries
C. Purge the data store of incorrect entries
D. Display information about servers in the farm
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Scenario: An administrator migrated the data store of a Citrix XenApp 6.5 server farm from Microsoft SQL Server Express on XenApp server XAS01 to a separate Microsoft SQL Server 2008 cluster.
The administrator tested the move, noted that the cluster is running well and found no errors. None of the XenApp 6.5 servers can connect to the new location of the data store.
In this scenario, when should the administrator use the DSCHECK command?
A. After restarting the data collector
B. After using the DSMAINT command
C. After running the QFARM command
D. After using the CHANGE CLIENT command
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
When should an administrator use the DSCHECK command line utility?
A. To fix errors on server entries in the data store
B. To fix errors related to configuring Proxy Authentication
C. To fix errors in the local host cache on each XenApp 6.5 server
D. To generate a report of logon/logoff activity for a XenApp 6.5 server
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Scenario: An administrator has configured a XenApp Web site and customized the footer text of the site to reflect the required customer-specific hyperlinks. 1Y0-A22 dumps The administrator now plans to back up the site.
Which file must the administrator back up?
A. Default.ica
B. Web.config
C. Repair.SFO
D. WebInterface.conf
E. LoginMainFormFoot.inc
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
After repairing a XenApp Web site, an administrator notices that the customized footer text is missing.
Which file must the administrator restore from backup?
A. Default.ica
B. Web.config
C. Repair.SFO
D. WebInterface.conf
E. LoginMainFormFoot.inc
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Scenario: An administrator used the Server Configuration Tool to install a Microsoft SQL Server Express data store database automatically as part of a XenApp 6.5 farm installation. The initial configuration consisted of a single zone and servers in a single physical location. The administrator added an equal number of servers and users to the farm at a second physical location over a WAN.
Which action would require the administrator to migrate the data store database from Microsoft SQL Server Express to Microsoft SQL Server?
A. Adding an additional zone to the farm
B. Replicating the data store to a second database server
C. Moving the data store from local storage to SAN storage
D. Adding the configuration logging database to the same SQL server
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Scenario: An administrator used the Server Configuration Tool to install a Microsoft SQL Server Express data store database automatically as part of a XenApp 6.5 farm installation. The initial configuration consisted of a single zone and servers in a single physical location. The administrator added an equal number of servers and users to the farm at a second physical location over a WAN.
Which action would require the administrator to migrate the data store database from Microsoft SQL Server Express to Microsoft SQL Server?
A. Adding an additional zone to the farm
B. Mirroring the SQL database to a second SQL server
C. Moving the database from local storage to SAN storage
D. Adding the configuration logging database to the same SQL server
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Scenario: An administrator used the Server Configuration Tool to install a Microsoft SQL Server Express data store database automatically as part of a XenApp 6.5 farm installation. The initial configuration consisted of a single zone and servers in a single physical location. The administrator added an equal number of servers and users to the farm at a second physical location over a WAN.
Which new requirement would require the administrator to migrate the data store database from Microsoft SQL Server Express to Microsoft SQL Server?
A. Implementing database mirroring
B. Adding an additional zone to the farm
C. Moving the database from local storage to SAN storage
D. Adding the configuration logging database to the same SQL server
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Scenario: A XenApp Administrator in an enterprise environment plans to use Access Gateway to secure ICA connections from the external network. The Access Gateway is in the DMZ using ICA proxy mode.
Which two locations for these components would be the most secure? (Choose two.)
A. Place the XML broker in the DMZ.
B. Place the Web Interface in the DMZ.
C. Place the XML broker in the internal network.
D. Place the Web Interface in the internal network.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 11
Scenario: A XenApp Administrator in a small environment plans to use Access Gateway to secure ICA connections from an external network. 1Y0-A22 dumps The Access Gateway is in the DMZ in ICA proxy mode. The environment requires minimum configuration to secure connections from the Web Interface server to the XML broker server.
