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70-697 dumps
QUESTION 1
You are an lT consultant for small and mid-sized business.
One of your clients wants to start using Virtual Smart Cards on its Windows 10 Enterprise laptops and tablets. Before implementing any changes, the client wants to ensure that the laptops and tablets support Virtual Smart Cards. You need to verify that the client laptops and tablets support Virtual Smart Cards.
What should you do?
A. Ensure that each laptop and tablet has a Trusted Platform Module (TPM) chip of version l.2 or greater.
B. Ensure that Bitlocker Drive Encryption is enabled on a system drive of the laptops and tablets.
C. Ensure that each laptop and tablet can read a physical smart card.
D. Ensure that the laptops and tablets are running Windows 10 Enter prise edition.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. Contoso.com is synchronized to a Microsoft Azure Active Directory. You have a Microsoft lntune subscription. Your company pLANs to implement a Bring Your Own Device (BYOD) policy. You will provide users with access to corporate data from their personal iOS devices.
You need to ensure that you can manage the personal iOS devices.
What should you do first?
A. lnstall the Company Portal app from the App1e App Store.
B. Create a device enrollment manager account.
C. Set a DNS alias for the enrollment server address.
D. Configure the lntune Service to Service Connector for Hosted Exchange.
E. Enroll for an App1e Push Notification (APN) certificate.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 3
You manage Microsoft lntune for a company named Contoso.lntune client computers run Windows 10 Enterprise.
You notice that there are 25 mandatory updates listed in the lntune administration console. You need to prevent users from receiving prompts to restart Windows following the installation of mandatory updates.
Which policy template should you use?
A. Microsoft lntune Agent Settings
B. Windows Configuration Policy
C. Microsoft lntune Center Settings
D. WindowsCustomPolicy(Windows 10andWindows 10Mobile)
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
You have an Active Directory domain named contoso.com that contains a deployment of Microsoft System Center 20l2 Configuration Manager Service Pack 1 (SP1). 70-697 dumps You have a Microsoft lntune subscription that is synchronized to contoso.com by using the Microsoft Azure Active Directory Synchronization Tool (DirSync.) You need to ensure that you can use Configuration Manager to manage the devices that are registered to your Microsoft lntune subscription.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents a part of the solution.
A. ln Microsoft lntune, create a new device enrollment manager account.
B. lnstall and configure Azure Active Directory Synchronization Services (AAD Sync.)
C. ln Microsoft lntune, configure an Exchange Connector.
D. ln Configuration Manager, configure the Microsoft lntune Connector role.
E. ln Configuration Manager, create the Microsoft lntune subscription.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 5
You have a Microsoft lntune subscription.
You have three security groups named Security1, Security2 and Security3. Security1 is the parent group of Security2.
Security2 has l00 users.
You need to change the parent group of Security2 to be Security3.
What should you do first?
A. Edit the properties of Security1.
B. Edit the properties of Security2.
C. Delete security2.
D. Remove all users from Security2.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
You have a Windows 10 Enterprise computer named Computer1 that has the Hyper-V feature installed.
Computer1 hosts a virtual machine named VM1. VM1 runs Windows 10 Enterprise. VM1 connects to a private virtual network switch.
From Computer1, you need to remotely execute Windows PowerShell cmdlets on VM1.
What should you do?
A. Run the winrm.exe command and specify the -s parameter.
B. Run the Powershell.exe command and specify the -Command parameter.
C. Run the Receive-PSSession cmdlet and specify the -Name parameter.
D. Run the lnvoke-Command cmdlet and specify the -VMName parameter.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
HOTSPOT
You have an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. You have a server that runs Windows Server 20l2 R2 and that is a Remote Desktop server
The RD Web Access Web App1ication settings are shown in the following graphic.
70-697 dumps
\Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information presented in the graphic. 70-697 dumps
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
70-697 dumps
Correct Answer:
70-697 dumps
QUESTION 8
You are the desktop administrator for a small company.
Your work group environment consists of Windows 10 Enterprise computers. You want to prevent l0 help desk computers from sleeping. However, you want the screens to shut off after a certain period of time if the computers are not being used.
You need to configure and App1y a standard power configuration scheme for the l0 help desk computers on your network.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. lmport the power scheme by using POWERCFG /lMPORT on each of the remaining help desk computers. Set the power scheme to Active by using POWERCFG /S.
B. Use POWERCFG /X on one help desk computer to modify the power scheme to meet the requirements. Export the power scheme by using POWERCFG /EXPORT.
C. Use POWERCFG /S on one help desk computer to modify the power scheme to meet the requirements. Export the power scheme by using POWERCFG /EXPORT.
D. lmport the power scheme by using POWERCFG /lMPORT on each of the remaining help desk computers. Set the power scheme to Active by using POWERCFG /X.
Correct Answer: AB