Where should the administrator place the Web Interface server and XML broker?
A. On one server and place the server in the DMZ
B. On separate servers and place the servers in the DMZ
C. On one server and place the server in the internal network
D. On separate servers and place the servers in the internal network
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
In order for the Web Interface server to correctly work with the Access Gateway Enterprise Edition configuration in the attached exhibit,
1Y0-A22 dumps
the administrator must configure the authentication point at __________. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. LDAP
B. RADIUS
C. the Web Interface
D. the Access Gateway
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Which two methods can an administrator use to configure Web Interface in high availability mode? 1Y0-A22 dumps (Choose two.)
A. Windows Cluster services
B. NetScaler Load Balancing feature
C. Windows Load Balancing services
D. NetScaler Access Gateway feature
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 14
A XenApp Administrator plans to use Citrix NetScaler to load balance Web Interface servers.
Which persistence setting should the administrator choose to correctly configure high availability for Web Interface?
A. NOCE
B. DESTIP
C. SOURCEIP
D. COOKIEINSERT
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
Scenario: A XenApp Administrator of a 100-server farm needs to apply Citrix and vendor hotfixes on a monthly basis, and a server restart is always required. The administrator needs to automate this process but does NOT have a third party tool available.
Which two tasks should the administrator complete to guarantee that updates will be applied successfully? (Choose two.)
A. Prohibit logons and notify users.
B. Restart the server and install hotfixes.
C. Apply application load evaluators and notify users.
D. Log off all users from servers and schedule a .EXE setup file installation.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 16
Scenario: The Citrix Administrator of a large farm needs to perform a health check after a scheduled update window. The health check should alert the administrator when the server is unavailable to users.
Which action must the administrator take to perform a health check after a scheduled update window?
A. Use PowerShell SDK scripts to verify the applied updates.
B. Use MFCOM to check applied updates and enabled logons.
C. Use MFCOM scripts to verify enabled logons and open Citrix ports.
D. Use PowerShell SDK scripts to check enabled logons and open Citrix ports.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
Scenario: A new administrator has been asked to ensure that all servers meet the minimum required patching level. A test server has been used to confirm that all patches can be deployed to the production servers. Testing has identified that production servers are NOT at the same patch level.
Which action can the administrator take to identify which patches are required on each production server?
A. Use the Citrix Computer policy wizard.
B. Use the Citrix AppCenter History node.
C. Use the Citrix AppCenter Configuration Tools node.
D. Use the Prepare this server for imaging and provisioning task.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
Scenario: A XenApp Administrator needs to deploy a small MSI package across all XenApp servers. This package requires a restart which needs to be scheduled to ensure that all servers do NOT restart at once. 1Y0-A22 dumps
Which action must the administrator take to fulfill the requirement?
A. Set up Installation Manager.
B. Configure Health Monitoring and Recovery.
C. Create a maintenance policy in the AppCenter console.
D. Use the XenApp Server Role Manager to install Installation Manager.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
Which component should an administrator monitor to verify if the XenApp servers are accepting ICA connections?
A. ICA Listener
B. Logon Monitor
C. Citrix IMA Service
D. Citrix Streaming Service
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Scenario: Some users in remote offices complain that Citrix sessions are slow, and the network administrator has asked the Citrix Administrator to determine whether any data transmission errors are occurring for a group of sample users. In this environment, EdgeSight, Branch Repeater and Session Reliability are NOT used.
How can the Citrix Administrator determine the extent of data transmission errors based on the sample users?
A. Configure Multi-Stream for sample users.
B. Open the Citrix Connection Center for sample users.
C. Enable ICA round trip calculators for idle connections for sample users.
D. Change the active session limit to something other than Never in the ICA-TCP settings.
Correct Answer: B