]QUESTION 9
A company has an Active Directory Domain Services(ADDS) domain. All client computers run Windows 10 Enterprise.
Some computers have a Trusted Platform Module (TPM) chip.
You need to configure a single Group Policy object (GPO) that will allow Windows Bitlocker Drive Encryption on all client computers.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Enable the Require additional authentication at startup policy setting.
B. Enable the Enforce drive encryption type on operating system drives policy setting.
C. Enable the option to allow Bitlocker without a compatible TPM.
D. Configure the TPM validation profile to enable Plat form Configuration Registerindices(PCRs)0,2,4,andll.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 10
You deploy several tablet PCs that run Windows 10 Enterprise.
You need to minimize power usage when the user presses the sleep button.
What should you do? 70-697 dumps
A. ln Power Options, configure the sleep button setting to Sleep.
B. ln Power Options, configure the sleep button setting to Hibernate.
C. Configure the active power pLAN to set the system cooling policy to passive.
D. Disable the C-State control in the computer’s BlOS.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Employees are permitted to bring personally owned portable Windows 10 Enterprise computers to the office. They are permitted to install corporate App1ications by using the management infrastructure agent and access corporate emailbyusing the Mailapp.
An employee’s personally owned portable computer is stolen.
You need to protect the corporate App1ications and email messages on the computer. Which two actions
should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Prevent the computer from connecting to the corporate wireless network.
B. Change the user’s password.
C. Disconnect the computer from the management infrastructure.
D. lnitiate a remote wipe.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 12
You support Windows 10 Enterprise computers.
Your company has started testi g App1ication Virtualization (App-V) App1ications on several laptops. You discover that the App-V App1ications are available to users even when the laptops are offline. You need to ensure that the App-V App1ications are available to users only when they are connected to the company network.
What should you do?
A. Change user permissions to the App-V App1ications.
B. Disable the Disconnected operation mode.
C. Configure mandatory profiles for laptop users.
D. Reset the App-V client FileSystem cache.
Correct Answer: B

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Cisco will be able to reduce even more digital risk

Cisco is credited with having established various different certification systems. Each of those certifications is for a specific area of IT expertise. Certifications such as these help establish the knowledge credentials of an IT professionals. Cisco Systems reported a better-than-expected quarterly profit. Cisco’s (NASDAQ: CSCO) earnings announcement shows a company that is slowing reinventing itself.
Cisco
Cisco faces the same problems that Microsoft and IBM does. In different ways, these technology companies are limited to hardware sales. Cisco (NASDAQ: CSCO) is the worldwide technology leader that has been making the Internet work since 1984. Our people, products, and partners help society securely connect and seize tomorrow’s digital opportunity today. Microsoft needed a hardware purchase (or upgrade) to sell its operating system version, while IBM and Cisco provided the core processing, storage and networking hardware needed for computing.

Cisco and the Cisco logo are trademarks or registered trademarks of Cisco and/or its affiliates in the U.S. and other countries. A listing of Cisco’s trademarks can be found at www.cisco.com/go/trademarks. Third-party trademarks mentioned are the property of their respective owners. The use of the word partner does not imply a partnership relationship between Cisco and any other company.

Cisco has found there are now 19.7 billion cyber threats per day. Figures from the UK’s Information Commissioner’s Office also show the number of retailers who have had data breaches has doubled in just one year. This means that as retailers accumulate more shopper data, more personal information is at risk to become compromised. In 2015-2016, 19 breaches caused the loss of client data—this rose to a whopping 38 breaches in the 2016-2017 timeframe.
Cisco
Senior Director of Threat Intelligence at Cisco Matt Watchinski tells CNBC that threats definitely increase during the holiday season. Knowing that breaches have gained over the last year, here’s some tips to keep your personal information safe:
1.Avoid sketchy emails
Don’t click on anything (including texts) that sound too good to be true. Check their website instead.
2.Update your passphrases
Passwords, operating systems, browsers, apps, and more—it’s always good to keep them fresh.
3.Vary your security questions (and answers)
Keep your security questions varied, creative, and hard to guess. Answers shouldn’t be easy to find through public search.
4.Don’t save credit card info
Keeping this information in browsers, retailers, and public spaces is a great risk. Watchinski also recommends visiting your credit card’s website to get a one-time credit card code.

To help with the fight against cybersecurity crime, Cisco has recently partnered with INTERPOL (International Police Organization) to share threat intelligence as a joint effort against cybercrime. The aim is for both organizations to develop a focused approach to share data. This will help quickly pinpoint threats around the world.
Cisco
Cisco’s already-broad security portfolio helps retailers and beyond to find a threat, and stop it everywhere. With the alliance with INTERPOL, Cisco will be able to reduce even more digital risk.

Cisco CEO Chuck Robbins summed up the results by saying, “Our strategy is working.” Look for a continued shift to services and software as Cisco recently announced its intentions to purchase BroadSoft, a cloud-based collaboration provider, to expand its capabilities. Cisco’s big opportunities are to continue to wisely acquire fast-growing companies to expand its cloud-based presence and to continue to offer network infrastructure solutions to the nascent Internet of Things.

Reference: https://newsroom.cisco.com/feature-content?type=webcontent&articleId=1899011