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LX0-101 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which of the following directories contains additional information about installed packages?
A. /usr/share/documentation
B. /usr/local/share/documentation
C. /usr/local/doc
D. /usr/share/doc
E. /usr/packages/doc
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which of the following commands will allow an administrator to adjust the number of mounts after which an existing filesystem will be checked by e2fsck?
A. debugfs
B. dumpe2fs
C. mode2fs
D. tune2fs
E. mke2fs
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3 CORRECT TEXT
In which directory must definition files be placed to add additional repositories to yum?
Correct Answer: /ETC/YUM.REPOS.D,/ETC/YUM.REPOS.D/,YUM.REPOS.D,YUM.REPOS.D/

QUESTION 4
An administrator is looking for an executable file foo. Which of the following commands would search for foo within directories set in the shell variable, PATH? LX0-101 dumps
A. locate
B. which
C. find
D. query
E. whereis
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which of the following command lines would an administrator use to restrict the GNU find command to searching a particular number of subdirectories?
A. –max-dirs
B. -dirmax
C. -maxdepth
D. -s
E. -n
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
The lspci command can display information about devices EXCEPT:
A. card bus speed (e.g. 66Mhz).
B. card IRQ settings.
C. card vendor identification.
D. card AGP rate (e.g. 1x, 2x, 4x).
E. card Ethernet MAC address.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 7
In compliance with the FHS, in which of the following places are man pages typically found?
A. /usr/share/man
B. /opt/man
C. /usr/doc/
D. /var/pkg/man
E. /usr/local/man
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8 CORRECT TEXT
The system configuration file named is commonly used to set the default runlevel. (Please provide the fill name with full path information).
Correct Answer: /ETC/INITTAB

QUESTION 9
In the vi editor, which of the following commands will delete the current line at the cursor and the 16 lines following it (17 lines total)? LX0-101 dumps
A. 17d
B. 17dd
C. 17x
D. d17d
E. 16d
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
All of the following commands will update the Modify timestamp on the file /tmp/myfile.txt EXCEPT:
A. file /tmp/myfile.txt
B. echo “Hello” >/tmp/myfile.txt
C. sed -ie “s/1/2/” /tmp/myfile.txt
D. echo -n “Hello” >/tmp/myfile.txt
E. touch /tmp/myfile.txt
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11 CORRECT TEXT
What command with all options and/or parameters will send the signal USR1 to any executing process of program apache2?
Correct Answer: KILLALL-SSIGUSR1APACHE2,KILLALL-SUSR1APACHE2,KILLALLSIGUSR1APACHE2,KILLALL-USR1APACHE2

QUESTION 12
An administrator wishes to kill a process with a PID of 123. Which of the following commands will allow the process to “clean up” before exiting?
A. kill -1 123
B. kill -9 123
C. kill -15 123
D. kill -17 123
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
An administrator has just added a CD-ROM drive (/dev/hdd) to a system and added it to the administrator’s fstab. Typically the administrator can use which of the following commands to mount media in that drive to /mnt/cdrom?
A. mount /dev/cdrom /mnt/cdrom
B. mount /dev/cdrom
C. mount -t cdrom /dev/cdrom /mnt/cdrom
D. mount /mnt/cdrom
E. automount /mnt/hdd /mnt/cdrom}
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
To what environment variable will an administrator assign or append a value if the administrator needs to tell the dynamic linker to look in a build directory for some of a program’s shared libraries?
A. LD_LOAD_PATH
B. LD_LIB_PATH
C. LD_LIBRARY_PATH
D. LD_SHARE_PATH
E. LD_RUN_PATH
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
Pressing the Ctrl-C combination on the keyboard while a command is executing in the foreground sends which of following signal codes?
A. 1 (SIGHUP)
B. 2 (SIGINT)
C. 3 (SIGQUIT)
D. 9 (SIGKILL)
E. 15 (SIGTERM)
Correct Answer: B

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70-697 dumps
QUESTION 1
You are an lT consultant for small and mid-sized business.
One of your clients wants to start using Virtual Smart Cards on its Windows 10 Enterprise laptops and tablets. Before implementing any changes, the client wants to ensure that the laptops and tablets support Virtual Smart Cards. You need to verify that the client laptops and tablets support Virtual Smart Cards.
What should you do?
A. Ensure that each laptop and tablet has a Trusted Platform Module (TPM) chip of version l.2 or greater.
B. Ensure that Bitlocker Drive Encryption is enabled on a system drive of the laptops and tablets.
C. Ensure that each laptop and tablet can read a physical smart card.
D. Ensure that the laptops and tablets are running Windows 10 Enter prise edition.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. Contoso.com is synchronized to a Microsoft Azure Active Directory. You have a Microsoft lntune subscription. Your company pLANs to implement a Bring Your Own Device (BYOD) policy. You will provide users with access to corporate data from their personal iOS devices.
You need to ensure that you can manage the personal iOS devices.
What should you do first?
A. lnstall the Company Portal app from the App1e App Store.
B. Create a device enrollment manager account.
C. Set a DNS alias for the enrollment server address.
D. Configure the lntune Service to Service Connector for Hosted Exchange.
E. Enroll for an App1e Push Notification (APN) certificate.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 3
You manage Microsoft lntune for a company named Contoso.lntune client computers run Windows 10 Enterprise.
You notice that there are 25 mandatory updates listed in the lntune administration console. You need to prevent users from receiving prompts to restart Windows following the installation of mandatory updates.
Which policy template should you use?
A. Microsoft lntune Agent Settings
B. Windows Configuration Policy
C. Microsoft lntune Center Settings
D. WindowsCustomPolicy(Windows 10andWindows 10Mobile)
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
You have an Active Directory domain named contoso.com that contains a deployment of Microsoft System Center 20l2 Configuration Manager Service Pack 1 (SP1). 70-697 dumps You have a Microsoft lntune subscription that is synchronized to contoso.com by using the Microsoft Azure Active Directory Synchronization Tool (DirSync.) You need to ensure that you can use Configuration Manager to manage the devices that are registered to your Microsoft lntune subscription.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents a part of the solution.
A. ln Microsoft lntune, create a new device enrollment manager account.
B. lnstall and configure Azure Active Directory Synchronization Services (AAD Sync.)
C. ln Microsoft lntune, configure an Exchange Connector.
D. ln Configuration Manager, configure the Microsoft lntune Connector role.
E. ln Configuration Manager, create the Microsoft lntune subscription.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 5
You have a Microsoft lntune subscription.
You have three security groups named Security1, Security2 and Security3. Security1 is the parent group of Security2.
Security2 has l00 users.
You need to change the parent group of Security2 to be Security3.
What should you do first?
A. Edit the properties of Security1.
B. Edit the properties of Security2.
C. Delete security2.
D. Remove all users from Security2.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
You have a Windows 10 Enterprise computer named Computer1 that has the Hyper-V feature installed.
Computer1 hosts a virtual machine named VM1. VM1 runs Windows 10 Enterprise. VM1 connects to a private virtual network switch.
From Computer1, you need to remotely execute Windows PowerShell cmdlets on VM1.
What should you do?
A. Run the winrm.exe command and specify the -s parameter.
B. Run the Powershell.exe command and specify the -Command parameter.
C. Run the Receive-PSSession cmdlet and specify the -Name parameter.
D. Run the lnvoke-Command cmdlet and specify the -VMName parameter.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
HOTSPOT
You have an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. You have a server that runs Windows Server 20l2 R2 and that is a Remote Desktop server
The RD Web Access Web App1ication settings are shown in the following graphic.
70-697 dumps
\Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information presented in the graphic. 70-697 dumps
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
70-697 dumps
Correct Answer:
70-697 dumps
QUESTION 8
You are the desktop administrator for a small company.
Your work group environment consists of Windows 10 Enterprise computers. You want to prevent l0 help desk computers from sleeping. However, you want the screens to shut off after a certain period of time if the computers are not being used.
You need to configure and App1y a standard power configuration scheme for the l0 help desk computers on your network.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. lmport the power scheme by using POWERCFG /lMPORT on each of the remaining help desk computers. Set the power scheme to Active by using POWERCFG /S.
B. Use POWERCFG /X on one help desk computer to modify the power scheme to meet the requirements. Export the power scheme by using POWERCFG /EXPORT.
C. Use POWERCFG /S on one help desk computer to modify the power scheme to meet the requirements. Export the power scheme by using POWERCFG /EXPORT.
D. lmport the power scheme by using POWERCFG /lMPORT on each of the remaining help desk computers. Set the power scheme to Active by using POWERCFG /X.
Correct Answer: AB