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA Security
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Exam Code: 210-260
Total Questions: 310 Q&As
210-260 dumps
QUESTION 1
When a company puts a security policy in place, what is the effect on the company’s business?
A. Minimizing risk
B. Minimizing total cost of ownership
C. Minimizing liability
D. Maximizing compliance
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which feature of the Cisco Email Security Appliance can mitigate the impact of snowshoe spam and sophisticated phishing attacks?
A. contextual analysis
B. holistic understanding of threats
C. graymail management and filtering
D. signature-based IPS
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which Cisco product can help mitigate web-based attacks within a network?
A. Adaptive Security Appliance
B. Web Security Appliance
C. Email Security Appliance
D. Identity Services Engine
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit. 210-260 dumps
210-260 dumps
If a supplicant supplies incorrect credentials for all authentication methods configured on the switch, how will the switch respond?
A. The supplicant will fail to advance beyond the webauth method.
B. The switch will cycle through the configured authentication methods indefinitely.
C. The authentication attempt will time out and the switch will place the port into the unauthorized state.
D. The authentication attempt will time out and the switch will place the port into VLAN 101.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
In which three ways does the RADIUS protocol differ from TACACS? (Choose three.)
A. RADIUS uses UDP to communicate with the NAS.
B. RADIUS encrypts only the password field in an authentication packet.
C. RADIUS authenticates and authorizes simultaneously, causing fewer packets to be transmitted.
D. RADIUS uses TCP to communicate with the NAS.
E. RADIUS can encrypt the entire packet that is sent to the NAS.
F. RADIUS supports per-command authorization.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 6
Which EAP method uses Protected Access Credentials?
A. EAP-FAST
B. EAP-TLS
C. EAP-PEAP
D. EAP-GTC
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
In which three cases does the ASA firewall permit inbound HTTP GET requests during normal operations? (Choose three).
A. when matching NAT entries are configured
B. when matching ACL entries are configured
C. when the firewall receives a SYN-ACK packet
D. when the firewall receives a SYN packet
E. when the firewall requires HTTP inspection
F. when the firewall requires strict HTTP inspection
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 8
What is the purpose of the Integrity component of the CIA triad?
A. to ensure that only authorized parties can modify data
B. to determine whether data is relevant
C. to create a process for accessing data
D. to ensure that only authorized parties can view data
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
210-260 dumps What VPN feature allows Internet traffic and local LAN/WAN traffic to use the same network connection?
A. split tunneling
B. hairpinning
C. tunnel mode
D. transparent mode
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
In which stage of an attack does the attacker discover devices on a target network?
A. Reconnaissance
B. Covering tracks
C. Gaining access
D. Maintaining access
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
How can the administrator enable permanent client installation in a Cisco AnyConnect VPN firewall configuration?
A. Issue the command anyconnect keep-installer under the group policy or username webvpn mode
B. Issue the command anyconnect keep-installer installed in the global configuration
C. Issue the command anyconnect keep-installer installed under the group policy or username webvpn mode
D. Issue the command anyconnect keep-installer installer under the group policy or username webvpn mode
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
What is one requirement for locking a wired or wireless device from ISE?
A. The ISE agent must be installed on the device.
B. The device must be connected to the network when the lock command is executed.
C. The user must approve the locking action.
D. The organization must implement an acceptable use policy allowing device locking.
Correct Answer: A

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Vendor: Lpi
Certifications: LPIC-2
Exam Name: Linux Advanced Administration
Exam Code: 117-201
Total Questions: 202 Q&As
117-201 dumps
QUESTION 1
In order to generate a pair of asymmetric keys to use during an SSH connection, please choose the correct command to use?
A. ssh-keygen -t dsa
B. ssh-agent
C. sshd
D. ssh-agent -t dsa
E. ssh-keyscan-tdsa
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
The server has two network cards. The driver for the first card is the module 8139too and the driver for the second card is the module ne2k-pci. How is it possible to ensure that the card using the 8139too driver is detected before the cardusing thene2k-pcidriver?
A. modprobe 8139too dev=eth0; modprobe ne2k-pci dev=ethl
B. install mod 8139too; install mod ne2k-pci
C. modprobe eth0=8139too, ethl=ne2k-pci
D. ifconfig modadd eth0=8139too, ethl=ne2k-pci
E. modprobe 8139too; modprobe ne2k-pci
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Where should the LILOcodereside, on a system with on lyone installation of Linux and noother operating systems?
A. In the master boot record
B. In the boot sector
C. In the /boot directory
D. At the start of the kernel
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
To securely use dynamic DNS updates, the use of TSIG is recommended. 117-201 dumps Which TWO statements about TSIG are true?
A. TSIG is used for zone data encryption
B. TSIG is a signal to start a zone update
C. TSIG is used in zone files
D. TSIG is used only in server configuration
E. Servers using TSIG must be in sync (time zone!)
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 5
What information can be found in the log file specified by the status parameter in OpenVPN’s server.conf? (Select TWO correct answers)
A. Errors and warnings generated by the openvpn daemon
B. Routing information
C. Statistical information regarding the currently running openvpn daemon
D. A list of currently connected clients
E. A history of all clients who have connected at some point
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 6
Your routing configuration relies on eth0 being a 3com card that requires the 3c59x module. What line must be added tomodulesconfigurationfile, toensurethateth0alwaysusesthismodule?
A. eth0=3c59x
B. alias eth0=3c59x
C. alias eth0 3c59x
D. set eth0 3c59x
E. set eth0=3c59x
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Why the root file system is mounted read-only during boot and remounted with write permission later on?
A. Because if problems with the root file system are detected during the boot, fsck can be run, without risk of damage.
B. Becausethiswaycrackerscannotcollectinformationaboutrootwithbootsniffers
C. To avoid writing to the disk, unless the root password is known.
D. To avoid other operating systems overwriting the Linux root partition
E. Because the disk has its own write protection that cannot change by the operating system.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
What command is used to re-add a partition to a software RAID setup?
A. raidhotadd
B. raidadd
C. addraid
D. raidaddhot
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
What command can be used on an existing (formatted) partition, 117-201 dumps to configure the interval between disk checks when mounting partitions?
A. mke2fs
B. e2fsck
C. e2fsckconfig
D. config2fs
E. tune2fs
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 10
You have finished updating and resolving dependencies for some source code. What command should you run before recompiling the code into binary form?
A. make clean
B. make all
C. make dep
D. make install
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
A DNS server has the IP address 192.168.0.1. Which TWO of the following need to be done on a client machine to use this DNS server?
A. Add nameserver 192.168.0.1 to /etc/resolv.conf
B. Run route add nameserver 192.168.0.1
C. Run ifconfig eth0 nameserver 192.168.0.1
D. Ensure that the dns service is listed in the hosts entry in the /etc/nsswitch.conf file
E. Run bind add nameserver 192.168.0.1
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 12
Why shouldn’t you use the options -z and -j when using tar with a magnetic tape backup?
A. In case of damaged tape uncompressed tar archives may allow partial recovery of the backup
B. Standard Linux compression software and hardware compresion in the tape drive will cause bigger files on the tapes.
C. Standard Linux compression software won’t be able to write to sequential tape media.
D. Backup and restore performance will be better if we don’t introduce the compression delay into the process
E. The tape drive hardware-based compression achieves higher compression rates than either gzip or bzip2 software based compression.
Correct Answer: A