]QUESTION 9
A company has an Active Directory Domain Services(ADDS) domain. All client computers run Windows 10 Enterprise.
Some computers have a Trusted Platform Module (TPM) chip.
You need to configure a single Group Policy object (GPO) that will allow Windows Bitlocker Drive Encryption on all client computers.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Enable the Require additional authentication at startup policy setting.
B. Enable the Enforce drive encryption type on operating system drives policy setting.
C. Enable the option to allow Bitlocker without a compatible TPM.
D. Configure the TPM validation profile to enable Plat form Configuration Registerindices(PCRs)0,2,4,andll.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 10
You deploy several tablet PCs that run Windows 10 Enterprise.
You need to minimize power usage when the user presses the sleep button.
What should you do? 70-697 dumps
A. ln Power Options, configure the sleep button setting to Sleep.
B. ln Power Options, configure the sleep button setting to Hibernate.
C. Configure the active power pLAN to set the system cooling policy to passive.
D. Disable the C-State control in the computer’s BlOS.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Employees are permitted to bring personally owned portable Windows 10 Enterprise computers to the office. They are permitted to install corporate App1ications by using the management infrastructure agent and access corporate emailbyusing the Mailapp.
An employee’s personally owned portable computer is stolen.
You need to protect the corporate App1ications and email messages on the computer. Which two actions
should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Prevent the computer from connecting to the corporate wireless network.
B. Change the user’s password.
C. Disconnect the computer from the management infrastructure.
D. lnitiate a remote wipe.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 12
You support Windows 10 Enterprise computers.
Your company has started testi g App1ication Virtualization (App-V) App1ications on several laptops. You discover that the App-V App1ications are available to users even when the laptops are offline. You need to ensure that the App-V App1ications are available to users only when they are connected to the company network.
What should you do?
A. Change user permissions to the App-V App1ications.
B. Disable the Disconnected operation mode.
C. Configure mandatory profiles for laptop users.
D. Reset the App-V client FileSystem cache.
Correct Answer: B

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Cisco will be able to reduce even more digital risk

Cisco is credited with having established various different certification systems. Each of those certifications is for a specific area of IT expertise. Certifications such as these help establish the knowledge credentials of an IT professionals. Cisco Systems reported a better-than-expected quarterly profit. Cisco’s (NASDAQ: CSCO) earnings announcement shows a company that is slowing reinventing itself.
Cisco
Cisco faces the same problems that Microsoft and IBM does. In different ways, these technology companies are limited to hardware sales. Cisco (NASDAQ: CSCO) is the worldwide technology leader that has been making the Internet work since 1984. Our people, products, and partners help society securely connect and seize tomorrow’s digital opportunity today. Microsoft needed a hardware purchase (or upgrade) to sell its operating system version, while IBM and Cisco provided the core processing, storage and networking hardware needed for computing.

Cisco and the Cisco logo are trademarks or registered trademarks of Cisco and/or its affiliates in the U.S. and other countries. A listing of Cisco’s trademarks can be found at www.cisco.com/go/trademarks. Third-party trademarks mentioned are the property of their respective owners. The use of the word partner does not imply a partnership relationship between Cisco and any other company.

Cisco has found there are now 19.7 billion cyber threats per day. Figures from the UK’s Information Commissioner’s Office also show the number of retailers who have had data breaches has doubled in just one year. This means that as retailers accumulate more shopper data, more personal information is at risk to become compromised. In 2015-2016, 19 breaches caused the loss of client data—this rose to a whopping 38 breaches in the 2016-2017 timeframe.
Cisco
Senior Director of Threat Intelligence at Cisco Matt Watchinski tells CNBC that threats definitely increase during the holiday season. Knowing that breaches have gained over the last year, here’s some tips to keep your personal information safe:
1.Avoid sketchy emails
Don’t click on anything (including texts) that sound too good to be true. Check their website instead.
2.Update your passphrases
Passwords, operating systems, browsers, apps, and more—it’s always good to keep them fresh.
3.Vary your security questions (and answers)
Keep your security questions varied, creative, and hard to guess. Answers shouldn’t be easy to find through public search.
4.Don’t save credit card info
Keeping this information in browsers, retailers, and public spaces is a great risk. Watchinski also recommends visiting your credit card’s website to get a one-time credit card code.

To help with the fight against cybersecurity crime, Cisco has recently partnered with INTERPOL (International Police Organization) to share threat intelligence as a joint effort against cybercrime. The aim is for both organizations to develop a focused approach to share data. This will help quickly pinpoint threats around the world.
Cisco
Cisco’s already-broad security portfolio helps retailers and beyond to find a threat, and stop it everywhere. With the alliance with INTERPOL, Cisco will be able to reduce even more digital risk.