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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: MCSD
Exam Name: Developing Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013 Core Solutions
Exam Code: 70-488
Total Questions: 131 Q&As
70-488 dumps
QUESTION 1
Customers report that upon creation of the Payment Confirmation document, they do not receive a confirmation message.
You need to ensure that customers receive confirmation messages.
What should you do?
A. Ensure that the user has the correct permissions to start a workflow.
B. Ensure that the Payment Confirmation content type is deployed.
C. Ensure that the user is assigned to the Wholesale role.
D. Ensure that a workflow is associated with the document content type.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
A franchisee deletes several sites from the franchise’s site collection. The franchisee site collection administrator must recover the sites.
You need to instruct the franchisee site collection administrator on how to access the page to recover the sites.
What should the site collection administrator do to get to the appropriate page?
A. Select General Settings for the Web Application in Central Administration and change the second stage Recycle Bin settings to 100 percent.
B. Select General Settings for the Web Application in Central Administration and change the first stage Recycle Bin settings to 0 days.
C. Select the Recycle Bin on the Site Settings page. Choose the appropriate sites and select Restore Selection.
D. Select the Recycle Bin in the Quick Launch page. Choose the appropriate sites and select Restore Selection.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
After deploying a solution, a code-based hotfix becomes available.
You need to deploy the hotfix.
What should you do? 70-488 dumps (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Use assembly binding redirection in the web application configuration file.
B. Increment the assembly file version of the assembly.
C. Increment the product version of the assembly.
D. Increment the assembly version of the assembly.
E. Use assembly binding redirection in the assembly policy file.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 4
You need to set the appropriate permission levels.
A variable named customRole references Wholesale.
Which code segment should you add at line UA09?
A. customRole.BasePermissions= _permissions | SPBasePermissions.ViewFormPages;
B. customRole .BasePermissions= _permissions| SPBasePermissions.ViewPages;
C. customRole.BasePermissions=SPBasePermissions.EmptyMaskSPBasePermissions.ViewPages;
D. customRole.BasePermissions=SPBasePermissions.ViewPages;
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
You need to add code at line CT11 to create the content types.
How should you complete the relevant code? (To answer, drag the appropriate code segments to the correct location or locations in the answer area. Each code segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Select and Place:
70-488 dumps
Correct Answer:
70-488 dumps
QUESTION 6
You need to configure the credential store for the app.
Which properties should you configure? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Pin
B. Windows Password
C. Windows User Name
D. Password
E. User Name
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 7
A server in the SharePoint farm experiences high memory usage. Task Scheduler on the server runs a Windows PowerShell script to perform backups of Wholesale sites.
You need to resolve any memory leak issues in the Windows PowerShell script.
What should you do? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Insert the code segment at line EW04:
Start-SPAssignment -Global
B. Insert the code segment at line EW17:
$site.Close()
C. Insert the code segment at line EW17:
Stop-SPAssignment -SemiGlobal
D. Insert the code segment at line EW17:
Stop-SPAssignment Global
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 8
You need to implement the custom claims provider for the SharePoint farm.
Which code segments should you implement? 70-488 dumps (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
70-488 dumps
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
E. Option E
F. Option F
Correct Answer: BDF

QUESTION 9
You need to meet the requirements for data storage for the CourierMobile app and the CloudMananger app.
Which technologies should you use? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Windows Azure SQL Database
B. SharePoint content database
C. Secure Store
D. SQL Server Express LocalDB
E. SharePoint list
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 10
You need to configure navigation for the site.
What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Create simple links or headers for new pages.
B. Create friendly URLs for new pages automatically.
C. Add unique identifiers to new pages.
D. Create term-driven pages with friendly URLs.
E. Add new pages to navigation automatically.
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 11
You receive an error when you deploy the app.
You need to resolve the error.
What should you do?
A. Create a deployment package and upload the app to the app catalog in SharePoint.
B. Enable side-loading of apps in the app manifest.
C. Deploy the app to https://contoso-my.sharepoint.com.
D. Enable side-loading of apps in the Visual Studio project properties.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
A\Batch 1
You need to automate the backup of a site collection.
What should you do? 70-488 dumps (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Back up to a network folder.
B. Set the LockStatus of the site collection to Adding content prevented
C. Back up to a local folder and then move the backup to a network folder.
D. Use Central Administration to perform the backup.
E. Use Windows PowerShell to perform the backup.
Correct Answer: AD