Cisco CEO Chuck Robbins summed up the results by saying, “Our strategy is working.” Look for a continued shift to services and software as Cisco recently announced its intentions to purchase BroadSoft, a cloud-based collaboration provider, to expand its capabilities. Cisco’s big opportunities are to continue to wisely acquire fast-growing companies to expand its cloud-based presence and to continue to offer network infrastructure solutions to the nascent Internet of Things.

Reference: https://newsroom.cisco.com/feature-content?type=webcontent&articleId=1899011

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA Security
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Exam Code: 210-260
Total Questions: 310 Q&As
210-260 dumps
QUESTION 1
When a company puts a security policy in place, what is the effect on the company’s business?
A. Minimizing risk
B. Minimizing total cost of ownership
C. Minimizing liability
D. Maximizing compliance
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which feature of the Cisco Email Security Appliance can mitigate the impact of snowshoe spam and sophisticated phishing attacks?
A. contextual analysis
B. holistic understanding of threats
C. graymail management and filtering
D. signature-based IPS
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which Cisco product can help mitigate web-based attacks within a network?
A. Adaptive Security Appliance
B. Web Security Appliance
C. Email Security Appliance
D. Identity Services Engine
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit. 210-260 dumps
210-260 dumps
If a supplicant supplies incorrect credentials for all authentication methods configured on the switch, how will the switch respond?
A. The supplicant will fail to advance beyond the webauth method.
B. The switch will cycle through the configured authentication methods indefinitely.
C. The authentication attempt will time out and the switch will place the port into the unauthorized state.
D. The authentication attempt will time out and the switch will place the port into VLAN 101.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
In which three ways does the RADIUS protocol differ from TACACS? (Choose three.)
A. RADIUS uses UDP to communicate with the NAS.
B. RADIUS encrypts only the password field in an authentication packet.
C. RADIUS authenticates and authorizes simultaneously, causing fewer packets to be transmitted.
D. RADIUS uses TCP to communicate with the NAS.
E. RADIUS can encrypt the entire packet that is sent to the NAS.
F. RADIUS supports per-command authorization.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 6
Which EAP method uses Protected Access Credentials?
A. EAP-FAST
B. EAP-TLS
C. EAP-PEAP
D. EAP-GTC
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
In which three cases does the ASA firewall permit inbound HTTP GET requests during normal operations? (Choose three).
A. when matching NAT entries are configured
B. when matching ACL entries are configured
C. when the firewall receives a SYN-ACK packet
D. when the firewall receives a SYN packet
E. when the firewall requires HTTP inspection
F. when the firewall requires strict HTTP inspection
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 8
What is the purpose of the Integrity component of the CIA triad?
A. to ensure that only authorized parties can modify data
B. to determine whether data is relevant
C. to create a process for accessing data
D. to ensure that only authorized parties can view data
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
210-260 dumps What VPN feature allows Internet traffic and local LAN/WAN traffic to use the same network connection?
A. split tunneling
B. hairpinning
C. tunnel mode
D. transparent mode
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
In which stage of an attack does the attacker discover devices on a target network?
A. Reconnaissance
B. Covering tracks
C. Gaining access
D. Maintaining access
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
How can the administrator enable permanent client installation in a Cisco AnyConnect VPN firewall configuration?
A. Issue the command anyconnect keep-installer under the group policy or username webvpn mode
B. Issue the command anyconnect keep-installer installed in the global configuration
C. Issue the command anyconnect keep-installer installed under the group policy or username webvpn mode
D. Issue the command anyconnect keep-installer installer under the group policy or username webvpn mode
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
What is one requirement for locking a wired or wireless device from ISE?
A. The ISE agent must be installed on the device.
B. The device must be connected to the network when the lock command is executed.
C. The user must approve the locking action.
D. The organization must implement an acceptable use policy allowing device locking.
Correct Answer: A