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: ICND1
Exam Name: Cisco Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1 v3.0)
Exam Code: 100-105
Total Questions: 332 Q&As
100-105 dumps
QUESTION 1
The command ip route 192.168.100.160 255.255.255.224 192.168.10.2 was issued on a router. No routing protocols or other static routes are configured on the router. Which statement is true about this command?
A. The interface with IP address 192.168.10.2 is on this router.
B. The command sets a gateway of last resort for the router.
C. Packets that are destined for host 192.168.100.160 will be sent to 192.168.10.2.
D. The command creates a static route for all IP traffic with the source address 192.168.100.160.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Some routers have been configured with default routes. What are some of the advantages of using default routes? (Choose two)
A. They establish routes that will never go down.
B. They keep routing tables small.
C. They require a great deal of CPU power.
D. They allow connectivity to remote networks that are not in the routing table
E. They direct traffic from the internet into corporate networks.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 3
Which two statements describe the process identifier that is used in the command to configure OSPF on a router? (Choose two.) 100-105 dumps
Router(config)# router ospf 1
A. All OSPF routers in an area must have the same process ID.
B. Only one process number can be used on the same router.
C. Different process identifiers can be used to run multiple OSPF processes
D. The process number can be any number from 1 to 65,535.
E. Hello packets are sent to each neighbor to determine the processor identifier.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 4
Which statements are TRUE regarding Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) addresses? (Choose three.)
A. An IPv6 address is divided into eight 16-bit groups.
B. A double colon (::) can only be used once in a single IPv6 address.
C. IPv6 addresses are 196 bits in length.
D. Leading zeros cannot be omitted in an IPv6 address.
E. Groups with a value of 0 can be represented with a single 0 in IPv6 address.
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 5
Which two of these statements are true of IPv6 address representation? (Choose two.)
A. There are four types of IPv6 addresses: unicast, multicast, anycast, and broadcast.
B. A single interface may be assigned multiple IPv6 addresses of any type.
C. Every IPv6 interface contains at least one loopback address.
D. The first 64 bits represent the dynamically created interface ID.
E. Leading zeros in an IPv6 16 bit hexadecimal field are mandatory.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 6
Which destination IP address can a host use to send one message to multiple devices across different subnets?
A. 172.20.1.0
B. 127.0.0.1
C. 192.168.0.119
D. 239.255.0.1
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which method does a connected trunk port use to tag VLAN traffic?
A. IEEE 802 1w
B. IEEE 802 1D
C. IEEE 802 1Q
D. IEEE 802 1p
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
100-105 dumps Which route source code represents the routing protocol with a default administrative distance of 90 in the routing table?
A. S
B. E
C. D
D. R
E. O
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
ROUTER# show ip route
192.168.12.0/24 is variably subnetted, 9 subnets, 3 masks
C 192.168.12.64 /28 is directly connected, Loopback1
C 192.168.12.32 /28 is directly connected, Ethernet0
C 192.168.12.48 /28 is directly connected, Loopback0
O 192.168.12.236 /30 [110/128] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:36, Serial0
C 192.168.12.232 /30 is directly connected, Serial0 O 192.168.12.245 /30 [110/782] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:36, Serial0
O 192.168.12.240 /30 [110/128] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:36, Serial0
O 192.168.12.253 /30 [110/782] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:37, Serial0
O 192.168.12.249 /30 [110/782] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:37, Serial0
O 192.168.12.240/30 [110/128] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:36, Serial 0
To what does the 128 refer to in the router output above?
A. OSPF cost
B. OSPF priority
C. OSPF hop count
D. OSPF ID number
E. OSPF administrative distance
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
The ip helper-address command does what?
A. assigns an IP address to a host
B. resolves an IP address from a DNS server
C. relays a DHCP request across networks
D. resolves an IP address overlapping issue
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
A receiving host has failed to receive all of the segments that it should acknowledge. What can the host do to improve the reliability of this communication session?
A. decrease the window size
B. use a different source port for the session
C. decrease the sequence number
D. obtain a new IP address from the DHCP server
E. start a new session using UDP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Why would a network administrator configure port security on a switch?
A. to prevent unauthorized Telnet access to a switch port
B. to prevent unauthorized hosts from accessing the LAN
C. to limit the number of Layer 2 broadcasts on a particular switch port
D. block unauthorized access to the switch management interfaces
Correct Answer: B

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: ICND2
Exam Name: Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2 v3.0)
Exam Code: 200-105
Total Questions: 204 Q&As
200-105 dumps
QUESTION 1
When the enterprise-based authentication method is used for WPA2, a bidirectional handshake exchange occurs between the client and the authenticator.
Which five options are results of that exchange being used on a controller-based network? (Choose five.)
A. a bidirectional exchange of a nonce used for key generation
B. binding of a Pairwise Master Key at the client and the controller
C. creation of the Pairwise Transient Key
D. distribution of the Group Transient Key
E. distribution of the Pairwise Master key for caching at the access point
F. proof that each side is alive
Correct Answer: A,B,C,D,F

QUESTION 2
Which type of management tasks can be completed on a Cisco WLC remotely from a wireless client?
A. All management and configuration tasks can be performed from a wireless client except for using debug commands.
B. In the default configuration, no management or configuration is possible through the GUI or CLI on the Cisco WLC.
C. The default configuration of the Cisco WLC allows only CLI access and then only the use of show commands, so no configuration is possible.
D. All management and configuration tasks, except uploads from and downloads to the Cisco WLC, are permitted.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
The network administrator wants an access point to be able to find rogue APs and to support location-based services. 200-105 dumps Which AP mode meets this requirement while having the radios up and preventing client connections?
A. monitor
B. sniffer
C. rogue-detection
D. H-REAP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which architecture is used to divide the roles between the access point and the WLC when deploying a centralized wireless solution?
A. Split MAC
B. CAPWAP
C. LWAPP
D. Local MAC
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which statement about customization of a web page that is used on a WLC to authorize guest users is true?
A. The administrator can use either a modified internal login page or the customized web page.
B. The administrator can use only the internal login page, and only the organization logo can be changed.
C. The administrator can use only the internal login page with a customized logo, headline, and message.
D. The administrator can use only the customized web page that is uploaded to a WLC.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:
200-105 dumps
Correct Answer:
200-105 dumps
QUESTION 7
A network administrator is troubleshooting an EIGRP problem on a router and needs to confirm the IP addresses of the devices with which the router has established adjacency. 200-105 dumps The retransmit interval and the queue counts for the adjacent routers also need to be checked. What command will display the required information?
A. Router# show ip eigrp adjacency
B. Router# show ip eigrp topology
C. Router#show ip eigrp interfaces
D. Router#show ip eigrp neighbors
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which Cisco program for WLAN client vendors helps to ensure that their devices are interoperable with Cisco WLAN infrastructure?
A. CCX
B. CCMP
C. ASDM
D. WLSE
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which statement describes spread spectrum technology in wireless communications?
A. Signal is spread across optical pulses.
B. Signal is spread across variations of amplitudes.
C. Signal is spread across one frequency.
D. Signal is spread across a whole band of frequencies.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
What can be done to secure the virtual terminal interfaces on a router? (Choose two.)
A. Administratively shut down the interface.
B. Physically secure the interface.
C. Create an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces with the access-group command.
D. Configure a virtual terminal password and login process.
E. Enter an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces using the access-class command.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 11
An engineer has been asked to upgrade the FUS on the Wireless LAN controller. How can they monitor the status of the upgrade?
A. WLC GUI
B. WLC CLI
C. WLC Console
D. WLC Management in Prime Infrastructure
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
The network administrator receives complaints of slow wireless network performance and performs a sniffer trace of the wireless network in preparation for migration to 802.11n. 200-105 dumps The sample capture shows frames that contains AP beacons with NonERP_Present bit set to 1 and frames with RTS/CTS.
Which two conclusions can be interpreted from these frames? (Choose two.)
A. The network is performing slowly because 802.11n clients are already mixed with 802.11g clients.
B. The network is performing slowly because 802.11b clients still exist in the network.
C. The network is performing slowly because a wireless client is incorrectly configured, which results in RF interference.
D. Possible 802.11b wireless clients are located only in the AP cell radius where the sniffer capture was performed.
E. Possible 802.11b wireless clients could be located anywhere in the wireless network.
Correct Answer: B,E

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA Wireless
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Wireless Network Fundamentals
Exam Code: 200-355
Total Questions: 378 Q&As
200-355 dumps
QUESTION 1
When an AP, in its default configuration mode, connects to a Cisco WLC, which methods are available forremote management access to an AP?
A. SSL and SSH are available only after configuration by a Cisco WLC version 7.0.
B. SSH only
C. HTTPS, and SSH
D. SSH and Telnet
E. SSH and Telnet are available only after configuration by a Cisco WLC version 7.0.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
A lightweight AP has been deployed in local mode in a network that consists of 10 wireless LAN controllers in a single mobility group. The AP has been configured to use primary, secondary, and tertiary Cisco WLCs. Due to a major power failure, all those Cisco WLCs are unavailable.
Which step does the AP take next?
A. The AP reboots and repeatedly attempts to join the configured primary, secondary, and tertiary Cisco WLCs in that order. The process continues until one of the configured Cisco WLCs is available.
B. The AP attempts to join a Cisco WLC configured as a master controller.
C. The AP attempts to join the Cisco WLC that has the greatest capacity available.
D. The AP state transitions to AP Fallback Mode and continues to provide limited WLAN services (that is, no new client authentications) until a Cisco WLC is available.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
A customer is reviewing Cisco Prime Infrastructure to identify malicious rogue access points that are operating within the customer environment. 200-355 dumps Which dashboard in Cisco Prime Infrastructure displays this information by default?
A. Context Aware
B. CleanAir
C. Security
D. General
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
What must be done for Cisco WLC and Cisco WCS to communicate?
A. The IP address and subnet mask of the Cisco WLC must be configured in the Cisco WCS.
B. The IP address and subnet mask of the Cisco WCS must be configured in the Cisco WLC.
C. The identity certificate of the Cisco WLC must be added to the Cisco WCS.
D. The Cisco WLC and Cisco WCS must exchange identity certificates.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which architecture is used to divide the roles between the access point and the WLC when deploying a centralized wireless solution?
A. Split MAC
B. CAPWAP
C. LWAPP
D. Local MAC
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
200-355 dumps
Refer to the exhibit. The wireless engineer has deployed the Cisco 5508 Wireless Controller. The controller is responding on the service port; however, it will not respond on the management interface. 200-355 dumps
Which configuration revision will fix the management interface?
A. On the switch interface, configure switch(config-if)#switchport trunk allowed vlan add 10.
B. On the WLC management interface, disable LAG on the management network.
C. On the switch interface, configure switch(config-if)#switchport trunk allowed vlan 10.
D. On the WLC management interface, change the VLAN ID to 20.
E. On the switch interface, configure no spanning-tree portfast trunk.
F. On WLC Controller > General, disable LAG and reboot.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which Cisco AnyConnect module allows troubleshooting for core Cisco AnyConnect problems?
A. telemetry
B. web security
C. VPN
D. NAM
E. DART
F. posture
G. CSSC
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 8
The administrator needs to create a report that shows all controllers, APs, and Cisco 3300 Series MSEs in the WLAN, including hardware and software information. Which report includes this information?
A. Device > Inventory
B. Mesh > Nodes
C. Network Summary > Executive Summary
D. Network Summary > 802.11 Summary
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which two statements about the requirements to configure inter-controller roaming are true? (Choose two.)
A. The same mobility domain names are configured across controllers.
B. The same RF group names are configured across controllers.
C. The same controller hardware version is configured across controllers.
D. The same AP manager interface is configured across controllers.
E. The same virtual interface is configured across controllers.
F. The same controller software version is configured across controllers.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 10
Which two Cisco WLC management-access methods are available as the default setting? 200-355 dumps (Choose two.)
A. SSH
B. HTTPS
C. Telnet
D. HTTP
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 11
During the deployment of a wireless network for data and location services, an engineer is to fine-tune the location services. What is this type of survey called?
A. passive fingerprinting
B. passive calibrating
C. active fingerprinting
D. active calibrating
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
The network administrator receives complaints of slow wireless network performance and performs a sniffer trace of the wireless network in preparation for migration to 802.11n. The sample capture shows frames that contains AP beacons with NonERP_Present bit set to 1 and frames with RTS/CTS.
Which two conclusions can be interpreted from these frames? (Choose two.)
A. The network is performing slowly because 802.11n clients are already mixed with 802.11g clients.
B. The network is performing slowly because 802.11b clients still exist in the network.
C. The network is performing slowly because a wireless client is incorrectly configured, which results in RF interference.
D. Possible 802.11b wireless clients are located only in the AP cell radius where the sniffer capture was performed.
E. Possible 802.11b wireless clients could be located anywhere in the wireless network.
Correct Answer: BE