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Vendor: Lpi
Certifications: LPIC-2
Exam Name: Linux Advanced Administration
Exam Code: 117-201
Total Questions: 202 Q&As
117-201 dumps
QUESTION 1
In order to generate a pair of asymmetric keys to use during an SSH connection, please choose the correct command to use?
A. ssh-keygen -t dsa
B. ssh-agent
C. sshd
D. ssh-agent -t dsa
E. ssh-keyscan-tdsa
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
The server has two network cards. The driver for the first card is the module 8139too and the driver for the second card is the module ne2k-pci. How is it possible to ensure that the card using the 8139too driver is detected before the cardusing thene2k-pcidriver?
A. modprobe 8139too dev=eth0; modprobe ne2k-pci dev=ethl
B. install mod 8139too; install mod ne2k-pci
C. modprobe eth0=8139too, ethl=ne2k-pci
D. ifconfig modadd eth0=8139too, ethl=ne2k-pci
E. modprobe 8139too; modprobe ne2k-pci
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Where should the LILOcodereside, on a system with on lyone installation of Linux and noother operating systems?
A. In the master boot record
B. In the boot sector
C. In the /boot directory
D. At the start of the kernel
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
To securely use dynamic DNS updates, the use of TSIG is recommended. 117-201 dumps Which TWO statements about TSIG are true?
A. TSIG is used for zone data encryption
B. TSIG is a signal to start a zone update
C. TSIG is used in zone files
D. TSIG is used only in server configuration
E. Servers using TSIG must be in sync (time zone!)
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 5
What information can be found in the log file specified by the status parameter in OpenVPN’s server.conf? (Select TWO correct answers)
A. Errors and warnings generated by the openvpn daemon
B. Routing information
C. Statistical information regarding the currently running openvpn daemon
D. A list of currently connected clients
E. A history of all clients who have connected at some point
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 6
Your routing configuration relies on eth0 being a 3com card that requires the 3c59x module. What line must be added tomodulesconfigurationfile, toensurethateth0alwaysusesthismodule?
A. eth0=3c59x
B. alias eth0=3c59x
C. alias eth0 3c59x
D. set eth0 3c59x
E. set eth0=3c59x
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Why the root file system is mounted read-only during boot and remounted with write permission later on?
A. Because if problems with the root file system are detected during the boot, fsck can be run, without risk of damage.
B. Becausethiswaycrackerscannotcollectinformationaboutrootwithbootsniffers
C. To avoid writing to the disk, unless the root password is known.
D. To avoid other operating systems overwriting the Linux root partition
E. Because the disk has its own write protection that cannot change by the operating system.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
What command is used to re-add a partition to a software RAID setup?
A. raidhotadd
B. raidadd
C. addraid
D. raidaddhot
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
What command can be used on an existing (formatted) partition, 117-201 dumps to configure the interval between disk checks when mounting partitions?
A. mke2fs
B. e2fsck
C. e2fsckconfig
D. config2fs
E. tune2fs
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 10
You have finished updating and resolving dependencies for some source code. What command should you run before recompiling the code into binary form?
A. make clean
B. make all
C. make dep
D. make install
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
A DNS server has the IP address 192.168.0.1. Which TWO of the following need to be done on a client machine to use this DNS server?
A. Add nameserver 192.168.0.1 to /etc/resolv.conf
B. Run route add nameserver 192.168.0.1
C. Run ifconfig eth0 nameserver 192.168.0.1
D. Ensure that the dns service is listed in the hosts entry in the /etc/nsswitch.conf file
E. Run bind add nameserver 192.168.0.1
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 12
Why shouldn’t you use the options -z and -j when using tar with a magnetic tape backup?
A. In case of damaged tape uncompressed tar archives may allow partial recovery of the backup
B. Standard Linux compression software and hardware compresion in the tape drive will cause bigger files on the tapes.
C. Standard Linux compression software won’t be able to write to sequential tape media.
D. Backup and restore performance will be better if we don’t introduce the compression delay into the process
E. The tape drive hardware-based compression achieves higher compression rates than either gzip or bzip2 software based compression.
Correct Answer: A