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA
Exam Name: CCNA Cisco Certified Network Associate CCNA (v3.0)
Exam Code: 200-125
Total Questions: 966 Q&As

QUESTION 1
Under normal operations, cisco recommends that you configure switch ports on which vlan?
A. on the default vlan
B. on the management vlan
C. on the native vlan
D. on any vlan except the default vlan
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which function does IP SLA ICMP ECHO operation perform to assist with troubleshooting
A. packet-loss detection
B. congestion detection
C. hop-by-hop response time
D. one way jitter measurement
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which command can you enter to display the operational status of the network ports on a router? 200-125 dumps
A. show interface switchport
B. show ip interface brief
C. show running-config interface fastethernet 0/1
D. show interface status
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
If a router has 3 hosts connected in one port and two other hosts connected in another port, how may broadcast domains are present on the router?
A. 5
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Three switches are connected to one another via trunk ports. Assuming the default switch configuration, which switch is elected as the root bridge for the spanning-tree instance of VLAN 1?
A. the switch with the highest MAC address
B. the switch with the lowest MAC address
C. the switch with the highest IP address
D. the switch with the lowest IP address
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.
200-125 dumps
Switch port FastEthernet 0/24 on ALSwitch1 will be used to create an IEEE 802.1Q- compliant trunk to another switch. Based on the output shown, what is the reason the trunk does not form, 200-125 dumps even though the proper cabling has been attached?
A. VLANs have not been created yet.
B. An IP address must be configured for the port.
C. The port is currently configured for access mode.
D. The correct encapsulation type has not been configured.
E. The “no shutdown” command has not been entered for the port.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which type of mac address is aged automatically by the switch?
A. Dynamic
B. Static
C. automatic
D. manual
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which Cisco platform can verify ACLs?
A. Cisco Prime Infrastructure
B. Cisco Wireless LAN Controller
C. Cisco APIC-EM
D. Cisco IOS-XE
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
What are two benefits of private IPv4 IP addresses? (Choose two.)
A. They are routed the same as public IP addresses.
B. They are less costly than public IP addresses.
C. They can be assigned to devices without Internet connections.
D. They eliminate the necessity for NAT policies.
E. They eliminate duplicate IP conflicts.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 10
Which command is necessary to permit SSH or Telnet access to a cisco switch that is otherwise configured for these vty line protocols?
A. transport type all
B. transport output all
C. transport preferred all
D. transport input all
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
In which three ways is an IPv6 header simpler than an IPv4 header? 200-125 dumps (Choose three.)
A. Unlike IPv4 headers, IPv6 headers have a fixed length.
B. IPv6 uses an extension header instead of the IPv4 Fragmentation field.
C. IPv6 headers eliminate the IPv4 Checksum field.
D. IPv6 headers use the Fragment Offset field in place of the IPv4 Fragmentation field.
E. IPv6 headers use a smaller Option field size than IPv4 headers.
F. IPv6 headers use a 4-bit TTL field, and IPv4 headers use an 8-bit TTL field.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 12
Which three statements about static routing are true? (Choose three.)
A. It uses consistent route determination.
B. It is best used for small-scale deployments.
C. Routing is disrupted when links fail.
D. It requires more resources than other routing methods.
E. It is best used for large-scale deployments.
F. Routers can use update messages to reroute when links fail.
Correct Answer: ABC

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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: MCSM
Exam Name: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012
Exam Code: 070-410
Total Questions: 503 Q&As
070-410 dumps
QUESTION 1
You work as a senior administrator at L2P.com. The L2P.com network consists of a single domain named L2P.com. All servers on the L2P.com network have Windows Server 2012 installed, and all workstations have Windows 8 installed.
You are running a training exercise for junior administrators. You are currently discussing the Always Offline Mode.
Which of the following is TRUE with regards to the Always Offline Mode? (Choose all that apply.)
A. It allows for swifter access to cached files and redirected folders.
B. To enable Always Offline Mode, you have to satisfy the forest and domain functional-level requirements, as well as schema requirements.
C. It allows for lower bandwidth usage due to users are always working offline.
D. To enable Always Offline Mode, you must have workstations running Windows 7 or Windows Server 2008 R2.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 2
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2. An application named Appl.exe is installed on all client computers. Multiple versions of Appl.exe are installed on different client computers. Appl.exe is digitally signed. You need to ensure that only the latestversion of Appl.exe can run on the client computers.
What should you create?
A. An application control policy packaged app rule
B. A software restriction policy certificate rule
C. An application control policy Windows Installer rule
D. An application control policy executable rule
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
You have a server named Server1 that runs a full installation of Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to uninstall the graphical user interface (GUI) on Server1. 070-410 dumps
You must achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of Administrative effort. What should you do?
A. Reinstall Windows Server 2012 R2 on the server.
B. From Server Manager, uninstall the User Interfaces and Infrastructure feature.
C. From Windows PowerShell, run Uninstall-WindowsFeature PowerShell-ISE
D. From Windows PowerShell, run Uninstall-WindowsFeature Desktop-Experience.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to ensure that the local Administrator account on all computers is renamed to L_Admin. Which Group Policy settings should you modify?
A. Security Options
B. User Rights Assignment
C. Restricted Groups
D. Preferences
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The computer accounts for all member servers are located in an organizational unit (OU) named Servers. You link a Group Policy object (GPO) to the Servers OU.
You need to ensure that the domain’s Backup Operators group is a member of the local Backup Operators group on each member server. The solution must not remove any groups from the local Backup Operators groups.
What should you do?
A. Add a restricted group named adatum\Backup Operators. Add Backup Operators to the This group is a member of list.
B. Add a restricted group named adatum\Backup Operators. Add Backup Operators to the Members of this group list.
C. Add a restricted group named Backup Operators. Add adatum\Backup Operators to the This group is a member of list.
D. Add a restricted group named Backup Operators. Add adatum\Backup Operators to the Members of this group list.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has five network adapters. Three of the network adapters an connected to a network named LAN1. The two other network adapters are connected to a network named LAN2.
You need to create a network adapter team from the three network adapters connected to LAN 1.
Which tool should you use?
A. Routing and Remote Access
B. Network and Sharing Center
C. Server Manager
D. Network Load Balancing Manager
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All user accounts in the sales department reside in an organizational unit (OU) named OU1. You have a Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1. GPO1 is used to deploy a logon script to all of the users in the sales department. 070-410 dumps
You discover that the logon script does not run when the sales users log on to their computers.
You open Group Policy Management as shown in the exhibit.
You need to ensure that the logon script in GPO1 is applied to the sales users. What should you do?
070-410 dumps
A. Enforce GPO1.
B. Modify the link order of GPO1.
C. Modify the Delegation settings of GPO1.
D. Enable the link of GPO1.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two domain controllers named DC1 and DC2. You install Windows Server 2012 on a new computer named DC3. You need to manually configure DC3 as a domain controller. Which tool should you use?
A. Server Manager
B. winrm.exe
C. Active Directory Domains and Trusts
D. dcpromo.exe
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
You install Windows Server 2012 R2 on a standalone server named Server1. You configure Server1 as a VPN server.
You need to ensure that client computers can establish PPTP connections to Server1. Which two firewall rules should you create? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution.Choose two.)
A. An inbound rule for protocol 47
B. An outbound rule for protocol 47
C. An inbound rule for TCP port 1723
D. An inbound rule for TCP port 1701
E. An outbound rule for TCP port 1723
F. An outbound rule for TCP port 1701
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 10
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains several thousand member servers that run Windows Server 2012 R2. All of the computer accounts for the member servers are in an organizational unit (OU) named ServersAccounts.
Servers are restarted only occasionally.
You need to identify which servers were restarted during the last two days.
What should you do?
A. Run dsquery computerand specify the -staiepwdpara meter.
B. Run Get-ADComputerand specify the SearchScope parameter.
C. Run Get-ADComputerand specify the IastLogonproperty.
D. Run dsquery serverand specify the -oparameter
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains 100 servers. The servers are contained in a organizational unit (OU) named ServersOU. 070-410 dumps You need to create a group named Group1 on all of the servers in the domain.
You must ensure that Group1 is added only to the servers.
What should you configure?
A. a Local Users and Groups preferences setting in a Group Policy linked to the Domain Controllers OU
B. a Restricted Groups setting in a Group Policy linked to the domain
C. a Local Users and Groups preferences setting in a Group Policy linked to ServersOU
D. a Restricted Groups setting in a Group Policy linked to ServersOU
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a domain controller named DC1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
You need to configure a central store for the Group Policy Administrative Templates. What should you do on DC1?
A. From Server Manager, create a storage pool.
B. From Windows Explorer, copy the PolicyDefinitions folder to the SYSVOL\contoso.com\policies folder.
C. From Server Manager, add the Group Policy Management feature
D. From Windows Explorer, copy the PolicyDefinitions folder to the NETLOGON share.
Correct Answer: B

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