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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: MCSD
Exam Name: Developing Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013 Core Solutions
Exam Code: 70-488
Total Questions: 131 Q&As
70-488 dumps
QUESTION 1
Customers report that upon creation of the Payment Confirmation document, they do not receive a confirmation message.
You need to ensure that customers receive confirmation messages.
What should you do?
A. Ensure that the user has the correct permissions to start a workflow.
B. Ensure that the Payment Confirmation content type is deployed.
C. Ensure that the user is assigned to the Wholesale role.
D. Ensure that a workflow is associated with the document content type.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
A franchisee deletes several sites from the franchise’s site collection. The franchisee site collection administrator must recover the sites.
You need to instruct the franchisee site collection administrator on how to access the page to recover the sites.
What should the site collection administrator do to get to the appropriate page?
A. Select General Settings for the Web Application in Central Administration and change the second stage Recycle Bin settings to 100 percent.
B. Select General Settings for the Web Application in Central Administration and change the first stage Recycle Bin settings to 0 days.
C. Select the Recycle Bin on the Site Settings page. Choose the appropriate sites and select Restore Selection.
D. Select the Recycle Bin in the Quick Launch page. Choose the appropriate sites and select Restore Selection.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
After deploying a solution, a code-based hotfix becomes available.
You need to deploy the hotfix.
What should you do? 70-488 dumps (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Use assembly binding redirection in the web application configuration file.
B. Increment the assembly file version of the assembly.
C. Increment the product version of the assembly.
D. Increment the assembly version of the assembly.
E. Use assembly binding redirection in the assembly policy file.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 4
You need to set the appropriate permission levels.
A variable named customRole references Wholesale.
Which code segment should you add at line UA09?
A. customRole.BasePermissions= _permissions | SPBasePermissions.ViewFormPages;
B. customRole .BasePermissions= _permissions| SPBasePermissions.ViewPages;
C. customRole.BasePermissions=SPBasePermissions.EmptyMaskSPBasePermissions.ViewPages;
D. customRole.BasePermissions=SPBasePermissions.ViewPages;
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
You need to add code at line CT11 to create the content types.
How should you complete the relevant code? (To answer, drag the appropriate code segments to the correct location or locations in the answer area. Each code segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Select and Place:
70-488 dumps
Correct Answer:
70-488 dumps
QUESTION 6
You need to configure the credential store for the app.
Which properties should you configure? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Pin
B. Windows Password
C. Windows User Name
D. Password
E. User Name
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 7
A server in the SharePoint farm experiences high memory usage. Task Scheduler on the server runs a Windows PowerShell script to perform backups of Wholesale sites.
You need to resolve any memory leak issues in the Windows PowerShell script.
What should you do? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Insert the code segment at line EW04:
Start-SPAssignment -Global
B. Insert the code segment at line EW17:
$site.Close()
C. Insert the code segment at line EW17:
Stop-SPAssignment -SemiGlobal
D. Insert the code segment at line EW17:
Stop-SPAssignment Global
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 8
You need to implement the custom claims provider for the SharePoint farm.
Which code segments should you implement? 70-488 dumps (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
70-488 dumps
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
E. Option E
F. Option F
Correct Answer: BDF

QUESTION 9
You need to meet the requirements for data storage for the CourierMobile app and the CloudMananger app.
Which technologies should you use? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Windows Azure SQL Database
B. SharePoint content database
C. Secure Store
D. SQL Server Express LocalDB
E. SharePoint list
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 10
You need to configure navigation for the site.
What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Create simple links or headers for new pages.
B. Create friendly URLs for new pages automatically.
C. Add unique identifiers to new pages.
D. Create term-driven pages with friendly URLs.
E. Add new pages to navigation automatically.
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 11
You receive an error when you deploy the app.
You need to resolve the error.
What should you do?
A. Create a deployment package and upload the app to the app catalog in SharePoint.
B. Enable side-loading of apps in the app manifest.
C. Deploy the app to https://contoso-my.sharepoint.com.
D. Enable side-loading of apps in the Visual Studio project properties.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
A\Batch 1
You need to automate the backup of a site collection.
What should you do? 70-488 dumps (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Back up to a network folder.
B. Set the LockStatus of the site collection to Adding content prevented
C. Back up to a local folder and then move the backup to a network folder.
D. Use Central Administration to perform the backup.
E. Use Windows PowerShell to perform the backup.
Correct Answer: AD

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